内容正文:
濮阳市一高高三年级(2024级)上学期第一次质量检测
英语试卷答案
听力
1—5 BABCC 6—10 CABCA 11—15 BABAC 16—20 ABACC
阅读理解
21-23 BBC 24-27 BDDA 28-31 ABCD 32-35 BCAD 36-40 CGBDA
完型填空
41-45 CBBAD 46-50 CCBAD 51--55 ADBCD
语法填空
56 what 57.a 58.Standing 59.to 60.where 61.strength
62.to explore 63.but 64.more precious 65. will continue
应用文范文:
Dear Peter,
I’m sorry to hear that you’re feeling overwhelmed by the stress while entering senior year, which is affecting your sleep and studies. I totally get it. To help you cope with the pressure, I highly recommend playing badminton.
It’s a fantastic sport for stress relief. The quick moves and focus required during a game can effectively take your mind off worries and release tension. What’s even better is that badminton is usually played with a partner. Asking a classmate to play together is a great way to bond with classmates and feel less alone in facing challenges. In addition, the physical exercise will boost your energy and improve your sleep, which definitely helps with academic performance.
Why not ask someone to play after school? I believe it could make a real difference. Looking forward to hearing your good news!
读后续写范文:
Gathering courage, Mark announced, “I don’t want to play basketball anymore.” The smiles on his parents’ faces froze instantly. “What do you mean?” his father asked in surprise. Taking a deep breath, Mark explained that his true passion was cheerleading although he was good at basketball. The room fell silent. His parents exchanged confused looks, struggling to understand. Mark felt his heart pounding but continued, saying he had been training for months. Just when the tension seemed unbearable, his mother finally spoke gently, “If this is what you really love, you deserve a chance — and we’ll always stand by you.” His father hesitated, then nodded slowly.
A week later, it was time for the cheerleader audition. Standing on the field, Mark felt a mix of nervousness and excitement. Remembering the countless hours of practice, he pushed aside his doubts and focused on every move. When the music started, he jumped, turned and lifted with confidence. His strength and determination impressed the judges and the crowd. When the results were announced, Mark heard his name among those selected. At that moment, he spotted his parents in the stands, clapping proudly. He realized that by following his heart, he had finally stepped out of his brother’s shadow and started his own journey.
【导语】本文讲述了马克篮球天赋出众,家人期望他追随哥哥的脚步打篮球,可他内心热爱啦啦队,一直秘密训练,在篮球试训结束后,决心坦白,追寻自己真正热爱的事业。
续写:向家人坦白决定——家人的惊讶与疑惑——马克说明热爱啦啦队及秘密训练——家人理解与支持——啦啦队选拔的紧张与坚定——成功入选,家人为其骄傲——实现自我。
【听力部分】
Text 1:B
M: I need to get my laptop fixed. Can you recommend anyone?
W: I know a guy working in the city centre. He was very nice and did it very quickly. Here’ s his number if you want to call him.
Text 2:A
W: My husband took my car today. So, I guess I’ ll take the taxi home.
M: I usually take the bus home. It’ s easy and cheap for me. I don’ t even have a car.
W: OK, I’ ll just follow you since we live close to each other.
Text 3:B
W: Darling, take an umbrella with you.
M: An umbrella? But why? It’ s sunny outside without any wind.
W: It is sunny now, but it won’ t be this afternoon.
Text 4:C
W: When I went to wake Jenny up in the morning yesterday, she wouldn’ t get out of bed and said she was sick.
M: Oh, I’ m sorry to hear that.
W: Well, it turned out that she was just trying to escape an exam she hadn’ t studied for.
Text 5:C
M: I really love this bowl.
W: That’ s impressive. Do you know where we can see more examples of it?
M: There’ s actually a museum downtown. The collection there looks so different from normal cups and plates.
Text 6:C A
W: Mike, please pass me the glass container on the table. Thank you.
M: Here you are. Is that tomato soup?
W: Yes. Grandpa doesn’t feel much like eating these days. I’m making some tomato soup for him, hoping it will appeal to him.
M: Grandpa will love it. Then how are you going to store it?
W: I’ ve already boiled the container. I’ m now waiting for the soup to cool completely. Then I’ ll pour the soup into the airtight container before refrigerating it. This helps maintain the soup’ s flavor and freshness. Set the refrigerator to a temperature of 4°C or below. It can be safely stored for 3-4 days.
M: Anna, you’ re something!
Text 7:B C A
M: Hello, this is Sunshine Dance Center.
W: Hello, this is Emma. I have signed up for a free trial lesson with Mr Smith on Tuesday morning. But I’ m afraid I can’ t make it. I have to attend an urgent meeting. Could I come sometime on Wednesday?
M: Let me check. I am sorry that there are no seats available on Wednesday. Is it convenient for you this Thursday afternoon? There are still a few spots available.
W: That will be a bit difficult. I have to give a speech at the city library at 5:00 pm that day.
M: Well, our class starts at 1:30 pm and ends at 2:30 pm. And it only takes half an hour to drive from here to the library.
W: That sounds perfect!
M: OK. I’ ll reschedule it for you.
Text 8:B A B
M: Glad to see you, Eve. How are things going?
W: Fine, Jonathan. I’ ve just returned from my music class at a college for seniors and retirees.
M: That’s great! What courses do they provide?
W: There are various courses from health management to painting. The best part is that the college doesn’ t charge us any fees.
M: It’s amazing.
W: So how are you? You look as spirited as ever.
M: Well, I’ ve retired and have a lot of free time, but I’ m bored. You know, the older we get, the more we need to do something to keep our minds sharp. So I got a job again at a car company.
W: I agree with you. That’s why I signed up for my courses. Do you have to go to work every day?
M: Well, it’s a part-time job, teaching young people some sales skills.
W: You’re always on the go.
Text 9:A C A B
M: Alice, I heard that you went to Costa Rica for your holiday, didn’ t you?
W: Yes. My daughter, Elena, and I wanted to engage in a new lifestyle, so we stayed with a local family for a few days.
M: That sounds special.
W: Yeah. What amazed me was that even though Elena couldn’ t speak the local language, that didn’ t stop her from preparing food and shopping at the local market with the children in that family. They even went on a biking tour of the city.
M: Elena seemed to enjoy living there.
W: You know what, yesterday, she suggested we make pancakes she learned there. She’s ten. Many things go in one ear and out the other at this age, but it’s heartwarming that she remembers and cares.
M: That’ s part of her story now.
W: You’ re right. Her world is a bit bigger than it was before. How are you these days?
M: Well, I’m still busy with the project. I’m really glad to have your help as soon as you’re back.
W: Take your time. I’ ll sort out the materials.
Text 10:A C C
W: Welcome to today’ s program! We’ re going to talk about noise pollution. We’ re usually surrounded by sounds like alarm clocks, automobile engines and traffic. However, these“normal” sounds often cross the line and affect our quality of life. We define them as noise pollution. Noise pollution has serious consequences for human beings. One obvious negative effect is the hearing problem people can suffer when they are exposed to loud sounds for too long. When it interrupts sleep cycles, people can experience health problems caused by insufficient rest and tiredness, like headaches. What’s worse, noise pollution has also been linked to higher levels of stress and high blood pressure.
To fight noise pollution, turn down the volume on electronic devices. Close doors and minimize the use of loud machinery. As for the things you can’t control, developing better designs for urban space may one day reduce the effects of traffic, construction and industrialization.
Noise pollution has led people to create quiet places. Gordon Hempton, an ecologist, has started the“One Square Inch of Silence”, which exists within the rainforest along the Hoh River within Olympic National Park in Washington. There, you’ll only hear sounds like the whisper of the wind, or the soft flow of the river.
【阅读理解】A篇 : B B C
【导语】这是一篇应用文。文章介绍了一项双人七夜徒步旅行活动。
【详解】21.细节理解题。据第三段“The prize, which is for two adults, includes flights from Gatwick to Faro, 7 nights’ half-board accommodation based on two sharing, with breakfasts at the hotel and dinners in local restaurants, transport and the service of a walk leader. (该奖项面向两名成年人,包括从盖特威克到法罗的航班、基于两人共享的7晚半食宿、酒店早餐和当地餐馆晚餐、交通和领队服务。)”,在徒步旅行中,获胜者可获得徒步领队的专业指导。故选B项。
22.细节理解题。据“The holiday will begin on either 17th March, 14th April, 19th May, 6th October, 3rd November or 24th November 2024.”旅行有六个启程日可供选择。故选B项。
23.推理判断题。根据标题Win a seven-night walking holiday for two people along(赢得双人七夜徒步旅行)和表格中最后一行“Then click here and put your chosen answer A, B or C on the entry form. (然后点击这里,在报名表上填上你选择的答案A、B或C。)”可知,这段文字来自在旅行社网站上。故选C项。
【阅读理解】B篇: B D D A
【导语】这是一篇新闻报道。文章主要报道了Julia Hawkins于2024年10月22日在路易斯安那州巴吞鲁日死于一场“非常短暂的疾病”,介绍了其个人经历以及取得的成就。
【详解】24.细节理解题。根据第一段“Julia Hawkins, who was nicknamed “Hurricane”, died on Oct. 22, 2024, in Baton Rouge, Louisiana, after a “very short illness,” her daughter, Margaret Martens, confirmed to ABC News.(绰号‘飓风’的朱莉娅·霍金斯的女儿向美国广播公司新闻证实,她于2024年10月22日死于一场‘非常短暂的疾病’)”以及最后一段“In 2021, Hawkins ran her last race at the age of 105 in her home state of Louisiana.(2021年,霍金斯在105岁时在家乡参加了她的最后一场比赛)”可知,朱莉娅·霍金斯死时108岁(105+3=108)。故选B。
25.主旨大意题。根据第三段“Julia Hawkins picked up the sport of running at the age of 100......according to the National Senior Games Association.(朱莉娅·霍金斯在100岁时开始了跑步运动。她在2017年全国老年运动会上创造了100米短跑的世界纪录。在2019年全国老年运动会上,霍金斯在女子100米以上的50米短跑和100米短跑中都获得了金牌。据全国老年运动会协会称,当时,霍金斯被认为是参加美国田径比赛的年龄最大的女性)”可知,第三段主要阐述了霍金斯在跑步方面的成就。故选D。
26.推理判断题。根据第四段“Hawkins told “Good Morning America” in 2019 that she turned to running as an alternative to competitive cycling, a sport in which she also won multiple national titles after picking it up later in life.(霍金斯在2019年接受《早安美国》采访时表示,她转向跑步,作为竞技自行车的替代选择。后来,她开始参加这项运动,并赢得了多个全国冠军)”可知,霍金斯擅长竞技体育。故选D。
27.推理判断题。根据倒数第二段“Martens said Hawkins also attributed her longevity to her many hobbies, which included fly fishing, gardening, singing and watching Louisiana State University football.(马滕斯说,霍金斯还将她的长寿归功于她的许多爱好,包括飞蝇钓鱼、园艺、唱歌和观看路易斯安那州立大学的橄榄球赛)”,霍金斯对生活充满激情。故选A。
【阅读理解】C篇: A B C D
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍冰川国家公园因气候变暖导致冰川大量消融,面临名称名不副实的危机,以及美国国家公园管理局保护理念的转变。
【详解】28.词句猜测题。根据第一段中的“Since Glacier National Park's creation, ...... leaving it facing a future in which its name could be cruel ironies.(自冰川国家公园建立以来,其令人叹为观止的景观便一直是美国人的精神瑰宝。但如今,气候变暖正威胁着这座公园的核心象征,使其未来可能面临名称沦为残酷讽刺的境地。)”可知,“emblem”与前文“represented”相呼应,结合后文“冰川消失导致名称讽刺”,可推断“emblem”指公园的核心“象征”。故选A项。
29.推理判断题。根据第二段中的“Just a few decades ago, this landscape was entirely frozen. Now the glacier itself is reduced to taking up a small area, sheltered from the Sun at the edge of the lake created through its own melting.(几十年前,这片土地还完全被冰雪覆盖。如今,冰川已缩小至一小块区域,躲在由自身融水形成的湖岸边缘,避开阳光照射。)”,作者提及新形成的湖泊,是为了通过“冰川消融→湖泊形成”的现象,证明气候变暖对公园的影响,即气候变暖的证据。故选B项。
30.细节理解题。根据第四段中的“This has issued a challenge to the identity of National Park Service, a US agency brought into existence by a 1916 law that called for the preservation of those treasured sites pristine(处于原始状态的) for the enjoyment of future generations.(这一现状对美国国家公园管理局的核心使命构成了挑战。该机构依据 1916 年的一项法律成立,该法律要求将这些珍贵遗址保持原始状态,以供后代享用)”以及最后一段“The climate crisis has thus brought about a shift in the organization's philosophy: It's acceptable to change a park's natural state to stop its further worsening.(因此,气候危机导致该组织的理念发生了转变:为阻止公园进一步恶化,改变其原始状态是可接受的。)”可知,国家公园管理局原本坚持“保持原始状态”的保护原则,如今因气候危机被迫调整其保护原则。故选C项。
31.主旨大意题。通读全文,短文围绕“冰川国家公园因气候变暖导致冰川消融,名称可能名不副实,管理局被迫调整保护理念”展开。D项“公园可能面临自我定义的危机”为最佳标题。故选D项。
【阅读理解】D篇: B C A D
【导语】文章主要介绍人工智能在地震预测领域展现出良好前景,介绍了一款预测准确率达70%的AI算法的工作原理、研究意义,同时说明了后续测试计划与长远研发目标。
【详解】32.细节理解题。根据原文第二段“Once trained, the AI provided its prediction by listening for signs of upcoming earthquakes within the background rumblings in the Earth.(经过训练后,该人工智能通过在地底的背景隆隆声中捕捉即将发生地震的信号来做出预测。)”可知,这款人工智能是通过分析地球内部的背景声音来预测地震的。
33.推理判断题。根据原文第三段“Even with the 70% accuracy, that’s a huge result and could help reduce economic and human losses and has the potential to significantly improve earthquake preparation worldwide.(即便只有70%的准确率,这也是一项重大成果,有助于减少经济与人员损失,还有潜力大幅提升全球的地震防灾准备工作。)”可知,Alexandros想要说明这款人工智能预测技术的重大意义。
34.细节理解题。根据原文第四段“While it is unknown whether the same approach will work at other locations, ......The next step is to test artificial intelligence in Texas.(目前尚不清楚这套方法能否在其他地区奏效,研究人员相信如果将该人工智能算法应用在拥有可靠地震监测网络的区域,预测结果会更加精准。下一步研究将在得克萨斯州测试这套人工智能。)”可知,后续研究重点是在得克萨斯州地区开展测试。
35.推理判断题。根据原文第一段“Artificial intelligence (AI) is showing promise in earthquake prediction, challenging the long-held belief that it is impossible.(人工智能在地震预测方面展现出广阔前景,颠覆了人们长期以来认为地震无法预测的固有认知。)”与第三段“This work is clearly a milestone in research for AI-driven earthquake prediction.(这项研究无疑是人工智能地震预测领域的里程碑。)”可知,这项地震预测技术先进且前景可观。
【七选五】:C G B D A
【导语】文章主要阐述闲聊并非空谈,拥有重要社交价值。
【详解】36.上文“People often complain about small talk, describing it as “painful” or “dishonest”. (人们常常抱怨闲聊,称它令人煎熬或是虚情假意)”点明人们对闲聊的负面看法,下文“However, this common opinion fails to recognize the true value of small talk (然而这种普遍看法忽视了闲聊的真正价值)”转折引出闲聊的价值。空处延续人们的负面观点,C选项承接上文抱怨内容,和下文转折逻辑匹配。
37.上文“As a matter of fact, small talk serves as an essential social “safety zone”. (事实上闲聊是重要的社交安全区)”提出闲聊的作用,下文“According to etiquette expert Lizzie Post, discussing light topics like hobbies or recent events establishes initial harmony. This foundation makes it easier to transition to more substantial conversations later, whether in a work setting or a new friendship. (礼仪专家Lizzie Post表示,聊聊爱好、近期趣事这类轻松话题能初步营造融洽氛围。有了这份铺垫,日后无论是职场往来还是结交新朋友,都更容易过渡到更有实质内容的深入交谈)”举例说明闲聊铺垫融洽氛围、便于后续深入交谈。G选项“It creates a comfortable atmosphere before deep conversations begin. (它在深度对话开始前营造轻松氛围)”承接上文“safety zone”,引出下文铺垫交谈的具体作用。
38.上文“Effective small talk requires genuine engagement. (高质量闲聊需要真诚投入)”点明有效闲聊的要求,下文“This means putting away your phone, making eye contact, and actively turning into the other person’s reactions. (这意味着要收起你的手机,进行眼神交流,并积极关注对方的反应)”是对空处内容的解释。B项“It demands full presence and careful observation of the other person. (它需要全身心投入、细心观察对方)”总领下文细节解释,符合语境。
39.下文“During a two-hour flight, ......”用第一人称叙述亲身经历。空处应是从理论转向实例的过渡句。D选项“Consider this real-life example from my own experience. (来看一段我亲身经历的实例)”总起整段事例内容,衔接上下文。
40.上文“Small talk isn’t about being superficial — it’s a practical social tool that facilitates human connection. (闲聊并非流于表面,是助力人际交往的实用社交工具)”点明闲聊的正面价值,下文“In fact, it smooths our daily social encounters and opens doors to deeper conversations that might never occur otherwise. (事实上,闲聊能让我们日常的社交往来变得顺畅,还为深入交流创造契机,倘若没有闲聊,这些深度对话原本无从发生)”进一步阐述其实际作用。空处应与上文正面论述形成对比,再由下文转折回正面。A选项“Its value, however, is often overlooked. (但它的价值常常被忽略)”转折衔接,引出下文闲聊的实际用处。
【完形填空】CBBAD CCBAD ADBCD
【导语】本文讲述作者意识到自己身体状态不如从前,决定重拾跑步。通过三年坚持,从无法连续跑一英里到完成超级马拉松。作者分享了成功经验,并体会到超越自我的成就感。
【详解】41.句意:虽然多年来我偶尔慢跑,但我从来都不是一个天生擅长跑步的人。A. healthy健康的;B. amateur业余的;C. natural天生擅长的;D. casual随意的。根据后文“though I’d jogged occasionally for years. I’d run three miles for weeks or months but ____ to make it easy or fun”可知,作者常年慢跑却始终难以享受跑步、跑得轻松,说明其并非天生擅长跑步。
42.句意:我连续数周或数月坚持跑三英里,却一直努力想让跑步变得轻松有趣。A. remembered记得;B. struggled努力;C. pretended假装;D. managed设法。据后文“both were painful due to poor training”可知,作者训练方式不佳,跑步过程痛苦,想改善跑步状态。
43.句意:每次完成一个目标后,我都会停跑数年,每当再次有动力时,就从零重新开始。A. desire渴望;B. quit放弃;C. compete竞争;D. train训练。根据后文“restarting from the very beginning”可知,作者每次完成阶段性目标后都会放弃跑步,后续重新起步。
44.句意同上。A. motivated有动力的;B. injured受伤的;C. praised被表扬的;D. beaten被打败的。根据前文“restarting from the very beginning”作者反复放弃、重启跑步的经历,可知,作者是在重新燃起运动动力后,才再次开始训练。
45.句意:四十七岁时,我意识到自己年近五十,身体大不如前,于是我加入了一家健身房,重新开始跑步。A. left离开;B. spotted发现;C. visited参观;D. joined加入。根据后文“resumed (重新开始) running”可知,作者为了重启跑步训练,加入健身房锻炼,join a gym为固定搭配。
46.句意:这一次,我坚持训练了三年,跑出了自己从前从未想象过的距离。A. reflected upon反思;B. relied on依靠;C. stuck with坚持;D. looked into调查。根据后文“for three years, achieving distances I’d never imagined”可知,作者长久坚持跑步,最终突破了自己的极限。
47.句意:那种成就感难以言喻,我想要挑战更多。A. identity身份;B. direction方向;C. achievement成就;D. security安全。
48.句意:如今,我可以自豪地称自己为一名跑步爱好者,即便我并没有打破纪录。A. secretly秘密地;B. proudly自豪地;C. occasionally偶尔;D. accidentally意外地。
49.句意同上。A. records纪录;B. promises承诺;C. rules规则;D. habits习惯。根据前文“call myself a runner, even if”可知,指作者虽坚持跑步、完成赛事,但并未创下跑步纪录。
50.句意:起初,我跑一英里就不得不停下来。A. complaining抱怨;B. smiling微笑;C. falling摔倒;D. stopping停下。根据后文“ gradually improving until I could run nonstop”可知,作者初期体能很差,无法连续跑步,需要跑停交替。
51.句意:我明白了,持之以恒比运动强度更加重要。A. counts重要;B. occurs发生;C. proves证明;D. costs花费。根据前文“gradually improving until I could run nonstop”可知,作者循序渐进、长期坚持训练,突破自我的经历,认为坚持的品质远比训练强度更关键、更重要。
52.句意:我穿着跑步服睡觉,以此杜绝一切推脱偷懒的借口。A. fear恐惧;B. debts债务;C. pain痛苦;D. excuses借口。根据前文“To build this habit, I used strategies”可知,作者刻意采取方法培养跑步习惯,杜绝偷懒的理由。
53.句意:这场超级马拉松赛程艰难,但现场氛围十分热烈。A. principle原则;B. atmosphere氛围;C. result结果;D. route路线。根据后文“Everyone pushed their ____”可知,所有参赛选手都全力以赴,赛场整体氛围极好。
54.句意:每个人都在挑战自己的极限。A. efforts努力;B. buttons纽扣;C. limits极限;D. dreams梦想。结合后文“Everyone pushed their ____”以及超级马拉松赛事艰难的背景,以及选手拼搏的状态,可知,大家都在突破自身的身体极限。
55.句意:冲过终点线的那一刻,即便我不是第一名,也感觉自己是胜利者。A. leader领导者;B. beginner新手;C. coach教练;D. winner胜利者。
【语篇填空】
56 what 57.a 58.Standing 59.to 60.where 61.strength
62.to explore 63.but 64.more precious 65. will continue
【导语】这篇文章主要讲述了作者和父母港澳五日游,见证两地现代风光与传统文化交融。这段亲身经历让历史文化不再枯燥,也让作者生出深厚文化自豪感。
【详解】56.考查主语从句。此处what做I anticipated的宾语,what I anticipated整体为句子的主语,为主语从句,“我所期待的”只有美景与美食。
57. 考查冠词。句意:起初,我所期待的只有美景和美食,但这次旅程却成为了一堂宝贵的历史与文化课。lesson是可数名词单数,此处指“一堂宝贵的课”。
58.考查非谓语动词。句意:晚上站在太平山顶,我看到摩天大楼像星星一样闪闪发光。句子谓语动词是saw,此处为非谓语动词作伴随状语,stand与其逻辑主语 I是主动关系,用现在分词形式;句首首字母大写。
59.考查固定短语。句意:而不远处,古老的街道上则有安静的传统茶馆,当地人用粤语交谈。此处为固定搭配be home to,意为“是……的所在地”。
60.考查定语从句。句意:而不远处,古老的街道上则有安静的传统茶馆,当地人用粤语交谈。设空处引导非限制性定语从句,先行词是tea houses(地点),从句中缺少地点状语,用关系副词where。
61.考查名词派生。句意:我突然意识到,香港的力量在于它在前进的同时尊重自己的文化。名词所有格Hong Kong’s后接名词;strong的名词形式为strength,意为“优势;力量”。
62.考查动词不定式。句意:在澳门最古老的庙宇——妈阁,我有机会探索这座城市深厚的中华文化。此处an opportunity to do sth.为“获得做某事的机会”,不定式作后置定语。
63.考查固定句型。句意:这次旅行让历史与文化不再只是冰冷的教科书文字,而是真实而生动的体验。此处为固定句型no longer...but...(此处no longer相当于否定含义),意为“不再是……而是……”。
64.考查形容词比较级。句意:我对自身文化的自豪与珍视,比任何纪念品都更加珍贵,它也将继续照亮我成长的道路。空后有than,用形容词precious“珍贵的”比较级more precious。
65. 考查谓语动词的时态。句意同上,为一般将来时。
1
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濮阳市一高2024级高三上学期第一次质量检测
英语试题
(时间:120分钟 满分:150分)
命题人:濮阳市一高英语命题中心
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What does the woman offer?
A. A laptop. B. A phone number. C. An address.
2. How will the woman get home today?
A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By car.
3. What will the weather be like this afternoon according to the woman?
A. Windy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
4. What does the woman mean in the end?
A. Jenny was sick. B. Jenny stayed up to study. C. Jenny told a lie.
5. What are the speakers looking at?
A. A cup. B. A plate. C. A bowl.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. Why does Anna make tomato soup?
A. To practice cooking skills. B. To attract more customers. C. To satisfy Grandpa’s appetite.
7. What does Anna do before placing the soup in the container?
A. Cool the soup completely.
B. Set the refrigerator’s temperature.
C. Remove air from the container.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. Why does Emma make the call?
A. To cancel an application. B. To update an appointment. C. To ask for urgent leave.
9. When will Emma come and take the dance lesson?
A. On Tuesday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Thursday.
10. What will Emma do after the dance lesson?
A. Present a lecture. B. Attend a meeting. C. Call on Mr Smith.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. What does Eve say about her college?
A. It focuses on art education. B. It runs free courses for the old. C. It admits all ages.
12. Why does Eve take courses?
A. To stay mentally active. B. To promote career development. C. To achieve academic success.
13. What is Jonathan’s probable job?
A. A painter. B. A trainer. C. A salesman.
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。
14. Why did Alice stay in a Costa Rican family?
A. To live a different life. B. To study a second language. C. To collect data for research
15. What can we know about Elena in the host family?
A. She recognized her own talent.
B. She understood others’ feelings.
C. She got along with the children.
16. How did Alice feel when Elena suggested making pancakes?
A. Pleased. B. Doubtful. C. Concerned.
17. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Teacher and student. B. Fellow workers. C. Husband and wife.
听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。
18. What problem may come if noises affect our sleep?
A. Headaches. B. Hearing loss. C. High mental stress.
19. What is suggested for noises from construction?
A. Turning down electronic devices.
B. Using loud machinery less.
C. Enhancing urban planning.
20. What does Gordon’s idea aim at?
A. Improving facilities in the park.
B. Protecting creatures in the wild.
C. Keeping quiet areas to hear nature.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项.
A
Win a seven-night walking holiday for two people along The Algarve Coast
Appreciating that the world is more beautiful on foot, Ramble Worldwide has been organizing expertly planned group guided holidays and unforgettable adventures along the world’s most unique footpaths for over 75 years.
Once you win the prize, you can enjoy the area’s Portuguese charm with walks to one of the world’s most beautiful beaches and explore the pretty coastal villages.
The prize, which is for two adults, includes flights from Gatwick to Faro, 7 nights’ half-board accommodation based on two sharing, with breakfasts at the hotel and dinners in local restaurants, transport and the service of a walk leader.
Simply Answer the Following Question
Question: How long has Ramble Worldwide been organizing group guided holidays?
A. Over 75 years. B. Over 30 years. C. Over 20 years.
Then click here and put your chosen answer A, B or C on the entry form.
HOLIDAYS & COMPETITION RULES:
• The holiday will begin on either 17th March, 14th April, 19th May, 6th October, 3rd November or 24th November 2024.
• Travel insurance is not included.
• The competition is only open to residents of the UK, aged 18 or over.
• The winning entry will be chosen at random (随机) and the winner will be informed by email or post.
21. Which of the following services can a winner get in the walking holiday?
A. A single room. B. Professional guidance.
C. A round trip air ticket. D. Three free meals a day.
22. What can we learn about the holidays and competition rules?
A. It covers travel insurance for the winner.
B. There are six set-off dates to choose from.
C. Those who answer the given question will win it.
D. Both children and adults are allowed to participate.
23. Where is the text probably taken from?
A. In a travel brochure. B. In a tourism poster.
C. On a travel agency website. D. In a travel magazine.
B
Julia Hawkins, who was nicknamed “Hurricane”, died on Oct. 22, 2024, in Baton Rouge, Louisiana, after a “very short illness,” her daughter, Margaret Martens, confirmed to ABC News.
“She had quite a run,” Martens said of the extraordinary life of her mom, who is survived by her four children as well as three grandchildren and two great-grandchildren.
Julia Hawkins picked up the sport of running at the age of 100. In the following years of running, she set a world record in the 100-meter dash at the 2017 National Senior Games. At the 2019 National Senior Games, Hawkins won gold medals in both the 50-meter dash and the 100-meter dash in the women’s 100-plus division. At that time, Hawkins was believed to be the oldest woman to compete on an American track, according to the National Senior Games Association.
Hawkins told “Good Morning America” in 2019 that she turned to running as an alternative to competitive cycling, a sport in which she also won multiple national titles after picking it up later in life.
“I just keep busy. I keep moving,” Hawkins told “GMA” in 2019 about her secret to longevity. “I don’t do any exercises particularly. I used to, but I don’t think I need to anymore.” “I’ve always been careful how I eat, eat healthy and keep my weight at a certain point,” she added.
Martens said Hawkins also attributed her longevity to her many hobbies, which included fly fishing, gardening, singing and watching Louisiana State University football.
Hawkins’ late husband, who died in 2013 at the age of 95, was a professor at LSU, according to Martens. In 2021, Hawkins ran her last race at the age of 105 in her home state of Louisiana. She set a new record during the race as the only woman in the 105 — 109 age group to run the 100-meter dash.
24. How old was Julia Hawkins when she died?
A. 109. B. 108. C. 107. D. 106.
25. What does paragraph 3 focus on concerning Hawkins’ running?
A. Her influence. B. Her motivations. C. Her popularity. D. Her achievements.
26. What can be inferred about Hawkins from the text?
A. She met her late husband in 2013. B. She struggled to support her family.
C. She did many exercises in particular. D. She was skilled at competitive sports.
27. Which word best describes Julia Hawkins?
A. Passionate. B. Professional. C. Humble. D. Humorous.
C
Since Glacier (冰川) National Park’s creation, it has represented the spiritual treasure of Americans with its breathtaking landscapes. But today, climate warming threatens the very emblem of the park, leaving it facing a future in which its name could be cruel ironies (讽刺).
Deep within Glacier National Park, visitors are now met with an amazing sight: a peaceful lake of pale blue water lying among towering peaks. Beautiful as it is, the very presence of this lake is not desired by people. Just a few decades ago, this landscape was entirely frozen. Now the glacier itself is reduced to taking up a small area, sheltered from the sun at the edge of the lake created through its own melting (融化).
The park has already lost 60 percent of its namesake glaciers since the 1850s, and scientists predict their complete disappearance by the century’s end. Families from all over the US and abroad flood to these natural wonders to create memories that will last.
Conserving the national park is one of the rare issues that brings political opponents together in the US. With tens of millions of visitors to these sites every year, it is also an economic necessity. The US government recently announced considerable funds to help. This has issued a challenge to the identity of National Park Service, a US agency brought into existence by a 1916 law that called for the preservation of those treasured sites pristine (处于原始状态的) for the enjoyment of future generations.
“But it’s now pretty clear that it’s not achievable in many places,” admits John Gross, an ecologist with the National Park Service climate change response program. “It’s certainly possible that the park could lose the iconic feature for which it has been named.”
The climate crisis has thus brought about a shift in the organization’s philosophy: It’s acceptable to change a park’s natural state to stop its further worsening.
28. What does the underlined word “emblem” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. Symbol. B. Location. C. Recovery. D. Construction.
29. Why is the new lake in the park mentioned?
A. To highlight the economic value of the park. B. To serve as evidence of the warming climate.
C. To explain the process of glacier formation. D. To describe a new popular tourist attraction.
30. What can be learned about the National Park Service?
A. It mainly allows for economic benefits. B. It shows confidence in restoring the park.
C. It is forced to adjust its protection principle. D. It is taking measures to limit visitor numbers.
31. Which can be the best title for the text?
A. A New Idea for Park Conservation B. A Park Is Economically on Thin Ice
C. A Political Agreement on Renaming a Park D. A Park Might Be at Risk of Redefining Itself
D
Artificial intelligence (AI) is showing promise in earthquake prediction, challenging the long-held belief that it is impossible. Researchers at the University of Texas have developed an AI algorithm (算法) that correctly predicted 70% of earthquakes a week in advance during a trial in China and provided accurate calculations for the predicted earthquakes.
The research team believes their method succeeded because they stuck with a relatively simple machine learning approach. The AI was provided with a set of statistical features based on the team’s knowledge of earthquake physics, and then instructed to train itself using a five-year database of earthquake recordings. Once trained, the AI provided its prediction by listening for signs of upcoming earthquakes within the background rumblings (隆隆声) in the Earth.
This work is clearly a milestone in research for AI-driven earthquake prediction. “You don’t see earthquakes coming,” explains Alexandros, a senior research scientist who leads the Texas Seismological Network Program (Tex Net). “It’s a matter of life and death, and the only thing you can control is how prepared you are. Even with the 70% accuracy, that’s a huge result and could help reduce economic and human losses and has the potential to significantly improve earthquake preparation worldwide.”
While it is unknown whether the same approach will work at other locations, the researchers are confident that their AI algorithm could produce more accurate predictions if used in areas with reliable earthquake tracking networks. Therefore, the next step is to test artificial intelligence in Texas, since UT’s Bureau Tex Net has 300 earthquake stations and over six years’ worth of continuous records, making it an ideal location for these purposes.
Eventually, the authors hope to combine the system with physics-based models. This way could prove especially important where data is poor or lacking. “That may be a long way off, but many advances such as this one, taken together, are what moves science forward,” concludes Scott Tinker, the bureau’s director.
32. How does the AI forecast earthquakes?
A. By identifying data from the satellites.
B. By analyzing background sounds in the Earth.
C. By modeling data based on earthquake recordings
D. By monitoring changes in the Earth’s magnetic field.
33. What does Alexandros intend to show in paragraph 3?
A. The ways to reduce losses in earthquakes.
B. The importance of preparing for earthquakes.
C. The significance of developing the AI prediction.
D. The limitation of AI algorithms in earthquake prediction.
34. What does the follow-up research focus on?
A. Conducting tests in the location of Texas. B. Building more earthquake stations in Texas.
C. Train the AI calculation accuracy. D. Applying the AI approach to other fields.
35. Which words can best describe the earthquake-predicting technology?
A. Stable but outdated. B. Effective but costly.
C. Potential and economical. D. Advanced and promising.
第二节(共5小题:每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项.
Small Talk: More Than Just Chit-Chat
People often complain about small talk, describing it as “painful” or “dishonest”. 36 However, this common opinion fails to recognize the true value of small talk in our daily interactions.
As a matter of fact, small talk serves as an essential social “safety zone”. 37 According to etiquette expert Lizzie Post, discussing light topics like hobbies or recent events establishes initial harmony. This foundation makes it easier to transition to more substantial conversations later, whether in a work setting or a new friendship.
Some argue that small talk is boring, but this often reflects poor communication skills rather than a flaw in the activity itself. Effective small talk requires genuine engagement. 38 This means putting away your phone, making eye contact, and actively turning into the other person’s reactions. If they lean in and smile at a topic, you can explore it further; if they glance away or give short answers, politely shift to a new topic or invite them to share their own perspective.
39 During a two-hour flight, I began with simple talk about travel plans with my seatmate. Gradually, both of us felt more comfortable opening up to each other. This casual start eventually led to a meaningful discussion about life changes and personal growth. We reached this depth precisely because we started with accessible, low-pressure topics.
Small talk isn’t about being superficial — it’s a practical social tool that facilitates human connection. 40 In fact, it smooths our daily social encounters and opens doors to deeper conversations that might never occur otherwise. Without these simple, everyday exchanges, our social interactions would feel much more awkward and less satisfying.
A. Its value, however, is often overlooked.
B. It demands full presence and careful observation of the other person.
C. They generally claim it lacks depth and avoids meaningful topics.
D. Consider this real-life example from my own experience.
E. Good small talk depends on more than just the words you say.
F. Without proper skills, small talk can feel shallow and forced.
G. It creates a comfortable atmosphere before deep conversations begin.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
On Valentine’s Day, one month before my 50th birthday, I ran my first ultramarathon (超级马拉松). I’ve never been a (n) 41 runner, though I’d jogged occasionally for years. I’d run three miles for weeks or months but 42 to make it easy or fun. I even attempted half marathons, but both were painful due to poor training. After each goal, I’d 43 for years, restarting from the very beginning whenever I was 44 again.
At 47, realizing I was nearing 50 and my body wasn’t what it used to be, I 45 a gym and resumed (重新开始) running. This time, I 46 it for three years, achieving distances I’d never imagined. Last year, I ran my first marathon and loved it. The sense of 47 was incredible, and I wanted more. Now, I 48 call myself a runner, even if I’m not breaking 49 .
At first, I couldn’t run a mile without 50 . I combined walking and running, gradually improving until I could run nonstop. I learned consistency 51 more than intensity. To build this habit, I used strategies. I slept with my running clothes on to get rid of 52 . I also prioritized running early, treating it like a “big rock” in my schedule — if I didn’t do it first, other tasks would fill my time.
The ultramarathon was tough, but the 53 was excellent. Everyone pushed their 54 . Crossing the finish line made me feel like a 55 , even if I wasn’t first.
41. A. healthy B. amateur C. natural D. casual
42. A. remembered B. struggled C. pretended D. managed
43. A. desire B. quit C. compete D. train
44. A. motivated B. injured C. praised D. beaten
45. A. left B. spotted C. visited D. joined
46. A. reflected upon B. relied on C. stuck with D. looked into
47. A. identity B. direction C. achievement D. security
48. A. secretly B. proudly C. occasionally D. accidentally
49. A. records B. promises C. rules D. habits
50. A. complaining B. smiling C. falling D. stopping
51. A. counts B. occurs C. proves D. costs
52. A. fear B. debts C. pain D. excuses
53. A. principle B. atmosphere C. result D. route
54. A. efforts B. buttons C. limits D. dreams
55. A. leader B. beginner C. coach D. winner
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式.
Recently, I went on a five-day trip to Hong Kong and Macao with my parents. At first, 56 I anticipated was only beautiful scenery and delicious food, but the journey turned out to be 57 valuable lesson that taught me more about culture and history.
Our first stop was Hong Kong. What touched me most was the way the city combines modern life with a rich history. 58 (stand) on Victoria Peak at night, I saw skyscrapers (摩天大楼) shining like stars. Nearby, however, old streets were home 59 quiet traditional tea houses, 60 locals chatted in Cantonese. I suddenly realized that Hong Kong’s 61 (strong) lies in respecting its culture while moving forward.
On the fourth day, we visited the famous Ruins of St. Paul, part of a church constructed in the 17th century in a mix of Western and Chinese styles. At A-Ma Temple, the oldest temple in Macao, I got an opportunity 62 (explore) the city’s deep-rooted Chinese cultural heritage.
This trip made history and culture no longer feel like cold textbook words, 63 real and vivid experiences. The pride and appreciation I felt for my culture are 64 (precious) than any souvenir, and it 65 (continue) to light my path as I grow.
第三部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
假如你是李华,你的朋友Peter进入高三(senior year)后压力很大,睡眠和学习受到影响,请你用英语给他写信推荐一项体育运动,帮助他缓解压力,内容包括:
1.表示安慰;
2.推荐的运动和理由。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80个左右;
2.请按如下格式作答。
Dear Peter,
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Sweat poured down Mark’s face. He had just finished trying out for Oakwood High School’s basketball team, and he knew making it to the team was a pretty sure thing. After all, he wasn’t just good — he was excellent.
Basketball ran in the family — his older brother Reggie was now playing at a top college, and Mark was expected to follow in his brother’s footsteps. But Mark had a secret: his heart was in another sport.
Wiping the sweat from his forehead, Mark jumped on a bus heading home. Through the window, his eyes were drawn to the field where cheerleaders (啦啦队) danced effortlessly. He couldn’t look away. For months now, cheerleading had been on his mind. Reaching into his bookbag, he pulled out a poster: CHEERLEADER AUDITIONS (选拔). This was what he really wanted.
Mark knew pursuing cheerleading wouldn’t just be a physical challenge. His family had poured so much hope into his basketball future. But he was tired of living in his brother’s shadow. He was ready to carve his own path.
Six months ago, Mark once told his best friend Darren about his dream. “Cheerleading is girly,” Darren said. “You’re so good at basketball. Why throw that away?” Mark stood his ground. “This is where I want to put my advantages and efforts,” he insisted. Over time, Darren began to understand and support him. Still, Mark kept his passion hidden from his family.
Secretly, Mark trained with two cheerleaders. Cheerleading didn’t come naturally — every move demanded more than basketball ever had. But month by month, he improved. Maybe, just maybe, he stood a chance of making it to the cheerleading team. But right now, after his basketball tryout, he had to face his family.
As soon as Mark arrived home, his parents were at the door.
“So…” his father asked.
“The tryout? It went well.” Mark replied, staring at his feet. Everyone in the family was smiling… except Mark. Still, he knew what had to be done.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Gathering courage, Mark announced, “I don’t want to play basketball anymore.” _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
A week later, it was time for the cheerleader audition. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
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