福建三明市2025-2026学年第二学期高一期末适应性练习英语试题

三明市2025-2026学年第二学期高一期末适应性练习 英语试题参考答案 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 1-5 ACABC 6-10 BABCA 11-15 BCCBA 16-20 CACAB 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 21-23 BCA 24-27 BACD 28-31 BDBC 32-35 ADCD 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 36-40 GDAFC 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分45分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 41-45 BADBC 46-50 DCACB 51-55 ABDCA 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 56. frightening 57. from 58. to pursue 59. energetic 60. definitely 61. construction 62. when 63. Equipped 64. was selected 65. branches 第三节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 66. to 67 keeping 68. actively 69. were invited 70. which 71. but 72. the 73. has trained 74. Inspired 75. assumptions 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 英汉互译（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 76．人们总是仰望星空，对宇宙充满好奇。 77．节日帮助我们理解我们来自何方，我们是谁，我们应该感恩什么。 78．这里的气候全年都比较温和，这意味着任何时候来游玩都十分适宜。 79. Music gives me hope and a sense of satisfaction. 80. As doctors, we should be responsible for the patients. 第二节（满分15分） 作答示例一 Dear Tom, Glad to receive your letter. Knowing you’re interested in Chinese traditional festivals, I’d like to introduce the Mid-Autumn Festival to you. It falls on the 15th day of the eighth lunar month. On this day, families gather together for a big dinner. We enjoy the bright full moon and eat delicious mooncakes, which stand for family reunion. The festival reminds people to value family love and cherish the time spent with relatives. It is one of the most beloved traditional festivals in China. Hope you can experience it some day. Yours, Li Hua 作答示例二 Dear Tom, Knowing you’re interested in Chinese traditional festivals, I’m delighted to introduce the Spring Festival, a major Chinese traditional festival. It usually falls on the 1st day of the first lunar month. Before the festival, families do a thorough cleaning to sweep away bad luck. On New Year’s Eve, we enjoy a reunion dinner featuring dumplings and fish, which symbolize wealth and good fortune. Children receive red envelopes filled with lucky money. People also set off fireworks to celebrate the new year. The Spring Festival celebrates family reunion and the hope for a bright future. It reminds us to cherish our loved ones. You are welcome to experience it yourself. Yours, Li Hua 一、评分原则 1．本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。 2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3．词数少于60的，酌情扣分。 4．评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 6．如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。 二、内容要点 1．推荐节日; 2．节日习俗; 3．节日意义。 三、各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档 13~15分 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 —覆盖所有内容要点。 —应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 —语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。 —有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档 10~12分 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 —虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 —应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 —语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 —应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档 7~9分 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 —虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 —应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 —有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 —应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档 4~6分 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 —漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 —语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。 —有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 —较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档 1~3分 未完成试题规定的任务。 —明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 —语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 —较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 —缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息；内容太少，无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 听力部分录音稿 Text 1 W: Do you work in a factory? M: No, in a company. I’m a secretary. W: I see. How do you go to work? On foot? M: Usually by bike, but I take a taxi when the weather is bad. Text 2 W: This is the fourth time you’ve been late this week, Robert. M: I’m sorry. W: You’ll have to come earlier, or you will fail the final exam. M: I won’t be late again, I promise. Text 3 W: What are you going to do? M: Do my Christmas shopping. W: How early you’re doing this shopping! The store usually opens at 8:30. M: But now at about 8:00 a.m. Text 4 W: Dad, have you seen my new red cap? M: No, but I think maybe your mother put it into the cupboard with your other caps. W: There’s a blue and two black ones but no red one. M: You can go to see if it is in your drawer. Maybe you put there. Text 5 W: Seaside Hotel. Can I help you? M: I’d like to book a double room for two nights from next Tuesday. W: Smoking or non-smoking? M: Non-smoking. Text 6 W: If that man gives me any more letters to type, I’ll scream. He’s given me ten already today, and there’ll be more when I get back from coffee break. I’ll be here till midnight. M: Calm down, Franny. He can’t make you stay after five. Finish what you can, and leave the rest for Mary. W: But they’re important letters, Joe. They should go out tonight. M: That’s not your worry. If they’re important, he should have given them to you earlier. Text 7 M: Hey, Karen, looks like you got some sun this weekend. W: Yeah, I guess so. I spent the weekend at the beach. M: That’s great. Where did you stay? W: Some friends of my parents’ live out there and they invited me for as long as I wanted to stay. M: So what are you doing back here already? W: Oh, I have a paper to do. I couldn’t do any serious studying at the beach, you know. Text 8 M: Excuse me, Miss! Could you please tell me if this is the way to the Business Department? W: Yes, it is. Go to the far end of the hall, then turn right and you will be there. M: Thank you. By the way, what time does the office open? W: We start at 8:30 in the morning. M: Do you have a break at noon? W: Yes. We have a one-hour break for lunch. We start working again at one o’clock in the afternoon. M: Do you ever work overtime? W: Yes, but only when we are very busy. That hardly happens. Sir, aren’t you going to the Business Department? M: Thanks for reminding me. I have an appointment with the director of the Business Department at eleven o’clock. I should have been there five minutes ago. Sorry to rush away like this. Text 9 W: Why did you leave? You had a good job in London. M: Yes, but I’ve got a better job here. W: And you had a beautiful flat in London. M: Well, I’ve got a house here. W: Really? How many bedrooms has it got? M: Three. And it’s got a garden. It’s nicer than my flat and it’s cheaper. Everything is much cheaper here. W: But you haven’t got any friends! M: I’ve got a lot of friends here. Everybody is very friendly. People are much friendlier than in London. W: But country life is so boring! M: No, it isn’t. It’s much more interesting than London. Seaton has got shops, cinemas, theaters, and parks. And the air is cleaner and the streets are safer. W: OK. OK. Everything is wonderful! So when can I visit you? M: You’re welcome at any time. Text 10 Good morning, everyone. For anyone considering going on a cycling tour, the first thing to consider is safety, so it’s very important indeed to consider what you wear. Wear something that can be easily seen, a red jacket, for example. You know many accidents happen because drivers simply fail to see the cyclist. Second, don’t try to ride too far and too fast; take your time. If you feel tired, stop and rest. Remember that the joy of cycling is the ride itself. Get close to nature and see things you wouldn’t normally see if you’re traveling by car or bus. And if you’re planning your journey in summer, take plenty of water. It is wise to drink at least one liter of water every hour. If the weather is not warm enough, make sure you take some warm clothes to put on when you stop riding. Even in cold weather, you can become very warm when you go riding. It is very easy to catch a cold or even get a fever when you stop. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 三明市2025-2026学年第二学期高一期末适应性练习 英语试题 （满分150分 考试时间120分钟） 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将答题卡交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在练习上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将练习上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. How does the man usually go to work? A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By taxi. 2. Who is speaking to Robert? A. His boss. B. His mother. C. His teacher. 3. When does the store open now? A. At 8:00 a.m. B. At 8:30 a.m. C. At 9:00 a.m. 4. What is the woman looking for? A. Her blue cap. B. Her red cap. C. Her black cap. 5. When will the man leave the hotel? A. Next Tuesday. B. Next Wednesday. C. Next Thursday. 第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Who is the woman complaining about? A. Her husband. B. Her boss. C. Her friend. 7. What is the man’s advice? A. Leaving part of the task to others. B. Finishing her job earlier. C. Asking others for help. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. Where did the woman spend her weekend? A. In the mountains. B. At the beach. C. In the forest. 9. Why is the woman back? A. To see her parents. B. To meet her friends. C. To do her homework. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In a company. B. In a hospital. C. In a shop. 11. How long does the woman work in the morning? A. Three hours. B. Three and a half hours. C. Four hours. 12. What time is it now? A. 10:55. B. 11:00. C. 11:05. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. What does the woman think of the man’s moving? A. Wonderful. B. Necessary. C. Unbelievable. 14. What do we know about the man’s house in the countryside? A. It has two bedrooms. B. It has a garden. C. It is expensive. 15. What does the man like about the country life? A. Its fresh air. B. Its cheap flat. C. Its quiet streets. 16. What does the man speaker think of the country life? A. It’s boring. B. It’s convenient. C. It’s wonderful. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Why does the speaker give the lecture? A. To give some advice on cycling tour. B. To explain the advantage of cycling tour. C. To tell the listeners what to take for cycling tour. 18. What is the first thing to consider? A. Food. B. Weather. C. Safety. 19. What does the speaker advise cyclists to do? A. Ride neither too far nor too fast. B. Wear clothes of dark colors. C. Take along a raincoat. 20. In cold weather, what should cyclists do first when they stop riding? A. Enjoy nature. B. Put on warm clothes. C. Drink plenty of water. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Green public transport is quickly becoming an important way to fight climate change and make cities better places to live in. As cities around the world deal with more pollution and heavy traffic, government leaders play a key part in supporting eco-friendly travel choices. This is a strong way to lower harm to the environment while making it easier for people to get around. The need for this global change is clear: the transport industry makes up about 25% of the world’s CO₂ emissions (排放), and city travel is a big part of that number. And more and more places are moving to greener public transport. The transition to green public transport is not just about reducing emissions; it’s also improving air quality and public health. The shift to electric and other clean technologies is becoming increasingly significant. Some countries have successfully carried out eco-friendly transport projects. Country Performance on aspects of green transport Moving towards eco-friendly public transport around the world is really important for building greener cities and cutting the environmental harm caused by transport. The figures above show clear improvements have been made. While some regions within these countries are progressing, a more comprehensive and unified approach is necessary. This approach is essential to achieve significant advancements in green public transport. For instance, despite having a high number of electric vehicles, the UK performs poorly in several aspects of green transport, featuring limited public transport access and a low density of EV chargers. 21. What makes green public transport a necessary transition? A. The pressure from cities’ heavy traffic. B. The high CO₂ output from city transport. C. The growing shortage of renewable energy. D. The widespread popularity of electric cars. 22. Which country has the highest rate of access to public transport? A. Netherlands. B. France. C. China. D. Germany. 23. What does the writer think of the achievements in green public transport? A. Progressing yet Imperfect. B. Unnoticeable and Disappointing. C. Promising but Uncontrollable. D. Groundbreaking and Significant. B A young humpback whale, named “Timmy” by German media, had a difficult time after it got stuck near the German coast. On March 23, people first saw it trapped on a sandbank near the city of Luebeck. It managed to free itself but then became stuck again several times. Finally, on a Saturday morning, after weeks of effort, the whale was released into the North Sea off the coast of Denmark. It had been carried on a large flat boat called a barge. A member of the rescue team said the whale left the barge at around 8:45 am and was now swimming on its own, freely, and in the right direction. The rescue team members cheered as they watched Timmy disappear into the deep water. However, the rescue effort was anything but easy. The whale’s long struggle attracted a lot of media attention. TV channels, websites, and social media influencers covered the story non-stop. At the beginning of April, German officials had given up trying to save the whale. They believed the animal was too weak and could not survive. However, many people were very upset about this decision. They wrote letters, called officials, and expressed their anger on social media. Two wealthy businessmen then proposed a private rescue plan. After strong public pressure, the government finally agreed to let them try. The rescuers first tried using inflatable cushions and floating platforms, but that did not work. The whale was too large and the water too shallow. Then they came up with the idea of using a barge to transport the whale to deeper water. Many experts criticized the plan, saying it would only cause the whale more pain and stress. The rescue effort was seen as unlikely to succeed. But the rescue team decided to go ahead anyway. Fortunately, the rescue was a success. Timmy was set free and swam away. 24. What happened to the whale at first? A. It was hit by a large boat. B. It was caught off the coast. C. It was saved by German officials. D. It was released into the North Sea. 25. How did the public feel about the whale? A. Concerned. B. Uncaring. C. Disappointed. D. Hopeful. 26. What can we learn from the last two paragraphs? A. Media attention postponed the rescue. B. The whale got hurt during the rescue. C. The rescue process was not smooth. D. The rescue was funded by the public. 27. What is the best title for the passage? A. Practical Ways to Save a Whale B. Timmy the Whale: A Cry for Help C. The Secret Life of a Humpback Whale D. Timmy the Whale: An Eventful Rescue C Raindrops make a sound that humans find pleasant. But for plants, the pitter-patter of rain is more like a morning alarm. When rain falls on soil or water, the vibrations (振动) underground are much stronger than those on the surface. New research shows that plants can use this as a wake-up call. According to a study in Scientific Reports, the sound of rain helps rice seeds produce new shoots up to 40 percent faster than usual. This is the first direct proof that plants can sense sounds around them and respond. The authors believe seeds of other plants may act the same way. For a long time, scientists have wondered how much plants can sense in their environment. Some evidence suggests plants may be able to “think”, “see”, “hear” and even make sounds. However, scientists have rarely seen a clear cause-and-effect relationship showing how plants react to their surroundings in real time. This new study focuses on the link between sound and seed development. Inside plant cells, there are tiny structures called statoliths. They are like small bags of starch (淀粉) that move and settle at the bottom of cells. They help plants detect changes in their position and stability (稳定性) — and tell growing roots which way to go. Nicholas Makris, a professor at MIT and co-author of the study, and his team thought that rain sounds underwater might create strong vibrations that shake these statoliths, possibly speeding up germination. To test this idea, they placed about 8,000 rice seeds in water — their favorite growing condition — and played rain sounds to them. The result: the seeds sprouted 30 to 40 percent faster than seeds kept in the same conditions but without the sound. The researchers believe there is a biological advantage to sensing rain this way. “Seeds can sense sound in ways that help them survive,” said Makris, “Water is denser than air, so a raindrop makes larger pressure waves underwater. If a seed is wet, the vibrations can reach it more strongly.” This ability may help seeds take quick advantage of rainfall to grow. 28. What occurs to rice seeds when they “hear” rain sounds according to the study? A. The growth comes to a stop. B. Their growth speeds up. C. They produce more starch. D. They develop longer roots. 29. What can be inferred from paragraph 3? A. Plants can make sounds to communicate. B. Plant sensory abilities are fully understood. C. Scientists have solved the long-lasting puzzle. D. Few clues indicated plants’ response patterns. 30. What does the underlined word “detect” in paragraph 4 probably mean? A. Ignore. B. Sense. C. Prevent. D. Make. 31. What important roles does sound sensing play for seeds? A. It reshapes their inner structure. B. It helps seeds store more water. C. It improves seeds’ survival ability. D. It lets seeds collect water from air. D Cai Yuqingyan, a world champion in Paralympic, lost her leg in a traffic accident before her third birthday. Recently, she was fitted with an intelligent bionic (仿生的) leg developed by Chinese neurotech company BrainCo. “Now when my daughter runs toward me, I can stand steady and catch her,” she said. Her experience reflects a broader trend as brain-computer interface (BCI) technologies begin moving beyond research labs into commercial medical devices (设备) aimed to help people recover and get assistive care. China has about 85 million disabled people, according to the China Disabled Persons’ Federation. Among them, 24 million have limb disabilities. Many advanced assistive devices are expensive or difficult to access, limiting their use among potential users. That gap helped shape BrainCo’s commercial strategy, which the company says focuses on usability and affordability. Engineers focused on improving the technology so that the bionic legs and hands can move more exactly. The company says its prosthetic hands can move individual fingers independently, allowing users to perform tasks such as typing or writing. Around the world, much of the attention around BCI technology has focused on invasive (侵入式的) brain implants developed by companies such as Elon Musk’s Neuralink. These systems implant electrodes directly into the brain to pick up neural signals, but they require neurosurgery and lengthy and strict approval. Instead, BrainCo has focused on wearable devices designed to read neural signals through outside sensors without invasive operation. The approach avoids surgical procedures and can help more disabled people. Despite the technological progress, wider adoption of BCI-based devices still face challenges. Healthcare systems and insurance companies are careful about this new technology. Also, it takes a long time to buy the assistive devices. To let more people use its products, BrainCo makes core parts by itself and uses Chinese supply chains. This helps cut down the cost of making the devices. 32. Why does the author mention Cai Yuqingyan’s experience? A. To introduce the topic. B. To show Cai’s personal achievement. C. To present the background. D. To stress the importance of BCI tech. 33. What helped shape BrainCo’s commercial strategy? A. Supply chain diversification. B. Popularization of bionic tech. C. Input-output imbalance. D. Supply-demand mismatch. 34. What is special about BrainCo’s BCI devices? A. They reduce risks in brain operation. B. They depend on invasive brain implants. C. They are noninvasive wearable devices. D. They are tailored to users’ requirements. 35. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Cai Yuqingyan is a great disabled athlete in China. B. Advanced assistive devices are popular in China now. C. BCI technology is becoming commercialized worldwide. D. BrainCo has developed wearable and affordable devices. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Speak Up Your Mind Finding the words to explain how you feel isn’t always easy. This is why young people’s mental health charity Place2Be has made “My Voice Matters” the theme of this year’s Children’s Mental Health Week. What does speaking up mean? 36 Do you have such trouble? Making your voice heard means understanding that your words matter and your opinions count. Dr Julia Clements, a psychologist at Place2Be, says that it means “expressing your views, thoughts and feelings, not bottling them all up, and being open to hearing the thoughts, feelings and views of others too.” 37 In fact, you don’t have to use your voice at all. You can express what you like and don’t like or what you want for the future by writing or drawing instead, says Clements. “It’s about finding ways to share what matters to you,” she explains. 38 Sharing your feelings with a person you trust will help you make sense of them. Scientists have discovered that sharing your feelings triggers (引起) a feel-good chemical in your brain that makes you feel relaxed and calm. Your voice can make a big difference to other people too. Jaime Thurston is from a charity called 52 Lives, which delivers kindness workshops in schools. She says, “You can spread kindness and happiness simply by speaking. With a few kind words, you could help someone feel good about themselves. 39 ” How can you find your voice? Clements suggests practising conversations with friends, parents or carers on the way home from school and seeing if you have different opinions about something. If you’re struggling to explain your feelings, find a way that feels right for you. 40 When you’re ready, “Take a deep breath and believe in yourself,” says Thurston. “Know that your opinion matters.” A. Why is it important to speak up? B. Why is it hard to share feelings? C. It can be talking face-to-face or writing it down. D. Making yourself heard isn’t about shouting the loudest. E. However, speaking kindly can sometimes lead to misunderstandings. F. Besides, these words can also serve as a reminder that they have support. G. It’s common for many young people to find it hard to express their true feelings. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分45分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 18-year-old Mykale Baker works at a Burger King. He is known for his strong work 41 . He arrives early, stays late, and sees his job as a 42 . Baker’s high school graduation night arrived in May. Most teens would have been 43 to have the night off and gone home. But Baker did something different. After the 44 , he stopped by Burger King for a late meal. He 45 that his coworkers were extremely busy with orders. Although he was not 46 , he put on gloves and asked, “What do you all need help with?” With his graduation ribbon (缎带) and medals still 47 around his neck, Baker 48 in to help. A customer named Maria Mendoza saw this and couldn’t believe her eyes. She was so 49 that she posted a video online and started a crowdfunding campaign. She wanted to 50 Baker for his integrity and hard work. The campaign raised more than $20,000. Baker plans to use the money to go to trade school, become a master auto mechanic, and 51 open his own shop. Later, the Burger King Foundation provided Baker with an additional 1,000 52 . The foundation also gave Mendoza $1,000 for her daughter, who had just graduated. Baker said his mother always 53 him to work hard, even if no one is 54 . His story is a powerful 55 that good acts come back in unexpected ways. 41. A. habit B. attitude C. schedule D. experience 42. A. pleasure B. choice C. target D. puzzle 43. A. unwilling B. nervous C. grateful D. glad 44. A. meeting B. ceremony C. training D. competition 45. A. admitted B. doubted C. spotted D. imagined 46. A. selected out B. taken away C. turned down D. clocked in 47. A. hidden B. carried C. hung D. folded 48. A. jumped B. slid C. walked D. dropped 49. A. confused B. upset C. impressed D. satisfied 50. A. admire B. reward C. follow D. forgive 51. A. eventually B. fortunately C. secretly D. immediately 52. A. donation B. scholarship C. income D. payment 53. A. ordered B. promised C. forced D. taught 54. A. complaining B. celebrating C. watching D. guiding 55. A. reminder B. sign C. warning D. suggestion 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 根据句子意思，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 56. The ________ (frighten) noise from the basement kept us awake all night. 57. There are many electronic products, ranging in price ________ ¥500 to ¥5,000. 58. The scholarship enabled her ________ (pursue) her dream of studying medicine at a top university. 59. I became ________ (energy) again after the vacation. 60. The time of the meeting has not been ________ (definite) confirmed yet. 61. Three major hotels under ________ (construct) for the expo will be ready for soft opening in March. 62. There are many special occasions ________ family members gather to celebrate traditional festivals. 63. ________ (equip) with a powerful engine, this new car can reach a very high speed. 64. The young athlete ________ (select) to compete in the national games last week. 65. Today the organization has ________ (branch) in 90 countries in all five continents. 第三节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 In the mountains of Yunnan, Manpeng Xinzhai Village is home 66 the Miao people. They wear colorful traditional clothes, 67 (keep) their ancient customs alive. But they are not old-fashioned. Instead, they are pioneers in rural e-commerce, 68 (active) using short video platforms to sell their products online. Last week, some foreign journalists 69 (invite) to visit the village, in 70 they saw everything was very different from what western media often report about China’s ethnic minority regions. In this village, embroidery (刺绣) is not only a tradition 71 a source of income. Villagers sell handwoven crafts, honey, and organic fruit through livestreaming. In 2024 alone, 72 village earned ¥28.3 million from e-commerce, lifting the incomes of over 500 families. A live-streaming training center, which was set up with Honghe College, 73 (train) 65 rural influencers so far. 74 (inspire) by the training center, Gu Meifen, a Miao woman, changed from a farmer to a successful livestreamer. These examples show that modernization does not mean losing one’s cultural roots. Her story challenges common 75 (assumption) about opportunity. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 英汉互译（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 76. People have always looked up at the stars and wondered about space. 77. Festivals help us understand where we came from, who we are, and what to appreciate. 78. The climate is mild all year around, meaning it is always a good time to visit. 79．音乐给予了我希望与满足感。 80．作为医生，我们应对病人负责。 第二节（满分15分） 假定你是李华，你的英国笔友Tom对中国文化充满好奇，他在来信中提到想了解中国传统节日。请你给他写一封回信介绍一个。内容包括： 1．节日习俗； 2．节日意义。 注意： 1．写作词数应为80词左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Tom, Yours, Li Hua 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $