云南省昭通市昭阳区多校联考2025-2026学年九年级上学期10月月考英语试题

秘密★考试结束前 2025年秋季学期学生综合素养阶段性练习 九年级英语（1） 【命题范围：第一单元】 （全卷四个部分，共8页；满分100分，考试用时120分钟） 注意事项： 1. 考生必须在答题卡上解题作答。答案应书写在答题卡的相应位置上，在试卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 2. 考试结束后，请将试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力、口语（共六节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图画。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。 1. A. B. C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 4. A. B. C. 5. A. B. C. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。 6. A. Yes, I do. B. No, I don’t. C. Yes, I have. 7. A. Sure. B. That’s all right. C. Great. 8. A. The library. B. Never. C. No, I haven’t. 9. A. It’s great. B. Well done. C. Of course. 10. A. That’s all right. B. Have a good time. C. Help yourself. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面三段对话，每段对话后面有一个或两个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题五秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出五秒钟的作答时间。每段对话听两遍。 听第一段对话，回答第11小题。 11. What is the population of the city? A. 2,000,000. B. 3,00,000. C. 40,000. 听第二段对话，回答第12、13小题。 12. Which country did Kate visit last month? A. America. B. Australia. C. Canada. 13. How long did she stay there? A. Two years. B. Two months. C. Two weeks. 听第三段对话，回答第14、15小题。 14. How many buildings are there in the school now? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 15. Where is the lab? A. Next to the library. B. Beside the playground. C. Behind the dining hall. 第四节（共7小题；每个单词0.5分，每个句子1分，满分5分） 用正确的语音语调朗读题中所给的四个单词和三个句子。 16. hide 17. rapid 18. natural 19. government 20. Have you been to the new cinema? 21. The population of China is larger than that of Australia. 22. How do you like this project? 第五节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 用日常交际用语对下列问题做出回答，每个问题问两遍。 23. （乐于助人的；十年） 24. （天空；海滩） 25. （图书馆；为考试做准备） 26. （每周一次；两个小时） 27. （很糟糕；8岁） 第六节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据情景提示完成下列问题，每个情景提示后有1个问题。根据情景提示的内容用英语进行回答。每个问题问两遍。 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. —Would you like to go to the City Museum with me this Monday? —Of course. But the museum is open every day ________ Mondays. What about going there this Sunday? A. except B. on C. from D. for 2. The number of students in our class ________ fifty. And a number of them ________ to Chimelong Ocean Kingdom at least twice. A. is, has been B. are, has gone C. is, have been D. are, have gone 3. —How long have you been in Beijing? —________. A. Five years ago B. Since five years ago C. Since five years D. For five years ago 4. About 5________ children have got a better education ________ Project Hope. A. millions of; because B. millions of; because of C. million; because D. million; because of 5. She is ________ a helpful girl ________ all of us want to make friends with her. A. too; to B. enough; to C. so; that D. such; that 6. —Have you ________ seen the movie? —No, not ________. A. ever; yet B. ever; ever C. yet; yet D. yet; ever 7. —5G has made our life more convenient than before. —________. What exciting news for us! A. So it is B. So is it C. So it has D. So has it 8. —Jim, this comic book is so cool. Is it yours? —No. It is from the school library. I have ________ it for 2 weeks. A. borrowed B. kept C. loved D. had 9. The ring is not expensive, but it is of great ________ to me. It was a gift from my late grandmother. A. value B. progress C. effect D. contribution 10. Kangkang ________ a purse on his way home yesterday. A. put on B. picked up C. turned on D. stayed up 第二节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 Thanksgiving was just around the corner. The menu had been set. The shopping list was made. Everything seemed perfect. I could taste turkey and mashed potatoes (火鸡和土豆泥). Pictures of different pies, fruit and vegetables came into my mind. I couldn’t ____11____! The day before Thanksgiving my dad ____12____ a family meeting. He said we needed to practice being ____13____. “We are going to ____14____ at a homeless shelter (收容所) on Thanksgiving Day.” I couldn’t believe this was happening. ____15____ we wouldn’t cook our own Thanksgiving dinner? The holiday wouldn’t be the same. I thought the day would be ruined (糟蹋). The next morning, we got up ____16____. I followed my father to the shelter with my sleepy eyes. I had no great expectations and felt down all the way. As soon as we arrived, we got to work. There was so much to be done. But all I could think about was the dinner I couldn’t enjoy. However, those thoughts soon ____17____. Over the next few hours, I watched hundreds of people come through the shelter. For some, this was the only hot meal they would eat that week. For others, it was the first time to eat a Thanksgiving meal. The shelter was filled with joy. Through this ____18____, I learned that Thanksgiving is a time to think about your blessings (祝福) and look for ways to bless others. When I ____19____ what I had wanted, I discovered how much I have. It is much better to ____20____ than to receive. In the end, that Thanksgiving became an unforgettable experience. 11. A. wait B. care C. understand D. explain 12. A. called B. read C. went D. arrived 13. A. creative B. nervous C. thankful D. interested 14. A. rush out B. help out C. check out D. come out 15. A. Because B. But C. Or D. So 16. A. happily B. late C. suddenly D. early 17. A. appeared B. disappeared C. rose D. left 18. A. expression B. expectation C. exchange D. experience 19. A. gave up B. gave away C. gave out D. gave in 20. A. give B. take C. waste D. bring 第三部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 根据短文内容，判断正误（正确“T”，错误“F”）。 Finding time to read is important to all kids. And there are many easy ways to make reading a part of each day — even when it’s hard to find time to sit down with a book. Chances of reading are everywhere. Train trips, waiting for a bus, time after dinner and before bedtime are all chances of reading. Keep books or magazines in your car, bag or backpack whenever you’re going to be in one place for a while. Even daily activities like cooking can provide reading moments. You can read recipes aloud to younger kids, and older kids can help you as you cook by telling you how much food you need. Ask friends to send your child letters, e-mails or text messages, and read them together. Help your child write letters or messages to send back to the friends. These activities help kids see the importance of reading. Even when you’re trying to get things done, you can encourage your children to read. While cleaning, for example, you might ask your child to read a favorite book to you. Younger kids can talk to you about the pictures in their favorite books. Make sure kids get some time to spend quietly with books, even if it means cutting back on other activities, like watching TV or playing video games. Most importantly, be a reader yourself. Kids who see their parents reading are likely to imitate them and become readers, too! 21. Dinner time is probably not a good time for reading. 22. Asking friends to send your child letters and e-mails can help him see the importance of reading. 23. It’s not good for kids to spend some time reading quietly. 24. To encourage kids to read, it’s the most important for parents to be readers. 25. The passage is mainly for kids. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分。满分15分） 根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出正确选项。 A Once there was a forest where all the animals lived happily together. One day a family went to spend the day in the forest, and the son left his socks there. After the family left, a bear came by, found the socks, and decided to try them on. They fit well, and he liked them so much that he wouldn’t take them off. All the animals talked about the bear’s new look. Soon, in the forest, there began appearing squirrels in shirts, rabbits in shoes and even rats in hats! The forest doctor shook his head and said, “This can’t be good. Animals don’t need clothes!” But no one listened to him. They said he was out of fashion. However, it wasn’t long before the first result of the fashion fever came. Several times the squirrel caught his shirt in trees, stopping him falling to the ground from a tree. The rat couldn’t go into his hole without taking off his hat first. Even the bear, because of his socks, slipped from a river rock and almost killed himself. When the animals came to see the doctor, he gave them all the same advice, “Take off those clothes, or one day they’re going to kill you.” Those who listened to the doctor’s advice stopped having accidents. And the animals realized that they didn’t need clothes at all. Wearing them had been very dangerous, and they had only done it to make others admire them, and to attract attention. 26. What is the main idea of the third paragraph? A. The results of the fashion fever. B. Some animals were out of fashion. C. Animals liked different clothes. D. Different animals in the forest. 27. The underlined word “them” in the last paragraph refers to “________”. A. doctors B. animals C. forests D. clothes 28. Which is NOT true according to the passage? A. The son’s socks fit the bear well. B. The animals accepted the doctor’s advice at last. C. The forest doctor was out of fashion. D. The forest doctor didn’t agree with the animals. 