山东烟台栖霞市（五四制）2025-2026学年七年级下学期期末英语试题

七年级英语试题 注意事项： 1．本试卷共 8 页，满分 100 分，考试时间 100 分钟。考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。 2．答题前，务必用 0.5 毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、座位号填写在试卷答题卡规定的位置上。 3．选择题选出答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。 4．非选择题必须用 0.5 毫米黑色签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡指定区域内相应位置，如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案，不能使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带。 5．在答题卡指定区域外的答案无效。 第一部分 书写与卷面（10 分） 第二部分 根据音标拼写正确的单词（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 1. /'vælju:/ 2. /ɪ'mædʒɪn/ 3. /'ri:znəbl/ 4. /prə'fesə(r)/ 5. /'ɪnfluəns/ 6. /i:'mɜːdʒənsi/ 7. /'lɪtrətʃə(r)/ 8. /'kʌpl/ 9. /də'rekt/ 10. /ˌsɪmə'lærəti/ 第三部分 根据单词写出正确的音标（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 11. fair / / 12. shape / / 13. clause / / 14. point / / 15. speech / / 16. chief / / 17. low / / 18. role / / 19. boil / / 20. sense / / 第四部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 15 分） 第一节（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 阅读下列短文，从短文后每题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 (A) A good conversation happens when people are asking each other the right kinds of questions and then giving the right answers. Let’s take a look at four different types of questions you can use in a conversation. Tape 1: The Open-ended Question An open-ended question is a question that cannot be answered with “yes” or “no”. An open-ended question allows (允许) you to learn more about the other person and gives you something to reply to. Tape 2: The Follow-up Question When it comes to conversations, a follow-up question is something that is asked based on (基于) what the other person said. In order to ask a good follow-up question, you need to listen carefully. Follow-up questions keep the conversation moving and show the other person you were listening to what they said. Tape 3: The Clarifying (澄清) Question When do you need to ask a clarifying question? There are two situations. First, that is when the information (信息) you heard was unclear. And second, that is when you are having difficulty understanding what the speaker is trying to express. Tape 4: The Superlative (最高级的) Question Questions, like “What is your best trip?” or “What’s your most unforgettable (难忘的) thing?” really let you learn more about the person you’re having a conversation with. 21. What do you need to do when asking a good follow-up question? A. Add our own ideas. B. Listen to the speaker carefully. C. Keep the conversation moving. D. Answer an open-ended question. 22. When do you need to ask a clarifying question? A. When the information is very clear. B. When we are trying to start talking. C. When we want to reply to a close-ended question. D. When we have problems understanding the speaker. 23. Why does the writer use the sentence “What is your best trip?” A. To give an example. B. To find an answer. C. To create an interest. D. To start a conversation. (B) A home is more than just a building where we live. It’s a special place filled with love, warmth, and memories. In a home, family members care for each other. When we’re sick, our parents look after us. When we face difficulties, they give us advice and help. Brothers and sisters play with us and share secrets, making our childhood full of joy. Home is also a place for traditions. We celebrate festivals together, like making zongzi during the Dragon Boat Festival or making dumplings at the Spring Festival. These traditions bring family members closer and make us feel a sense of belonging (归属感). Also, home is a safe haven (港湾). No matter how bad the outside world is, we know we can always find peace and comfort at home. It’s where we can be ourselves without any worries. So, we should cherish (珍惜) our homes and show the love within them. 24. What is the meaning of a home in the passage? A. It’s a place for celebrating festivals. B. We can live and cook dinner at home. C. We can look after each other at home. D. It’s a place filled with love, warmth, and memories. 25. What do family members do when we face difficulties? A. They share secrets with us. B. They cherish our homes. C. They give us advice and help. D. They make dumplings for us. 26. What’s the structure of the passage? A. ① / ②③ / ④ B. ① / ②③④ C. ①② / ③④ D. ①②③ / ④ (C) Now, many restaurants are using robots to serve customers (顾客) instead of people. Some restaurants in China have a hard time finding enough cooks and servers, so they use smart robots to replace people. In the kitchen, robots can make burgers and salad. Some robots work in the dining area. They may greet customers, lead them to tables, take orders, or carry plates between the kitchen and dining room. People have different ideas about this trend (趋势). Some people think robots are the future of eating out. They think robots working in the restaurants can solve the problem of worker shortages (短缺). Robots help restaurants work better and maybe save money. A restaurant with robots will draw more customers because robots are interesting and fun. But others say taking jobs away from people is a bad idea. They think robots not only are expensive and can’t do many things, but it’s not fair to make people lose their jobs in the future. Technology can break down easily. If a robot stops working in a busy restaurant, it can cause danger or a big mess. Should robots work in restaurants in the future? What do you think? 27. Why do some Chinese restaurants use robots instead of humans? A. Because robots are very cheap to buy. B. Because robots can make more delicious food. C. Because they can’t find enough human workers. D. Because customers like robots better than humans. 28. What does the underlined word “draw” mean? A．吸引 B．绘画 C．带走 D．服务 29. What can we infer (推断) from the passage? A. Robots will never be used in restaurants in the future. B. Robots can do all jobs better than humans in restaurants. C. If robots work in restaurants, there may be some problems. D. All people think robots working in restaurants is a good idea. 30. What can we probably read this passage? A. In a film poster. B. In a science magazine. C. In a history book. D. In a travel guide. 第二节 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 选项中有一项为多余选项。 Developing physical education means trying to help more young people to live healthier lives not only now, but also in their future. 31 ● Play different sports. Kids should take part in lots of activities, such as running, jumping, and throwing in places like parks or playgrounds. 32 It also helps them build confidence in different sports. ● Have fun in playing. Activities should include (包括) interesting or enjoyable games. 33 Remember: Enjoyment is more important than winning. Also, it is quite important to have a relaxing environment where every kid feels included. ● Learn step by step. 34 If adults explain games clearly and show them how to do each small step, kids can learn at their own speed. When kids can experience movements by themselves, they can become more independent (独立). ● Give hopeful feedback (反馈). Adults should encourage kids, no matter how they perform. 35 Then kids would love to keep trying. A. This helps them learn many skills. B. This reminds them of their parents. C. Adults should break skills into small steps. D. Adults should encourage kids to take part in them. E. Adults like parents and teachers can help kids in many ways. F. Simple words like “well done” or “great job” make kids feel great. 第五部分 语言知识应用（共三节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Liang Wenfeng is the founder (创始人) of DeepSeek. He was 36 in 1985 in Zhanjiang, China. His parents were teachers. Liang was very 37 in school and always got high marks in exams. In 2002, he went to Zhejiang University to study computer science. After finishing 38 , Liang usually used maths and computer science to make money. In 2015, he and his friends 39 a company called Huanfang. In order to make more money, they used AI to 40 their work. The company did well and made a lot of money. This made Liang more 41 and ready for a bigger challenge. In 2023, Liang decided to start DeepSeek. This company makes AI models. Liang’s team worked hard every day. In 2025, they succeeded in 42 their goals. Their models were better than others and cost less 43 . Liang always gives many young people a helping hand 44 he wants them to have more chances to learn. His story shows that with hard work and clear goals, people can get great things. Liang believes China can lead in AI 45 the development of technology. 36. A. born B. filled C. absent D. rich 37. A. shy B. lazy C. smart D. nervous 38. A. dream B. work C. journey D. university 39. A. sold B. ended C. started D. attended 40. A. help with B. depend on C. find out D. take up 41. A. honest B. confident C. disappointed D. calm 42. A. missing B. catching C. hunting D. achieving 43. A. time B. energy C. money D. meaning 44. A. if B. because C. but D. or 45. A. in B. by C. on D. with 第二节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The 23rd FIFA World Cup is being held in the United States, Canada and Mexico. People around the world are paying attention to football once again. Football is one of the 46 (popular) sports in the whole world. 47 (it) history goes back 2000 years to ancient China. It was called cuju. The word cu 48 (mean) to kick; ju is a ball made of animal skins. People played it by 49 (kick) the ball into a net. According 50 FIFA, cuju is the earliest form of football. The birthplace is Zibo, a city in Shandong Province. It first 51 (appear) in the Strategies of the Warring States (战国策). In ancient China, both men 52 women played it for fun. It was also a way 53 (train) soldiers (士兵). There were different 54 (form) of cuju games. As the oldest form of football, cuju is a cultural heritage (遗产). It is 55 honour to pass down this traditional sport. 第三节 词汇运用 写出所给单词的适当形式。（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 56. It is (polite) to laugh at others. 57. She (pay) for her new bike yesterday. 58. This computer is (connect) to the Internet. 59. Mike found a (challenge) job as a fireman. 60. The weather is (like) to rain this afternoon. 61. The (long) of this rope is about ten meters. 62. Talking loudly may make the problem (bad). 63. The (express) on her face shows her happiness. 64. If we don’t protect the oceans, lots of fish (disappear). 65. Mr Li tries to make his class more lively and (create). 第六部分 书面表达 (共两节，满分25分） 第一节 阅读表达 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，完成短文后的问题。 Everybody has his or her dream job. And me too. My dream is to work for foreign (外国的) tourists as a tour guide. Now, let me share my reasons. First, I’m an outgoing girl, and I like doing something exciting. Maybe being a tour guide is the best choice. If I become a tour guide, I can travel all around China and know more about our country. Then I will tell the foreign tourists about colorful history of China. Second, I like making friends. And I am able to make lots of friends. If I work as a tour guide, I can make more friends all over the world. That would be great. Perhaps someday my foreign friends will ask me to visit their countries. I really like to go to their countries to learn about their cultures. The trip will be excellent. Third, I like singing. Singing English songs is my hobby. I believe I will be popular with foreign tourists. Now, I am still a middle school student. My job now is to work hard in school. Then I’ll go to university to learn something about being a tour guide. I’m sure I can be a good tour guide when I grow up. 66. What is the writer’s dream job? 67. What will the writer tell the foreign tourists? 68. Why does the writer want to make foreign friends? 69. What is the writer’s hobby? 70. What will the writer learn in university? 第二节 写作（满分15分） 暑假即将到来，我们需要总结过去，展望未来。假如你是李华，请根据提示给你的好友 Linda 写一封电子邮件，讲述你去年暑假的经历并谈谈你今年的计划。 去年 和家人一起去北京度假，品尝了很多美食，也参观了很多名胜古迹（places of interest）。 今年 1．生活方面（多吃健康食品、多锻炼……）； 2．学习方面（温故知新……）； 3．人际交往（陪伴长辈、朋友……） 要求：1．必须包含所有要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 2．文中不得出现真实的人名、校名和地名； 3．词数 80 词左右（邮件开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。 Dear Linda, How is it going these days?_________________________ ________________________________________________ Looking forward to your reply! Yours, Li Hua 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 七年级英语试题参考答案及评分标准 （满分：100分） 第一部分 书写与卷面（满分 10 分） 第二部分 根据音标拼写正确的单词（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 1. value 2. imagine 3. reasonable 4. professor 5. influence 6. emergency 7. literature 8. couple 9. direct 10. similarity 第三部分 根据单词写出正确的音标（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 11. [feə (r)] 12. [ʃeɪp] 13. [klɔ:z] 14. [pɔɪnt] 15. [spi:tʃ] 16. [tʃi:f] 17. [ləʊ] 18. [rəʊl] 19. [bɔɪl] 20. [sens] 第四部分 阅读理解（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15 分） 21 — 25 BDACD 26 — 30 BCACB 31 — 35 EADCF 第五部分 语言知识应用（共三节，满分 30 分） 第一节 完形填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 36 — 40 ACDCA 41 — 45 BDCBD 第二节 语法填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 46. most popular 47. Its 48. means 49. kicking 50. to 51. appeared 52. and 53. to train 54. forms 55. an 第三节 词汇运用（共 10 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 56. impolite 57. paid 58. connected 59. challenging 60. likely 61. length 62. worse 63. expression 64. will disappear 65. creative 第六部分 书面表达（共两节，满分 25 分） 第一节 阅读表达（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） （注意：答案不唯一，表达语言准确规范，内容符合题目要求即可得分。） 66. To work for foreign tourists as a tour guide. 67. Colorful history of China. 68. To visit their countries and learn something about their cultures. 69. Singing English songs. 70. Something about being a tour guide. 第二节 写作（满分 15 分） One possible version: Dear Linda, How is going these days? Summer vacation is coming soon. Now let me tell you about my last summer vacation and this year’s holiday plan. Last summer, I went to Beijing with my family. We tried lots of delicious local food and visited many famous places of interest. It was really an unforgettable trip! This summer, I have made a good plan. First, I will eat more healthy food and do more exercise to keep fit. Second, I will go over my lessons to make progress. Third, I will spend more time with my grandparents and friends, because they are important to me. Looking forward to your reply! Yours, Li Hua 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $