辽宁沈阳市辽中区2025-2026学年度第二学期期末教学质量监测八年级英语试卷（A卷）

辽中区2025-2026学年度第二学期期末教学质量监测 八年级英语试卷（A卷） （试卷满分：120分。听力30分；笔试90分） 考试时间：110分钟 题目 一 二 三 四 五 六 总分 得分 第一部分 选择题（共80分） 一、听力试题（30分） 第一节 短对话理解（共8小题，每小题1.5分；满分12分） 听下面8段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 ( ) 1. How does the boy feel? A. Sad. B. Excited. C. Proud. ( ) 2. Which animal will the speakers see this Sunday? A. Pandas. B. Monkeys. C. Tigers. ( ) 3. Where did the girl go last week? A. To Beijing. B. To Shanghai. C. To Shenyang. ( ) 4. How long did it take the artist to finish the famous painting? A. Four years. B. Six years. C. Seven years. ( ) 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. Books. B. Films. C. Magazines. ( ) 6. How will the girl get to the Art Museum? A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On foot. ( ) 7. What does the girl think of Chinese paper-cutting? A. Unusual. B. Amazing. C. Boring. ( ) 8. Who is the boy’s favourite comic character? A. Nezha. B. Sanmao. C. The Monkey King. 第二节 长对话理解（共 12 小题，每小题 1.5 分；满分 18 分） 听下面 4 段对话。每段对话后有三个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各个小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 听第 9 段材料，回答 9-11 题。 ( ) 9. Where did the girl go last summer holiday? A. To Germany. B. To Italy. C. To France. ( ) 10. How did she get there? A. By ship. B. By plane. C. By train. ( ) 11. Who did she go there with? A. Her father. B. Her mother. C. Her teacher. 听第 10 段材料，回答 12-14 题。 ( ) 12. When was Nie Er born? A. In 1910. B. In 1912. C. In 1923. ( ) 13. Where was he born? A. In Kunming. B. In Beijing. C. In Shanghai. ( ) 14. How many songs did he write in his life? A. More than 20. B. More than 25. C. More than 30. 听第 11 段材料，回答 15-17 题。 ( ) 15. What is the book about? A. Inventions. B. Animals. C. Plants. ( ) 16. Who uses computer to buy clothes? A. The boy’s dad. B. The boy’s mum. C. The boy’s sister. ( ) 17. When does the boy use computer to play games? A. On Mondays. B. On Saturdays. C. On Sundays. 听第 12 段材料，回答 18-20 题。 ( ) 18. When will the English Week start? A. Next Monday. B. Next Friday. C. Next Sunday. ( ) 19. How does the girl feel before the competition? A. Nervous. B. Happy. C. Relaxed. ( ) 20. Who will speak to the students on the first day? A. The girl’s head teacher. B. The girl’s friend. C. The girl’s classmate. 二、阅读理解（共 20 小题，每小题 2 分；满分 40 分） 第一节 阅读下面语言材料，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Volunteer at the City Library! When: Saturday 24 November, 14:00 p.m.-16:00 p.m. Where: Children’s Section (区域), City Library Who: For children aged 6-10 years old What you’ll do: ·Help kids find new books to read ·Lead fun reading games and activities Why volunteer? ·Share your love of reading ·Make new friends ·Help children improve their reading skills For more information: ·Visit https://voluntary.com ·Call 602-9326 Let’s make reading FUN! ( ) 21. When will the voluntary work start at the City Library? A. At 13:00 p.m. B. At 14:00 p.m. C. At 15:00 p.m. D. At 16:00 p.m. ( ) 22. Who will probably take part in the voluntary work? A. A fan of reading. B. A fan of painting. C. A fan of collecting. D. A fan of dancing. ( ) 23. How many ways are mentioned for more information? A. Four. B. Three. C. Two. D. One. ( ) 24. Where can you probably see the article? A. In a storybook. B. In a magazine. C. In a guidebook. D. In a school notice. B Instead of boring grammar worksheets (语法活页练习册), students in Class 8 got an exciting task. The task asked them to plan a one-day trip to the City Museum and make a simple English guidebook. Their teacher, Mr. Smith, called it a “Project-Based Learning” (PBL) challenge. He said it would help them use English in real life. At first, the students were worried. “How do we start?” asked Chen Yu, a quiet student. Mr. Smith smiled, “Work together and find the way yourselves.” The teacher divided the class into three groups. The research group looked for information about the dinosaur show on the website. The design group drew simple pictures to make the guidebook nice. The language group wrote clear introductions and checked the English texts many times for foreign visitors. They had some small problems and argued with each other at first. With the help of Mr. Smith, they learned to talk nicely and make peace finally. When they showed their guidebooks to the museum director, Mr. Li, he was surprised. “These are better than our official (官方的) ones!” he said. On the trip day, the students bravely introduced the museum to the visitors in English and won a lot of likes. “I used to (过去常常) think English was just words in a book,” Chen Yu said with a smile. “Now I know it’s a useful tool. It can help us connect with the world.” ( ) 25. How long did the trip to the City Museum last in their task? A. One month.    