29. What can we learn from the passage? A. The things that fit ourselves are the best. B. We should live happily together. C. We shouldn’t fall behind the fashion. D. We’d better go to see a doctor if we are ill. 30. What is the topic of the passage? A. The animals in the forest. B. The fashion fever in the forest. C. Different clothes in the forest. D. The doctor in the forest. B Saturday，March 24th We have arrived in the hot, wet city of Bangkok. This is our first trip to Thailand. All the different smells make us want to try the food. We are going to eat something special for dinner tonight（今晚）. The hotel we are staying in is cheap and very clean. We plan to stay here for a few days, visit some places in the city, and then travel to Chiang Mai in the North. Tuesday, March 27th Bangkok is wonderful and surprising! The places are interesting. We visited the famous market which was on water, and saw a lot of fruits and vegetables. Everything is so colorful, and we have taken hundreds of photos already! Later today we will leave for Chiang Mai. We will take the train north, stay in Chiang Mai for two days, and then catch a bus to Chiang Rai. Friday，March 30th Our trip to Chiang Rai was long and boring. We visited a small village in the mountains. The village people here love the quiet life—no computers or phones. They are the kindest people I have ever met. They always smile and say “hello”. Kathy and I can only speak a few words of Thailand, so smiling is the best way to show our kindness. I feel good here and hope to be able to come back next year. 根据短文内容，选择正确答案。 31. The diaries above show the writer’s days in Thailand. A. 3 B. 7 C. 15 D. 30 32. It seems that visitors in Bangkok. A. often feel hungry B. can always find cheap things C. can’t take any photos D. can enjoy themselves 33. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Chiang Mai is a beautiful city in the south of Thailand. B. The writer left Chiang Mai for Chiang Rai by bus. C. Chiang Rai is a boring city in the mountains. D. The writer is traveling alone in Thailand. 34. The people in the village . A. are friendly to others B. like to speak English C. are very weak D. hope to live in the cities 35. The best title of this article is . A. My First Travel B. The Outside World C. Traveling in Thailand D. A Country on the Train C The Icon of the Seas is now the world’s largest cruise ship. It had a seven-day tour of the Caribbean on January 27, 2024. The ship weighs about 250,800 tons (吨). That is about five times the weight of the ship Titanic! It has 20 decks (甲板) and seven pools, and can hold over 7,000 guests. It also has several wonderful “neighborhoods”. Now let’s take a look. Chill Island The three-deck-high Chill Island is for those who want to relax. It has the largest pool ever built for a trip. Thrill Island Thrill Island is an exciting “neighborhood”. It has “Adrenaline Peak”—a rock climbing wall. Only those who are brave enough can reach the top. This neighborhood is home to “Category 6”. As the name shows, it has six water slides (水滑梯). And it also has a basketball playground. Aquadome It is on the ship’s highest deck. It has many great restaurants. Guests can also enjoy amazing concerts there. As you might have guessed, a seven-day trip on the Icon of the Seas is not cheap. It costs between $1,800 and $2,200 each person. However, the high price does not appear to stop fans. It is said that the Icon of the Seas is almost fully booked until 2026! 36. How heavy is the ship Titanic? A. About 50,000 tons. B. About 60,000 tons. C. About 90,000 tons. D. About 130,000 tons. 37. What can tourists do in Thrill Island? ①Give concerts. ②Play basketball. ③Do some climbing. ④Go down water slides. A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ D. ②③④ 38. If tourists want to enjoy delicious meals, they can go to ________. A. Adrenaline Peak B. Chill Island C. Thrill Island D. Aquadome 39. Which words can best describe the trip on the Icon of the Seas? A. Cheap and popular. B. Cheap but unpopular. C. Expensive but popular. D. Expensive and unpopular. 40. What is the structure of the passage? A. B. C. D. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Do you like sunny days or cloudy days? Most people like sunny days because good weather can make them feel good. ____41____ The weather can affect people’s feelings a lot. Food can also affect people’s feelings. People can’t change the weather, but they can change something they eat. ____42____ Vegetables. Scientists say vegetables can make good feelings for people. ____43____ Scientists say that people who live around the sea are healthy and have good feelings. Not only because there is beautiful sea and clean air, but also because people there eat fish as their food. Fruit. Before you go to have exams, you can eat some fruit. ____44____ Whole-wheat (全麦的) bread. ____45____ Whole-wheat bread or other whole-wheat food can help people fight against sad feelings. Next time, when the weather is not fine or you are sad, you can choose to eat something like these. A. Fish from deep sea. B. The hamburger is my favorite. C. Do you want to have a drink with me? D. But if it’s cloudy, many people may feel sad. E. Here is some food to help you keep good feelings. F. For example, oranges can make people feel relaxed. G. There is a saying that goes, “All sadness is less with bread”. 第四部分 写作（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空。 46. I ________ my homework yet. I am afraid I can’t go to the park with you. (not finish) 47. China has developed rapidly, so we can enjoy good ________ care. (medicine) 48. Dangal is one of the Top 10 movies ________. (recent) 49. The life we were used to ________ since 1978. (change) 50. Without enough sleep, you will do even ________ in your schoolwork. (badly) 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语，注意使用适当的形式。 51. In order to get a new doll, Linda broke her old one ________. (故意地) 52. ________, Lisa has collected 100 stamps since she came here. It’s amazing. (到目前为止) 53. The tourist business in our hometown has become a real ________ (产业). 54. He is very happy because he has ________ passing the exam. (成功) 55. I use my mobile phone to check my calendar and to ________ others.（与……保持联系） 第三节 书面表达（满分10分） 56. 提示：转眼我们就到了九年级。我们有哪些变化呢？请以“My Changes”为题，用英语写一篇短文，介绍一下你的变化。 要求： 1. 语言流畅、书写规范、卷面整洁，词数不少于80个； 2. 文中不得使用真实姓名、校名，否则以零分计； 3. 请将短文写在答题卡上，写在本试题卷上无效。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 秘密★考试结束前 2025年秋季学期学生综合素养阶段性练习 九年级英语（1） 【命题范围：第一单元】 （全卷四个部分，共8页；满分100分，考试用时120分钟） 注意事项： 1. 考生必须在答题卡上解题作答。答案应书写在答题卡的相应位置上，在试卷、草稿纸上作答无效。 2. 考试结束后，请将试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力、口语（共六节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相关的图画。听完每个句子后，你将有5秒钟的作答时间。每个句子听两遍。 1. A. B. C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 4. A. B. C. 5. A. B. C. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5个句子，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子内容相符的正确答语。听完每个句子后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子听两遍。 6. A. Yes, I do. B. No, I don’t. C. Yes, I have. 7. A. Sure. B. That’s all right. C. Great. 8. A. The library. B. Never. C. No, I haven’t. 9. A. It’s great. B. Well done. C. Of course. 10. A. That’s all right. B. Have a good time. C. Help yourself. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面三段对话，每段对话后面有一个或两个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题五秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出五秒钟的作答时间。每段对话听两遍。 听第一段对话，回答第11小题。 11. What is the population of the city? A. 2,000,000. B. 3,00,000. C. 40,000. 听第二段对话，回答第12、13小题。 12. Which country did Kate visit last month? A. America. B. Australia. C. Canada. 13. How long did she stay there? A. Two years. B. Two months. C. Two weeks. 听第三段对话，回答第14、15小题。 14. How many buildings are there in the school now? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 15. Where is the lab? A. Next to the library. B. Beside the playground. C. Behind the dining hall. 第四节（共7小题；每个单词0.5分，每个句子1分，满分5分） 用正确的语音语调朗读题中所给的四个单词和三个句子。 16. hide 17. rapid 18. natural 19. government 20. Have you been to the new cinema? 21. The population of China is larger than that of Australia. 22. How do you like this project? 第五节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 用日常交际用语对下列问题做出回答，每个问题问两遍。 23. （乐于助人的；十年） 24. （天空；海滩） 25. （图书馆；为考试做准备） 26. （每周一次；两个小时） 27. （很糟糕；8岁） 第六节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据情景提示完成下列问题，每个情景提示后有1个问题。根据情景提示的内容用英语进行回答。每个问题问两遍。 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】A 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】D 【5题答案】 【答案】D 【6题答案】 【答案】A 【7题答案】 【答案】C 【8题答案】 【答案】B 【9题答案】 【答案】A 【10题答案】 【答案】B 第二节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. A 第三部分 阅读理解（共三节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. T 22. T 23. F 24. T 25. F 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分。满分15分） 根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出正确选项。 A 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. A 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. B B 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. B 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. C C 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. A 37. D 38. D 39. C 40. B 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 【41~45题答案】 【答案】41. D 42. E 43. A 44. F 45. G 第四部分 写作（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据句意，用括号中所给词的适当形式填空。 【46题答案】 【答案】haven’t finished 【47题答案】 【答案】medical 【48题答案】 【答案】recently 【49题答案】 【答案】has changed 【50题答案】 【答案】worse 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 将下列句子中汉语部分译成英语，注意使用适当的形式。 【51题答案】 【答案】on purpose 【52题答案】 【答案】So far 【53题答案】 【答案】industry 【54题答案】 【答案】succeeded in 【55题答案】 【答案】keep in touch with 第三节 书面表达（满分10分） 【56题答案】 【答案】参考范文： My Changes I’m in Grade 9 and I have changed a lot. First, I used to be thin, but now I am a little fatter. Second, I have made much progress in English. I used to be weak in it. But with my English teacher’s help, now I often get good scores on my English exams. What’s more, I’m more outgoing than I used to be. I used to be afraid of speaking in front of people. Now, I can give a speech in public. These are my changes. 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