浙江衢州市柯城区2025学年第二学期期末试题卷 七年级英语

2025学年第二学期期末试题卷 七年级英语 考生须知： 1. 全卷共66小题，满分为100分。考试时间为90分钟。 2. 请用黑色墨水的钢笔或签字笔将姓名和准考证号填写在答题卷的相应位置上。 3. 选择题部分的答案必须用2B铅笔填涂在答题卷的相应位置上；非选择题部分的答案必须用黑色墨水的钢笔或签字笔写在答题卷的相应位置上，做在试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听小对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。对话仅读一遍。 1. Which is the right sound in the word? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. /ɪə/ B. /eə/ C. /ʊə/ 2. Listen and choose the word you hear. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. /gaɪd/ B. /glæd/ C. /gəʊld/ 3. Why does Lily make toys? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. To sell for money. B. To make the kids happy. C. To share with her classmates. 4. What will Peter do next? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Go to sleep. B. Play football. C. Watch a game. 5. What is the man’s job? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. A barber. B. A doctor. C. A teacher. 第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。对话读两遍。 听对话，回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. What is Peter’s favourite food? A. Beef. B. Onions. C. Fish. 7. How will Peter and Linda learn to cook? A. By reading a cookbook. B. By learning on the Internet. C. By asking their mum for help. 听对话，回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. What does Laura’s father prefer to do? A. Go shopping. B. Go walking. C. Go boating. 9. When will they go horse riding? A. On Saturday morning. B. On Saturday afternoon. C. On Sunday morning. 10. Who will go climbing? A. Laura and her father. B. Laura and her mother. C. Laura’s parents. 第三节： 听独白，从A、B、C三个选项中选择最佳选项，回答问题。独白读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. How old is Helen? A. 6. B. 10. C. 14. 12. Who gave Helen a box of colored pencils? A. Her father. B. Her mother. C. Her friend. 13. Where does Helen often draw pictures? A. In the garden. B. In the bedroom. C. In the classroom. 14. What is in Helen’s favourite painting? A. A bird. B. A school. C. A flower. 15. Why does Helen like painting? A. It helps her win competitions. B. It helps her show her feelings. C. It helps her make more friends. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分35分） 第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下面材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 16. Why does Lucas like Alto Paraíso de Goiás? A. Because it’s old and beautiful. B. Because he can play with snow there. C. Because there is delicious food. D. Because he can see stars at night there. 17. Which places are in mountains? A. Svaneti and Lahic. B. Alto Paraíso de Goiás and Lahic. C. Svaneti and Tepoztlan. D. Alto Paraíso de Goiás and Tepoztlan. 18. What are they mainly talking about? A. Food. B. Hobby. C. Hometown. D. Sports. B “Cooking is a way to show love,” my grandmother always told me. Thanks to her, I love cooking. Every time I cook for my family, we create delicious memories. One of my favourite memories is my grandmother’s pumpkin (南瓜) pie. She always made it in autumn when it got cold. My parents and I would help her in the kitchen. Dad washed the fresh pumpkins from the garden. Mom mixed the eggs. And then I put in the sugar, salt, pumpkin, and cream. Grandmother put the mixture into the pie crust (馅饼皮). After that, we placed the pie in the oven (烤箱). When the pie was ready, we sat together and ate it happily. My grandmother told us about her first pumpkin pie. Her grandmother showed her how to make it one autumn day. She still remembered the warm smell and sweet taste. Many years later, she taught us the same way. Now, when I make pumpkin pies for my family, I feel Grandma’s love in every step. One day, I will teach my children, so the love keeps growing—just like the pumpkins in the garden. 19. Who made the writer love cooking? A. Her grandmother. B. Her father. C. Her mother. D. Her children. 20. Which picture shows the missing step of making a pumpkin pie? A. B. C. D. 21. What does the writer plan to do in the future? A. Sell pumpkin pies in autumn. B. Teach her kids to make pumpkin pies. C. Grow pumpkins in her garden. D. Stop making pumpkin pies with family. 22. What’s the purpose of the text? A. To teach readers to make pumpkin pies. B. To show cooking carries love and memories. C. To explain why pumpkin pies are popular. D. To encourage people to help with housework. C During school days, I rushed to class, rushed through homework, rushed to bed… I felt like a train and I never stopped. When I finally sat down, the day was almost over. Everything was “stealing (偷)” my time: lessons, homework, housework… I had to do something to change it, so I decided to stay up late to take my free time back this winter holiday. At first, it felt amazing. I climbed into bed early and took out my phone. I played games and watched TV shows until about 3:00 am. I felt like I would never get bored! Why did adults always say they didn’t have enough time? They just didn’t know the magic of staying up late. But soon, I realized I wasn’t beating a “time thief (小偷)”. In fact, I created a bigger one. I slept until noon every day, but I still felt tired when I woke up. I couldn’t pay attention when reading my favourite books, and even the funniest films didn’t make me laugh. I deeply regretted wasting my time like that. This thief didn’t just take away my sleep, but my fresh mornings, my happiness and my good thinking. So next holiday, I will use my time well and try to keep a balance between school and life. When I take care of my time, my time takes care of me. 23. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to? A. His busy life. B. His school work. C. His travel plan. D. His winter holiday. 24. What did the writer do on the first days of the winter holiday? A. He rushed through his homework. B. He used his phone until very late at night. C. He watched TV shows with his family. D. He went to bed early and had a good sleep. 25. How did the writer’s feelings change during the holiday? A. glad→tired→excited B. excited→bored→relaxed C. excited→tired→regretful D. bored→relaxed→regretful 26. What can we learn from the writer’s story? A. Adults don’t always use time well. B. Using time well helps to live a balanced life. C. We should put our school work first. D. All work and no play makes Jack a dull boy. D People of different ages have different travel ideas. Today’s young adults love to look for meaningful experiences. Here are some of popular travel ways among the young people. The first is Me-kends. Older people usually take a long holiday. However, young people prefer short but frequent trips. They enjoy many three-day or four-day holidays all year round. Thanks to high-speed trains, this kind of travel becomes much easier now. The second is Deadzoning. Many young people spend a lot of time on the internet. But when they travel, they want to get away from the screen. Though some people still have to work, they usually spend less than one hour answering emails in the morning. For the rest of the day, they turn off their phones. More young people love travelling with family. According to a survey, 52% of young people have travelled with their parents in the past two years. About 37% have had trips with parents and grandparents and about 24% have travelled with their brothers and sisters. They enjoy warm family time and hope to create wonderful memories with their loved ones. This way is called Family Miles. Young travelers love climbing high when they explore new places. That is Altitude Shifting (海拔切换). More and more young people like to go hiking in the mountains. It’s quieter in the mountains, and young travelers really love that feeling of peace. 27. What does the underlined word “frequent” mean in Paragraph 2? A. Happening often. B. Being expensive. C. Traveling far. D. Leaving soon. 28. Which of the following shows the result of the survey in Paragraph 4? (with parents with parents and grandparents with brothers and sisters) A. B. C. D. 29. If Amy loves hiking in the mountains to find peace, which travel way might she choose? A. Me-kends. B. Deadzoning. C. Family Miles. D. Altitude Shifting. 30. What is the passage mainly about? A. The reasons to travel. B. The young ways to travel. C. The best places to visit. D. The people to travel with. 第二节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面材料，从下面所给的A-E五个选项中选出正确选项（其中一项是多余选项），将其序号填入第1～4小题，并回答第5小题。 Alice and Bob are classmates. They are talking about how to keep fit during the summer holiday. Alice: Hi, Bob! Summer holiday is coming. I want to keep fit this summer. ____31____ Bob: Yes! Why don’t you try swimming? It’s fun and good for keeping fit. ____32____ It’s dangerous. Alice: I see… What else can I do? Bob: ____33____ Alice: Good idea! Running is free and healthy. Any other ideas? Bob: ____34____ It is as important as sports. Alice: Thanks for the advice, Bob! I will try swimming, running, and eating well. A. But don’t go into the deep water area. B. Remember to have a healthy diet. C. Do you have any advice? D. How about running? E. What sports can I do? 31. ________ 32. ________ 33. ________ 34. ________ 35. What sport do you like best in summer? Why? （不超过15词） ___________________________________________ 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Sárosi was a badminton player and she stood 69th in the world. She took part in the European Badminton Championship in 2016. This competition was ____36____ for her. If she won, she could go to the Olympics (奥运会). It was her ____37____ for years! In this game, she met a strong opponent (对手) Karin, and she came 29th. It was a big ____38____ for Sárosi, but she didn’t lose heart. During the game, something ____39____ happened. Karin’s shoe broke and she didn’t have another pair. The rules didn’t let players rush to the locker room (更衣室) to get new ____40____. If she couldn’t find a new pair, she had to ____41____ the match. This was a good chance for Sárosi to win easily. ____42____ she didn’t take this chance. Sárosi ran to her bag, took out her shoes, and gave them to Karin. She wanted her opponent to ____43____ playing. Everyone was surprised. The game continued. In the end, Sárosi ____44____ the match and couldn’t go to the Olympics. Though Sárosi didn’t win the match, she was a real winner because she treated her opponent ____45____. She was a true sports hero! 36. A. dangerous B. important C. easy D. successful 37. A. secret B. hobby C. choice D. dream 38. A. mistake B. victory C. challenge D. present 39. A. normal B. surprising C. popular D. interesting 40. A. bags B. balls C. shoes D. coats 41. A. wait for B. give up C. look for D. set up 42. A. But B. And C. So D. Or 43. A. keep B. practise C. enjoy D. stop 44. A. ended B. missed C. lost D. accepted 45. A. angrily B. badly C. confidently D. kindly 第二节 词汇运用（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） A. 将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。 none award poor invite such as Charlie and the Chocolate Factory is a fun story. Charlie was a ____46____ but kind boy. He lived near Wonka’s magical chocolate factory. One day, Wonka hid five golden tickets in his chocolates. The lucky finders would get a (n) ____47____ to visit the factory. Charlie found one and got into the factory. In the factory, he saw amazing things, ____48____ a chocolate river and candy grass. The other four lucky kids were also there, but ____49____ of them were polite or friendly. Unlike them, Charlie was good and helpful. In the end, Wonka gave the whole factory to Charlie and ____50____ his family to live there. The story teaches us that kindness matters most. B. 阅读下面的短文，根据括号内所给的汉语提示或音标写出单词的正确形式。（每空一词）。 I like traveling very much. I had a great time traveling ____51____ (单独，独自) in Chengdu last month. The lovely city is famous for cute pandas and delicious food. I walked past old streets and ate all kinds of ____52____ (小吃). I went to see pandas and tried Sichuan hot pot. I enjoyed ____53____ (我自己) a lot. People in Chengdu live differently from us, and I enjoy the slow ____54____ (当地) life a lot. This trip is really unforgettable and I ____55____ /bɪ’li:v/ I will go back to this warm city again one day. 第三节 语法填空（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 Jane had an unforgettable birthday party, and she wrote about it in her diary (日记). 28th June, 2026 Dear diary, Today is my birthday, and it is ____56____ best day ever! My parents had a party for me in a beautiful garden and bought me a delicious cake with 10 candles on it! We ____57____ (sing) Happy Birthday and I blew out all the candles — I made a wish! Then I got my presents. Dad gave me a guitar ____58____ he knows I love music so much. I can’t wait to play it! And Mum bought me a new bike. It’s pink and shiny, and it’s much ____59____ (good) than my old one! I rode it around the garden and laughed all the way. When I was riding, I saw Mum and Dad smiling at me! I felt so warm. I love ____60____ (they)! I know they love me too. 第四节 句子翻译（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面的短文，根据中文提示完成句子。 The next day, Jane talked about the party with her friend Tom. Tom: Hi, Jane! What did you do yesterday? Jane: I had a birthday party. Tom: Really? ________61________ (你喜欢你的生日派对吗？) Jane: Yes, of course! We had it in a garden. ________62________ (花园和画一样美丽。) Tom: Did you have birthday cake? Jane: Yes. It was a big strawberry cake. ________63________ (它很好吃。) I couldn’t stop eating! Tom: That sounds amazing! Jane: And my parents gave me a guitar and a bike as birthday gifts. Tom: Wow! You must be very happy. Jane: Yeah. ________64________ (我是最幸福的女孩。) Let’s ride bikes together after school! Tom: OK. ________65________ (别忘了带些水。) It’s hot today. 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分15分） 66. 学校的英语社团正在组织一次主题为”Healthy Life”的分享活动，并提供以下四个切入角度及相关示例做法。假如你是张华，请从中任选两个角度，以”My Ways to Live a Healthy Life”为题，写一篇简短的演讲稿。 注意：（1）选定两个角度后，示例做法仅供参考，可适当发挥。 （2）文中不得出现真实人名、学校等信息。 （3）80词左右（标题和开头已给出，不计入总词数）。 My Ways to Live a Healthy Life Hello, everyone! Today, I’d like to share two of my ways to keep healthy. ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025学年第二学期期末试题卷 七年级英语 考生须知： 1. 全卷共66小题，满分为100分。考试时间为90分钟。 2. 请用黑色墨水的钢笔或签字笔将姓名和准考证号填写在答题卷的相应位置上。 3. 选择题部分的答案必须用2B铅笔填涂在答题卷的相应位置上；非选择题部分的答案必须用黑色墨水的钢笔或签字笔写在答题卷的相应位置上，做在试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听小对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。对话仅读一遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】C 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】A 【5题答案】 【答案】A 第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。对话读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. C 7. B 【8~10题答案】 【答案】8. C 9. B 10. C 第三节： 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. C 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. B 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分35分） 第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下面材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【16~18题答案】 【答案】16. D 17. A 18. C B 【19~22题答案】 【答案】19. A 20. C 21. B 22. B C 【23~26题答案】 【答案】23. A 24. B 25. C 26. B D 【27~30题答案】 【答案】27. A 28. D 29. D 30. B 第二节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. C 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. I like swimming best in summer because it keeps me cool. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分30分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. B 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. A 43. A 44. C 45. D 第二节 词汇运用（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） A. 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. poor 47. award 48. such as 49. none 50. invited B. 【51~55题答案】 【答案】51. alone 52. snacks 53. myself 54. local 55. believe 第三节 语法填空（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 【56~60题答案】 【答案】56. the 57. sang 58. because 59. better 60. them 第四节 句子翻译（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 【61~65题答案】 【答案】61. Did you like your birthday party? 62. The garden was as beautiful as a painting. 63. It was quite delicious. 64. I am the happiest girl. 65. Don’t forget to take some water. 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分15分） 【66题答案】 【答案】 My Ways to Live a Healthy Life Hello, everyone! Today, I’d like to share two of my ways to keep healthy. First of all, it is important to keep a balanced diet. I try to eat less junk food because it is bad for my health. Instead, I eat plenty of fresh vegetables and fruit every day. Secondly, doing sports is another good way to stay healthy. I usually run in the morning, which makes me energetic. Also, I play basketball with my friends on weekends. In a word, healthy eating habits and regular exercise can help us build a strong body. Thank you for listening! 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $这是2025学年第二学期七年级期末考试英语听力部分。该部分共分3节。第一节听录音，从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答这一小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。现在你有5秒钟的时间来阅读第一小题的有关内容。One, miss lee, is this word beer or bear? BEAR, bear, bear. Too, he is really a kind boy. Yes, he has a heart of gold. Three, lily, so many toys, what are they for their gifts . for kids at the children's home? I want to make them happy. That's so nice. Let's do IT together. For Peter, you look tired, are you . right? I'm OK mom. I watched the football game last night. I want . to have a rest. Okay, have a good sleep. Five, good morning, miss White. What can I do for you today? Good morning, tony. My hair is getting too long. Please cut IT short. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。每段对话读两遍，听下面一段对话回答第6至7小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间来阅读这两个小题。The beef looks good. Let's get some Linda. Okay, Peter, i'll buy some onions too. We can cook with them. great. And I want some fish. Its my favorite. Sure. but neither of us knows how to cook fish. Don't worry, we can ask mom to teach us. I think she's too busy. Let's just learn to cook on the internet. I'm sure we can . make IT good idea. The beef looks good. Let's get some Linda . OK Peter, i'll buy some onions too. We can cook with them. Great and I want some fish. Its my favorite, sure. but neither of us knows how to cook fish. Don't worry, we can ask mom to teach us. I think she's too busy. Let's just learn to cook on the internet. I'm sure we can . make IT good idea. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间来阅读这三个小题。Hey, Laura, the weekend is coming. Let's go out and have some fun. Okay, dad, what about shopping or walking? That sounds boring. I prefer to go boating. That's great. Let's go boating on saturday morning. How about horse riding on saturday . afternoon? I'd love that horse riding is relaxing. What about sunday? Would you like to go climbing? I want to sleep in. You can go climbing with mom. SHE likes climbing. All right, i'm sure you'll love IT. Hey, Laura, the weekend is coming. Let's go out and have some fun. Okay, dad, what about shopping or working? That sounds boring. I prefer to go boating. That's great. Let's go boating on saturday morning. How about horse riding on saturday afternoon? I'd love that horse riding is relaxing. What about sunday? Would you like to go climbing? I want to sleep in. You can go climbing with mom. SHE likes . climbing, all right? I'm sure you'll love IT. 第二节到此结束，第三节听下面一段独白。独白后有五个小题，从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置，读白读两遍。现在你有25秒钟的时间来阅读这五个小题。Hi everyone, i'm Helen and i'm fourteen years old. I love painting. IT all started when I was six. My mom gave me a box of colored pencils for my birthday. After that, I just fell in love without I often paint in the garden. I enjoy painting my family, my school, beautiful flowers and little animal. My favorite painting is a lovely bird is on the role of my bedroom right now, and i'm going to take IT into the school art competition. Painting is so much fun, and IT helps me express my feelings. That's why I love you so much. Hi everyone. I'm Helen and i'm fourteen years old. I love painting. IT all started when I was six. My mom gave me a box of coloured pencils for my birthday. After that, I just fell in love with out. I often paint in the garden. I enjoy painting my family, my school, beautiful flowers and little animals. My favorite painting is a lovely bird is on the wall of my bedroom right now, and i'm going to take IT into the school art competition. Painting is so much fun and IT helps me express my feelings. That's why I IT so much. 第三节到此结束。听力测试到此结束。