B. One week.    C. One day.    D. One hour. ( ) 26. What did the students do in the design group? A. They looked for information.    B. They drew simple pictures. C. They checked the English texts.    D. They wrote introductions. ( ) 27. Who thought the guidebooks were better than the official (官方的) ones? A. Mr. Smith. B. Chen Yu. C. A visitor. D. Mr. Li. ( ) 28. What is the text mainly about? A. A boring grammar lesson.    B. A useful travel guide. C. A special learning challenge.    D. An interesting collection. C We can’t live without bees ①Imagine you go to the supermarket near your home, but there are almost no fruits, vegetables, honey, milk, eggs, or chocolate. How would you feel? Disappointed? Sad? Angry? At this moment, you may realize people, plants, and animals are all connected. We need each other to live, and bees are one of the best examples of this connection. ②Bees are very hard-working animals, and their greatest work is pollination. On one trip, they often visit 50 to 100 flowers. They fly from one flower to another. This action helps plants grow. In fact, without their work, about 80 percent of the plants in the world cannot grow. For this reason, many scientists believe that bees are the most important animals on this planet. ③Bees are also one of the most interesting animals in the world. For example, they work hard together to make their homes. In order to store honey, they create honeycombs. There is another interesting thing about bees. When a bee finds new food, it uses a dance to tell the others where the food is. ④Bees play an important part in the ecosystem (生态系统) of our planet. However, the number of bees is dropping. That’s why scientists are worried. Bees need our help, and there is a lot we can do. Think about what you can do to protect one of the most amazing animals on Earth. ( ) 29. What’s the meaning of the underlined word “pollination” in paragraph 2? A. 长大 B. 授粉 C. 繁殖 D. 加工 ( ) 30. How does a bee tell the others when he finds new food? A. By singing. B. By drawing. C. By dancing. D. By touching. ( ) 31. Why are the scientists worried about bees? A. Because they are becoming less and less. B. Because they are killing other animals. C. Because they are making the Earth better. D. Because they are eating a lot of plants. ( ) 32. How is the article organized? A. B. C. D. D China’s space journey has made great progress over the past 20 years. In 2003, Shenzhou Ⅴ carried Yang Liwei into space, making China the third country in the world to send humans into orbit (天体轨道). Since then, many great space missions have taken place, and China has made fast progress in space technology. The Tiangong space station is our biggest space project so far. It was fully completed in 2022. Every few months, a new Shenzhou spacecraft sends three astronauts to stay and work there for half a year. They have lots of tasks to finish: doing science experiments, checking station machines, and even walking outside the station in special spacesuits. These tasks help scientists learn more about space and test new technologies. Life on Tiangong is quite different from life on Earth. There is zero gravity (重力), so all things float. Astronauts sleep in fixed sleeping bags, eat special sealed (密封的) food and drink water with straws. They must exercise two hours every day to protect their bones (骨骼) and muscles (肌肉). They also grow fresh vegetables in space labs, so they can enjoy green food in orbit and stay healthy during their long stay. China’s space dream does not stop at the space station. Scientists are making plans to send astronauts to the Moon before 2030. More young people are becoming interested in space science. If you study hard and keep your dream, you may become an astronaut or space scientist one day. ( ) 33. How many countries sent humans into orbit (天体轨道) earlier than China? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. ( ) 34. When was Tiangong space station fully completed? A. In 2003. B. In 2006. C. In 2020. D. In 2022. ( ) 35. What can people do in Tiangong space station? A. They can drink with straws. B. They can walk like on Earth. C. They can work without exercise. D. They can grow flowers in labs. ( ) 36. What’s the best title of the article? A. China’s Space Labs B. China’s Space Tasks C. China’s Space Journey D. China’s Space Plans 第二节 阅读短文，从方框内所给的选项 中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有一个多余选项。 Food Myths (饮食误区) Only fruit and vegetables are healthy foods The human body needs to eat many different kinds of food to stay healthy. The Chinese Food Guide Pagoda (中国居民平衡膳食宝塔) shows us what food we should eat. Fruit and vegetables are healthy choices.    37    Milk, for example, contains many nutrients (营养素) and is good for our bones. We should include milk or dairy products (乳制品) among the things we eat. Eating fat makes you fat    38    It gives us energy and helps our body to take in nutrients. Not all fat makes us gain weight. Some fat can even encourage our body to lose weight. It is necessary to include some, but not too much, fat in our food to help our body work well. It’s OK to eat only what I like while I’m young When we are young, it might feel like we can just eat whatever we want! For example, sweets and fried foods taste delicious.    39    Eating balanced meals is very important when we are young. It helps our body and brain to grow well. Bad eating habits may stay with us all our life.    40    A. We should develop good eating habits early! B. Foods from other groups are also necessary. C. But we cannot eat those foods alone. D. Doing sports for an hour helps us keep healthy. E. Eating fat is important for keeping us healthy. 37. ________ 38. ________ 39. ________ 40. ________ 三、完形填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分；满分 10 分） 阅读短文，理解其大意，从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Shadow puppet shows started in the Han Dynasty. One day, a man saw children’s shadows in the sun. He got a great    41    and created a show like that. Soon, it quickly became very    42   . In a shadow puppet show, actors hold puppets behind a white cloth. With music and songs, they make the puppets    43   . Believe it or not, playing in a shadow puppet show is not    44   . This term, our teacher asked us to put on a    45    for younger kids, and we decided to do a shadow puppet show. Things did not go well at first. It is hard to hold a puppet. We have to hold it very high and keep it there for the whole show. You will find that your arm can become    46    sore. And you also need to keep your wrist (手腕) at 90 degrees (度) to make the puppet    47    the audience. During practice, my arm started to shake after a short time. Backstage, we looked    48   , just like long-necked kangaroos. We kept practicing for weeks and finally got ready for the show. From this    49   , we learn that practice makes perfect. As long as we keep practicing and never    50   , we will surely succeed in the end. ( ) 41. A. progress B. idea C. risk D. mistake ( ) 42. A. popular B. crazy C. serious D. unnecessary ( ) 43. A. destroy B. publish C. move D. copy ( ) 44. A. interesting B. strange C. creative D. easy ( ) 45. A. coat B. performance C. concert D. smile ( ) 46. A. freely B. unfortunately C. really D. luckily ( ) 47. A. lose B. observe C. serve D. face ( ) 48. A. tired B. frightened C. shy D. nervous ( ) 49. A. experience B. opportunity C. theme D. exhibition ( ) 50. A. take off B. look out C. give up D. date back 第二部分 非选择题（共40分） 四、语篇填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分） 阅读短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空，使短文通畅、连贯。 Amy was in a terrible car accident when she was 19 years old. She    51    (hurt) in head and her IQ dropped by 30 points. Doctors    52    (say) she might never finish college. But Amy refused to give up. She studied very hard and finally graduated — four years    53    (late) than most students. Then, she went to Princeton for her PhD (博士学位). In her    54    (one) year there, she had to give a public speech. She was so scared that she wanted to give up. Her teacher gave her a piece of advice: stand tall, chest (胸膛) out, shoulders back    55    stand like this before speaking. Amy tried it. She went into a restroom, held the powerful pose (姿势) for two    56    (minute). Then she went onto the stage. She spoke with calm and confidence. The speech was    57    great success! From then on, Amy kept using body language    58    (build) confidence. Finally, she became a famous teacher and gave one    59    the most popular TED Talks: Your Body Language May Shape Who You Are. She told    60    (we) that your body language can change your mind, your confidence, and your life. 51. ________ 52. ________ 53. ________ 54. ________ 55. ________ 56. ________ 57. ________ 58. ________ 59. ________ 60. ________ 五、阅读与表达（共 4 小题，61-63 小题，每小题 2 分，64 小题 4 分；满分 10分） 阅读短文，并根据短文内容回答问题。 Here is a story adapted (改编) from the book The Selfish Giant by Oscar Wilde. Every afternoon, the children play happily in the Giant’s garden. It is a garden with soft, green grass and beautiful flowers. The Giant has been away for a long time. One day, he comes back and sees the children playing in his garden. He shouts in a very angry voice. The Giant closes the gate and builds a high wall around the garden. Since then, he hasn’t seen a child there. Then spring comes. But in the Giant’s garden, it is still winter. There are no birds or flowers. “I cannot understand why spring has not come since last year,” says the Giant. “I hope the weather changes soon.” One morning, the Giant suddenly hears birds singing. “I haven’t heard that beautiful birdsong for a while. I believe spring has come at last.” The Giant jumps out of bed and looks outside. The Giant sees a hole in the wall. Also, there is a little child in every tree. And the trees are so glad that they have covered themselves with flowers. The birds fly about and sing with joy. “How selfish (自私的) I’ve been!” he says. “Now I know why spring wouldn’t come here.” He knocks down the wall. 61. How does the Giant feel when he sees children playing in his garden? _______________________________________________________________________________ 62. Where does the Giant build a high wall? _______________________________________________________________________________ 63. What does the Giant do at the end of the story? _______________________________________________________________________________ 64. Do you like reading books? Why or why not? (Write 30 words or more.) _______________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________ 六、书面表达（满分 20 分） 65．假如你是李辉，学校将于下周在校内举办特色英语周系列活动，活动内容丰富多样，比如周一下午为演讲比赛（a speaking competition），周二为海报设计展览（a poster design show），请用英文给你的朋友 Tom 写一封邀请函,并向他介绍英语周活动。 内容包括： （1）介绍本次活动的安排； （2）介绍你将报名参加的活动； （3）发出邀请，盼望他前来参观体验。 注意： （1）词数 80~100，开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数； （2）可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； （3）作文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称。 Dear Tom Next week is our school’s English week.________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours Li Hui 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 八年级英语 A 卷试题答案 一、听力试题（30 分） 1--4 CABC 5-8 BABC 9-11 CBC 12-14 BAC 15-17 ABC 18-20 BAA 二、阅读理解（共 20 小题，每小题 2 分；满分 40 分） 21-24 BACD 25-28 CBDC 29-33 BCAB 33-36 BDAC 37-40 BECA 三、完形填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分；满分 10 分） 41-45 BACDB 46-50 CDAAC 四、语篇填空（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分；满分 10 分） 51. was hurt 52. said 53. later 54. first 55. and 56. minutes 57. a 58. to build 59. of 60. us 五、阅读与表达（共 4 小题，61-63 小题，每小题 2 分，64 小题 4 分；满分 10分） 61. Angry. 62. Around the garden. 63. He knocks down the wall. 64．评分原则： 前后一致，表述合理即可得分。 六、书面表达（满分 20 分） 作文略 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $