广西来宾市联考2025-2026学年高二下学期7月期末英语试题

2026年春季学期综合练习题 （一） 高二英语 (本试卷满分 150 分，考试时间 120 分钟) 注意事项： 1. 答题前，务必将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。 2. 答选择题时，必须使用 2B 铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。 3. 答非选择题时，必须使用 0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔，将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。 4. 所有题目必须在答题卡上作答，在试题卷上答题无效。 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What will the speakers most likely do after lunch? A. Write a paper. B. Attend a workshop. C. Visit a store. 2. What did the man’s sister major in? A. Fashion design. B. Medicine. C. Engineering. 3. What is the main topic of the conversation? A. Gifts for a friend. B. A literature event. C. A party. 4. Where are the speakers probably? A. At a café. B. At a university. C. At an animal shelter. 5. How can the man’s recipe be described? A. It’s a reward. B. It’s a success. C. It’s a problem. 第二节 (共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7题。 6. Where are the speakers? A. At Tom’s house. B. In a meeting room. C. At a train station. 7. How does the woman probably feel in the end? A. Worried. B. Relieved. C. Angry. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What is the man’s problem? A. He has a temperature. B. He is struggling to save energy. C. He is too cold to do his work. 9. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. In the woman’s house. C. In a school. 10. What does the woman suggest? A. Stopping working right now. B. Taking better care of their health. C. Discussing the issue with the leader. 听第8段材料，回答第11至 13题。 11. How do the speakers feel now? A. Bored. B. Disappointed. C. Excited. 12. What is probably the woman’s main interest? A. Model cars. B. Doll’s houses. C. Model trains. 13. What will the man probably do first? A. Go to the toilet. B. Get something to eat. C. Buy the tickets. 听第9段材料，回答第14至 17题。 14. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Mother and son. B. Strangers. C. Teacher and student. 15. What month is it now? A. September. B. October. C. November. 16. What sport was the man involved in? A. Football. B. Swimming. C. Basketball. 17. What does the man probably want to be in the future? A. A doctor. B. An athlete. C. An artist. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is the main focus of the program? A. Scientific exploration. B. Artistic appreciation. C. Management skills 19. What will students need to do at the start of the program? A. Sit an exam. B. Give a report. C. Design an experiment. 20. What is special about the program? A. It stresses theoretical study. B. It organizes activities outside school. C. It specializes in computer-assisted research. 第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Kid-friendly attractions & hands-on museums Washington, D.C.'s wealth of museums and attractions means there are always magical places where kids are transported from the “Ho-hum” of touring to the “Wow!” of experiencing. Many of these sites feature interactive exhibits (互动式展品) and entertainment to help attract the attention of even the smallest sightseer. Begin your exploring with these family-friendly museums and hands-on attractions. National Geographic Museum Animal lovers young and old will look forward to a visit to the National Geographic Museum, which is near Farragut West. There are changing exhibits that always feature work by great photographers, as well as exhibits that show the efforts of international scientists to protect the natural world's resources and animals. Children under 5 are free. National Air and Space Museum The National Air and Space Museum on the National Mall offers daily programs involving science experimentation. Kids are welcome to make and fly their own paper airplane, look through a real telescope with astronomy experts, watch a show at the Planetarium, climb in an aircraft, or watch an IMAX film. National Building Museum Kids can learn how engineers construct architectural wonders by using soft blocks in the Great Hall of the National Building Museum. Little ones will love the Building Zone, where they can drive a bulldozer (推土机) and build a house. Renwick Gallery Take the kids to the Renwick Gallery, which hosts the Smithsonian American Art Museum's amazing collection of decorative art, and start a completely new conversation between kids and art. 1. What is special about the museum near Farragut West? A. It enables kids to build a house on their own. B. It houses a vast collection of paintings. C. It teaches kids about the environment. D. It is free for both parents and kids. 2. What can kids do in the National Air and Space Museum? A. Play with animals. B. Drive a bulldozer. C. Create artworks. D. See a movie. 3. Who is the Renwick Gallery for? A. Architects. B. Animal lovers. C. Art enthusiasts. D. Astronomy fans. B With his heartwarming party invitation, Doug Turner, an 87-year-old from Bucks County, Pennsylvania, proved that friendship has no age limit. Wanting to unite neighbors, he hand-delivered a homemade invitation to Michelle Hernandez. Michelle, 29, was working from home when the doorbell rang. Standing on gate was her neighbor, Doug Turner. When he handed her a folded piece of paper with a warm smile, he could clearly see the amazement on her face. “Hi, I’m Doug across the street...” Doug said. “This is an invitation to a party I’m having on February 15.” It read “A Celebration of Winter” and featured a neatly drawn snowflake. Adding a touch of humor, it listed the party’s start time as“4 pm until the police arrive”. Michelle burst into laughter as she read the note. She and her husband were new arrival and had only crossed paths with Doug a few times. Yet, his thoughtful gesture left a lasting impression. “It was so sweet,” she said. Michelle was impressed by Doug’s effort to personally deliver each handmade invitation, which included the promise of “Food and drinks on offer”. Reflecting on the rarity of such gestures, she said, “People don’t really do that anymore.” Michelle shared the Ring camera footage of Doug’s invitation on social media. The video quickly went viral, gaining over 1.3 million views. Doug was caught off guard by the overwhelming response. He never expected the video to attract so much attention. Since his wife’s passing in 2022, Doug has made it a yearly tradition to host a winter party for his neighbors. He supplies all the food and drinks, asking only that guests bring a smile. Doug cherished the sense of community he and his wife built by welcoming neighbors into their homes. He found his strongest friendships in his current neighborhood. He wanted to keep those connections alive, so he started an annual winter party to reunite longtime friends and introduce new residents. 4. What was Michelle’s initial reaction to Doug’s invitation? A. She was astonished. B. She was at a loss. C. She felt delighted. D. She took it for granted. 5. What humorous element did Doug include in his party invitation? A. A neatly drawn snowflake. B. A celebration of winter. C. Food and drinks on offer. D. Policemen’s intervention. 6. Why did Doug start hosting annual winter parties? A. To promote his online fame. B. To sell homemade invitations. C. To remember his wife in private. D. To build community connections. 7. What may be the best title for the text? A. Doug’s Summer Party Tradition B. Community Events in Bucks County C. Handmade Invites, Heartwarming Connections D. Late Wife’s Memory Annually, Deep affection C Bigger bumblebees (大黄蜂) spend time learning the locations of the most nectar-rich (花蜜多的) flowers, so they can easily find them again, new research finds. Smaller bees, on the other hand, aren’t quite as choosy in their flower selection. After drinking from a flower, bumblebees decide if it’s worth visiting again. If the flower is rich in nectar, bumblebees will perform what are known as learning flights to study the location around the flowers. They will slowly fly around the flower, and then fly away from it, looking back at its location. They will remember the flower and the views all around it. On their next trip, the bees match what they see with the views they have already memorized. This takes them back to the flower’s location. For the study, researchers set up an experiment in a greenhouse where they could watch bees visit artificial flowers containing varying concentrations (不同浓度) of sugar solutions. The flowers had sugar solutions ranging from 10% to 50% sugar. When the concentration was greater, the larger bees spent more time circling the flowers and making learning flights. When the concentration was smaller, the length of time the bees spent looking at the flower and flying around it dropped. Smaller bees spent the same amount of effort learning where the flowers were, no matter whether the concentration of sugar was low or high. The difference likely shows the different roles of the bees in their colonies (群体), the researchers said. “Large bumblebees are able to carry larger loads (负载) and explore further from the nest than smaller ones. Smaller ones with a smaller flight range and carrying capacity cannot afford to be as picky and so accept a wider range of flowers,” the researchers said in the study. “Smaller bees often take on more tasks inside the nest, only going out to search for food when food supplies are running low.” 8. What does the underlined word “choosy” in Paragraph 1 most probably mean? A. patient B. selective C. careful D. active 9. What did researchers find out in their experiment? A. Bees dislike the flowers in the greenhouse. B. The bigger flowers are, the more bees there are. C. Smaller bees are more likely to forget a flower’s location. D. The sweeter a flower is, the longer time bigger bees spend around it. 10. What can be inferred from the last paragraph? A. Bees’ duties might depend on their sizes. B. Bees of different sizes have different tastes. C. Smaller bees are better at building nests. D. There’re more large bees than small ones in a nest. 11. In which part of a newspaper may this text appear? A. Nature. B. Technology. C. Style. D. Opinion. D Wang Aifen drops waste into a smart bin, and her phone immediately receives a message: “Your disposal(丢弃)has been recorded.” Then the trash begins its digital journey, tracked all the way to a waste-to-energy plant in Hangzhou, a tech hub in east China’s Zhejiang Province. In the past, waste management operators had to manually monitor roaring furnaces(熔炉), a tiring and imprecise task. Today, they use AI and temperature sensors to guide the incineration(焚烧)in real time, boosting efficiency and significantly reducing harmful emissions. “It’s a transformation,” said Zheng Rendong, a former landfill engineer. He has witnessed the revolution of turning garbage into energy for homes, gas for daily use, and raw materials that return to production lines. Hangzhou has been selected as one of the “20 Cities Towards Zero Waste” by the United Nations. The city operates a smart recycling network for household waste, where data from every stage — from collection to processing — is traced in real time. Residents are encouraged to place used cartons, bottles, and other recyclables into dedicated collection bags and schedule a pickup online. Collectors arrive on time, scan the items, and upload the data, allowing residents to instantly earn eco-points that can be exchanged for goods. Hangzhou once struggled with huge amounts of waste and insufficient processing capacities. In 2013, it generated over 3 million tonnes of household waste. The turning point came in 2018 when a modern eco-industrial park was built. By 2020, the facility was able to process 2 million tonnes of household waste annually, generating over 1 billion kilowatt-hours of electricity and transforming the resulting slag into eco-friendly construction materials. Step by step, waste has been transformed from a burden into a driver of a complete circular economy. As a result, 71.8% of the city’s household waste is recycled and over 98% of general industrial solid waste has become useful. From “zero-waste” classrooms to villages turning kitchen waste into fertilizer, green habits are becoming part of everyday life. However, true transformation requires public buy-in, which is often the hardest part. Engaging everyone in low-carbon circular practices is no simple task. It requires persistent, joint efforts. 12. What can we learn about the current waste management in Hangzhou? A. The smart bin can sort waste automatically. B. The entire process is tracked by technology. C. Residents need to upload the data of their waste. D. Workers have to guide the incineration in real time. 13. How does Hangzhou encourage residents to participate in waste recycling? A. By providing free collection bags. B. By offering direct financial rewards. C. By reducing their trash collection fee. D. By giving them eco-points for goods. 14. What do numbers in paragraph 4 mainly indicate? A. Hangzhou’s progress in waste management. B. The energy consumption in recycling waste. C. Problems of waste treatment in Hangzhou. D. The cost of building the eco-industrial park. 15. What is crucial for a successful “green shift” according to the last paragraph? A. Strict regulation. B. Economic support. C. Public participation. D. Advanced technology. 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 The secret to happiness lies in being grateful. Before you learn how to practice gratitude, be sure you understand the concept. ___16___ Gratitude is the positive feeling of being thankful for someone or something. When you are grateful, you can experience the positive feelings associated with happiness, passion, excitement and love. ___17___ Being grateful can help prevent disease, and being thankful can even help you live longer. Being grateful is a learned skill and one you can get better at with practice. Ready to practice gratitude in your everyday life? ___18___ Putting your thoughts on paper is a powerful way to connect your mind and your body, reinforcing the positive feelings. Keep a notebook in your purse or desk to take down things you’re grateful for as they happen. Or write three things you’re grateful for every day in a journal you keep by your bed. Share your gratitude with others. Even people who said thank-you to a stranger reported a strong feeling of happiness. ___19___ Call a parent, write a thank-you note to an old teacher, give a friend a thank-you gift or simply thank the cashier at the grocery store. Challenge yourself to be grateful in difficult circumstances (境况). There is no situation, no matter how difficult, in which you can’t find something to be grateful for — and practicing gratitude can go a long way toward improving the way you deal with hard things. Look back through old journals of hard times and make notes about what helped you get through them and what you were grateful for. ___20___ A. Find the most powerful way. B. Write down what you’re grateful for. C. Gratitude comes naturally to everyone. D. So, what does gratitude mean, exactly? E. You shall start by telling someone how grateful you are. F. Science has proven that gratitude provides powerful benefits. G. Use that information to help you find the silver linings in current troubles. 第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Growing up in Indonesia, I was surrounded by rich traditions and a sense of belonging. But when my family moved to Denmark, everything changed. The cold sky seemed to ____21____ the confusion and self-doubt that settled in my heart. I felt like a(n) ____22____ in this new land. In school, I ____23____ to make friends. My accent, my appearance, and my background set me apart. I tried to hide my Indonesian ____24____, hoping to get along with my Danish classmates. But the more I tried, the ____25____ I felt. I began to hate myself for not being Danish enough. One day, during a particularly difficult period, I had a(n) ____26____. I was sitting in the park at the time, feeling very ____27____ about myself, when I met an elderly woman who struck up a ____28____. She listened to my story and then said to me, “You can’t win respect from others if you don’t respect yourself first.” Her words stayed with me. I began to ____29____ my Indonesian roots, sharing stories and traditions with others. I learned to appreciate the unique mix of ____30____ that made me who I was. Slowly, I started to see myself in a new ____31____. It wasn’t an overnight ____32____, but gradually, I learned to love myself for who I was. I realized that my ____33____ were not weaknesses but strengths. By accepting my true self, I ____34____ my confidence. And by doing so, I discovered that respect and acceptance from others followed ____35____. 21. A. overlook B. approach C. mirror D. prevent 22. A. agent B. outsider C. volunteer D. consultant 23. A. refused B. promised C. agreed D. struggled 24. A. customs B. virtues C. roots D. festivals 25. A. weaker B. lonelier C. calmer D. wiser 26. A. breakthrough B. success C. activity D. promise 27. A. content B. awkward C. excited D. bad 28. A. campaign B. lecture C. conversation D. ceremony 29. A. remember B. accept C. abandon D. criticize 30. A. cultures B. lessons C. suggestions D. meanings 31. A. school B. explanation C. society D. light 32. A. transformation B. luck C. truth D. mind 33. A. opinions B. differences C. mistakes D. disadvantages 34. A. reduced B. lacked C. understood D. regained 35. A. deliberately B. temporarily C. naturally D. terribly 第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Known as a World Heritage Site in Northwest China’s Gansu Province, the Mogao Caves deserves to be called a holy land of Buddhist art. As the home of ____36____ richest Buddhist cultural elements in the world, it holds countless fine painted sculptures and colorful murals (壁画), ____37____ (attract) scholars and art lovers around the world. The site now ____38____ (recognize) by both Eastern and Western scholars as one of the greatest treasures in the vast land of Eurasia (欧亚大陆). To protect these relics and share their beauty globally, the Dunhuang Academy firstly designed a special online exhibition, ____39____ launched on August 28, 2014. This exhibition takes full advantage of ____40____ (advance) digital technology to preserve the Dunhuang Grottoes’ precious cultural heritage and restore the once civilization of Dunhuang. Visitors can ____41____ (close) appreciate replicated (复制的) caves and lifelike three-dimensional painted sculptures. These digital ____42____ (work) showing the Wutai Mountains map are popular for their fine details and ____43____ (history) value. In a word, with the help of cutting-edge digital technologies, people can easily travel back to brilliant ancient Dunhuang ____44____ leaving home. This exhibition not only breaks the limits of time and space but also makes more people experience the magic of history and art ____45____ (hide) in the desert. 第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (满15分) 46. 假定你发现学校劳动基地（labor practice base）长期闲置，未能得到充分利用。请你向学校英语报投稿，内容包括： (1) 描述基地现状； (2) 提出利用建议； (3) 你的期待。 参考词汇： idle闲置的 注意： (1) 写作字数应为80个左右。 (2) 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Make Full Use of Our Labor Practice Base _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 (满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Ten-year-old Tom always felt lonely. His parents were always occupied with work. They left home early in the morning and came back late at night. Tom often ate dinner alone and went to bed without a goodnight kiss. For him, there were no family games, no city tours, no weekend outings. One day, Tom's parents brought home a gift—a smart watch. "This watch has a special friend inside,” Mom said with a smile. "Her name is Ling. She can talk to you, answer your questions, and even tell you stories.” A wave of anticipation swept over Tom as he put on the watch and pressed the button. A gentle voice came out, "Hello, Tom! I'm Ling. Nice to meet you!” Tom's eyes lit up. He had never received such an interesting gift before. From that day on, Ling became Tom's closest companion. Every morning, Ling would say, "Good morning, Tom! Have a great day at school!” Whenever Tom encountered difficulties with his homework, Ling would patiently provide thorough explanations. After Tom got into bed, Ling would tell his favorite tales about brave knights and magical lands. Sometimes, when Tom felt scared of the dark, Ling would sing softly to comfort him. To Tom, Ling was more than a voice; she was family. His parents noticed Tom's change. "See? Our little boy seems much happier now,” Dad said one evening. Mom agreed, "The watch really helps,” relieved. They thought their son was no longer lonely. What they didn't know was that sometimes, after Ling had finished her stories, Tom would lie awake in the darkness, listening to the silence that filled the room. He loved Ling, but he couldn't help thinking: if only Mom and Dad were here. One afternoon after school, Tom tripped and fell on the way home. The watch hit a rock with a loud crack. When Tom picked it up, the screen was dark. He pressed the button again and again, but nothing appeared. "Ling? Ling, are you there?” he called desperately. There was no reply. 注意： (1)续写词数应为 150 左右； (2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Tom had no choice but to turn to his parents for help. _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ At that moment, both Mom and Dad saw clearly what they had missed. _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2026年春季学期综合练习题 （一） 高二英语 (本试卷满分 150 分，考试时间 120 分钟) 注意事项： 1. 答题前，务必将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。 2. 答选择题时，必须使用 2B 铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。 3. 答非选择题时，必须使用 0. 5毫米黑色墨水签字笔，将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。 4. 所有题目必须在答题卡上作答，在试题卷上答题无效。 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What will the speakers most likely do after lunch? A. Write a paper. B. Attend a workshop. C. Visit a store. 2. What did the man’s sister major in? A. Fashion design. B. Medicine. C. Engineering. 3. What is the main topic of the conversation? A. Gifts for a friend. B. A literature event. C. A party. 4. Where are the speakers probably? A. At a café. B. At a university. C. At an animal shelter. 5. How can the man’s recipe be described? A. It’s a reward. B. It’s a success. C. It’s a problem. 第二节 (共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7题。 6. Where are the speakers? A. At Tom’s house. B. In a meeting room. C. At a train station. 7. How does the woman probably feel in the end? A. Worried. B. Relieved. C. Angry. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What is the man’s problem? A. He has a temperature. B. He is struggling to save energy. C. He is too cold to do his work. 9. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. In the woman’s house. C. In a school. 10. What does the woman suggest? A. Stopping working right now. B. Taking better care of their health. C. Discussing the issue with the leader. 听第8段材料，回答第11至 13题。 11. How do the speakers feel now? A. Bored. B. Disappointed. C. Excited. 12. What is probably the woman’s main interest? A. Model cars. B. Doll’s houses. C. Model trains. 13. What will the man probably do first? A. Go to the toilet. B. Get something to eat. C. Buy the tickets. 听第9段材料，回答第14至 17题。 14. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Mother and son. B. Strangers. C. Teacher and student. 15. What month is it now? A. September. B. October. C. November. 16. What sport was the man involved in? A. Football. B. Swimming. C. Basketball. 17. What does the man probably want to be in the future? A. A doctor. B. An athlete. C. An artist. 听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。 18. What is the main focus of the program? A. Scientific exploration. B. Artistic appreciation. C. Management skills 19. What will students need to do at the start of the program? A. Sit an exam. B. Give a report. C. Design an experiment. 20. What is special about the program? A. It stresses theoretical study. B. It organizes activities outside school. C. It specializes in computer-assisted research. 第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. D 3. C B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. A 5. D 6. D 7. C C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. D 10. A 11. A D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. D 14. A 15. C 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. D 17. F 18. B 19. E 20. G 第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. D 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. C 第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. the 37. attracting 38. is recognized 39. which 40. advanced 41. closely 42. works 43. historical 44. without 45. hidden 第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (满15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】 Make Full Use of Our Labor Practice Base Our school’s labor practice base has been left idle for a long time, which is a great waste of valuable resources. The fields are overgrown with weeds, and the farming tools are covered with dust. To make full use of it, I suggest we organize regular gardening activities where students can grow vegetables and flowers. Besides, we could invite biology teachers to give outdoor lessons there, turning the base into a living classroom. Moreover, the produce can be donated to the local community. I sincerely hope our school will take action soon to change the base into a meaningful place. 第二节 (满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】 Tom had no choice but to turn to his parents for help. Clutching the broken watch, he hurried home. Like usual, the house lay empty and quiet. But this time, the loneliness felt unbearable — not because Ling was gone, but because the people he truly needed were absent. He waited and waited. It was nearly midnight when his parents finally returned. They were alarmed to see Tom curling up on the sofa, face wet with tears. “What happened, Tom?” Mom rushed over. Wordlessly, he held out the broken watch. Dad soon fetched his toolbox trying to fix it, but in vain. Seeing this, Tom couldn’t contain himself any longer and burst into desperate sobs. Between gasps, he poured out his loneliness — the silent dinners, the empty house, the longing for someone to be there. At that moment, both Mom and Dad saw clearly what they had missed. They realized that no watch, however smart, could ever take the place of their presence. Immediately, Mom wrapped her arms around Tom, apologizing, “I’m so sorry. We thought the watch was enough, but we were wrong.” Dad knelt beside them, his voice thick with guilt. “From now on, we’ll be home earlier. No more lonely dinners.” Together they drew up a family schedule — Tuesday night board games, Friday pizza-making, Sunday afternoons in the park. They promised to make it a weekly routine and wrote it on the family calendar in bright colors. That night, the family came to understand technology might offer comfort, but only love could fill the silence of an empty home. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $