内容正文:
2026年福建省命卷比赛作品
2026届福建省高考英语自编模拟卷
参考答案
第一部分 听力(共20题,每题1.5分,满分30分)
1.A 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.A6.C 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.C
11.B 12.B 13.C 14.B 15.A16.B 17.B 18.A 19.B 20.A
听力解析
1. 答案A
【考查类型】行为动作推断
【解析】对话双方商议下午空余时间相约打网球,对应play tennis,故选A。
1. 答案C
【考查类型】对话主旨理解
【解析】两人全程围绕学科难题、完成家庭作业展开交流,谈话主题是做作业,故选C。
1. 答案B
【考查类型】地点来源辨析
【解析】女士自述童年成长于西班牙,后来移居美国,原籍为西班牙,故选B。
1. 答案B
【考查类型】细节查找判断
【解析】女士神情焦急,四处翻找物品,谈话内容为寻找遗失的手机,故选B。
1. 答案A
【考查类型】人物态度评价
【解析】女士吐槽新邻居日常动静大、制造噪音,认为邻居吵闹,故选A。
1. 答案C
【考查类型】人物情绪判断
【解析】男士意外收到一笔钱款,最初心情开心愉悦,glad开心的;surprised惊讶的,angry生气的,故选C。
1. 答案B
【考查类型】细节行为理解
【解析】男士将这笔钱全部用于救治受伤生病的小狗,故选B。
1. 答案C
【考查类型】人物关系判断
【解析】对话称呼、语气及谈话内容可判断两人为母子关系,故选C。
1. 答案A
【考查类型】谈话目的理解
【解析】女士烘焙遇到难题,来找Jacob请教方法、寻求建议,故选A。
1. 答案C
【考查类型】细节信息提取
【解析】出门前女士叮嘱Jacob在家完成清洁打扫工作,故选C。
1. 答案B
【考查类型】观点态度判断
【解析】女士不赞同新建娱乐中心,对此持否定消极态度;negative消极的,positive积极的,uninterested不感兴趣的,故选B。
1. 答案B
【考查类型】关注点细节判断
【解析】男士担忧娱乐中心建成后持续产生噪音干扰周边居民,核心顾虑是噪音,故选B。
1. 答案C
【考查类型】结尾做法理解
【解析】两人最终商议通过多种植树木的方式削弱噪音影响,故选C。
1. 答案B
【考查类型】谈话主旨判断
【解析】男士致电客服咨询列车班次、乘车相关事宜,咨询火车服务,故选B。
1. 答案A
【考查类型】时间细节提取
【解析】列车次日上午大约九点抵达布鲁塞尔,故选A。
1. 答案B
【考查类型】服务细节判断
【解析】本次乘车可以免费享用餐食,提供免费食物,故选B。
1. 答案B
【考查类型】提醒内容理解
【解析】工作人员提醒男士务必提前抵达车站,不要误车,侧重到站时间提醒,故选B。
1. 答案A
【考查类型】活动主旨判断
【解析】小组活动内容为校园环保宣传、普及环保理念,职责是推广环境保护,故选A。
1. 答案B
【考查类型】细节事物判断
【解析】活动开展后在校门口新增放置了分类垃圾桶rubbish bins,故选B。
1. 答案A
【考查类型】结尾情节理解
【解析】活动结束后,校长和老师们向参与活动的全体同学表达了感谢,故选A。
第2部分 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分40分)
21-23 CBD 24-27 ACBC 28-31 BBBC 32-35 BAAC 36-40 DBACF
A篇 社区志愿活动应用文
1. 答案:C
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】文中四项志愿岗位末尾Requirements要求板块
①After-School Tutoring:Age 16+;②Park Clean-Up无年龄限制;③Senior Companion:Age 18+;④Animal Shelter Helper:Age 16+。
【解析】对比四项岗位年龄要求,老年陪护岗位要求年满18周岁,年龄限制最高,因此选C。
1. 答案:B
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】A篇第2板块Park Clean-Up第一段第2句:We pick up litter, plant flowers, and repair small facilities.
【解析】公园志愿者工作包含捡拾垃圾、栽种花草、维修小型设施;A项属于课后辅导工作、C项属于养老院陪护工作、D项属于动物救助站工作,均不属于公园志愿内容,排除后选B。
1. 答案:D
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】A篇第4板块Animal Shelter Helper时间栏:Time: Flexible, 2-4 hours per week
【词汇注释】flexible adj.灵活的,可自由调配的
【解析】该岗位工作时间没有固定时段限制,每周完成2至4小时工作量即可,可以结合自身日程自主安排工作时间,故选D。
B篇 记叙文 Lena救助流浪小猫
1. 答案:A
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】B篇第二段第1句:Lena took the kitten home, named it Mochi, and spent several weeks taking care of it to restore its health.
【解析】Lena初次发现小猫后,第一时间把小猫带回家、取名并花费时间悉心照料帮助小猫恢复健康;B联系救助站、C求助邻居、D线上发文均为后续行为,并非初见小猫时的做法,故选A。
1. 答案:C
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】B篇第二段第2句:At first, her parents worried that they couldn’t afford to keep another pet.
【词汇注释】afford v.负担得起,承担费用
【解析】父母一开始担忧家庭经济条件有限,无力再额外饲养宠物;A讨厌猫咪、B担心小猫生病、D没时间照料均无原文依据,故选C。
1. 答案:B
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】B篇第三段第1、2句:At that time, Lina decided to set up her own small rescue organization. She has posted posters in the community calling for donations of food and blankets, and created a social media page to share stories of stray cats.
【解析】Lina成立小型流浪猫救助组织,张贴海报募集食物、毛毯等物资;A未修建实体收容场所、C没有把所有猫咪送往救助站、D没有独自收养全部流浪猫,表述错误,故选B。
1. 答案:C
【题型】主旨推理题
【原文定位】B篇最后一段倒数第二句:It made me understand that even one person can have a huge impact.
【解析】文章核心启示:一个人的微小行动也能够产生巨大影响;ABD表述与文意相悖,故选C。
C篇 说明文 手机使用对青少年睡眠的影响
1. 答案:B
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】C篇第一段第1句:A new study from the University of California found that adolescents who use mobile phones for more than 5 hours a day are twice as likely to have sleep problems than those who use mobile phones for less than 2 hours a day.
【解析】研究表明,每日长时间使用手机的青少年出现睡眠问题的概率成倍升高;A并未说明大部分青少年玩手机时长超5小时,CD和原文观点相反,故选B。
1. 答案:B
【题型】词义猜测题
【原文定位】C篇第二段第2句:The blue light emitted by the mobile phone screen inhibits the secretion of melatonin, which is a hormone that helps us fall asleep.
【解析】褪黑素是帮助人体入睡的激素,手机蓝光会阻碍、减少褪黑素分泌;inhibit和suppress词义为抑制、削减;A增加、C改善、D改变均不符合逻辑,故选B。
1. 答案:B
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】C篇第二段第2、3句:The blue light emitted by the mobile phone screen inhibits the secretion of melatonin, which is a hormone that helps us fall asleep. This means that even if teenagers try to go to bed early, the use of mobile phones before bedtime will make it more difficult for them to fall asleep, and will also lead to shallow sleep and decreased quality.
【解析】熬夜玩手机的根本危害:屏幕蓝光抑制人体内助眠激素褪黑素的生成,造成入睡困难、睡眠变浅、睡眠质量下降;ACD并非熬夜玩手机的核心危害,故选B。
1. 答案:C
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】C篇第四段后半部分:Dr. Miller suggested that parents could help their children by setting limits on the use of mobile phones before bedtime, encouraging them to collect their phones at least one hour before bedtime.
【解析】Miller博士建议家长在孩子睡前限制手机使用时长;A完全禁止玩手机过于极端,BD文中没有相关建议,故选C。
D篇 说明文 社区花园的作用与价值
1. 答案:B
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】D篇第一段第2句:These are small plots of land where local residents can grow vegetables, fruits, herbs and flowers.
【词汇注释】plot n.小块土地
【解析】社区花园是城市里划分出来、供当地居民种植蔬果花草的小片空地;ACD不符合原文定义,故选B。
1. 答案:A
【题型】推理判断题
【原文定位】D篇第二段全部益处:①they encourage healthier eating...helping people stay active(个人身心健康);②these gardens strengthen community ties...reduce loneliness and improves neighborhood safety(邻里社区关系)。
【解析】社区花园既能促进个人身体健康,又能拉近邻里情谊、优化社区氛围;BCD表述片面、绝对化,故选A。
1. 答案:A
【题型】细节理解题
【原文定位】D篇第三段:they can help reduce the “heat island effect”...Plants can also absorb carbon dioxide and some pollutants. In addition, gardens provide food and shelter for local wildlife, especially bees and butterflies, which are important pollinators.
【解析】社区花园增加城市绿植面积缓解热岛效应、吸收污染物,同时为蜜蜂、蝴蝶等授粉生物提供食物与栖息地;BCD内容违背原文,故选A。
1. 答案:C
【题型】推理判断题
【原文定位】D篇最后一段末尾:They can grow it in their own communities, and this small change can improve urban life in many ways.
【解析】专家话语意在说明城市园艺可以多方面优化城市生活、提升社区宜居性;ABD曲解原文语句,故选C。
第二节 七选五(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
1. 答案:D
【解题分析】前文提出很多人难以写出优质文章,后文依次介绍提升写作能力的实用方法。D选项“写作是一项需要时间和耐心打磨的技能”起到承上启下的作用,自然引出下文改进方法。
1. 答案:B
【解题分析】本段全部内容围绕阅读对写作的作用展开,全文采用First、Second、Third分层论述结构,B项以First开头,作为本段主题句统领全段内容。
1. 答案:A
【解题分析】前一句说明不必写长篇文章,后一句列举日记、小故事、简短随笔等简短写作形式,A项“你可以从小内容入手练习”衔接前后语义逻辑。
1. 答案:C
【解题分析】本段小标题为get feedback(获取修改反馈),后文说明他人能够指出文章优劣与修改方向,C项“请朋友或老师审阅你的文章”是获取写作反馈的具体做法。
1. 答案:F
【解题分析】本段主题为修改文章,前文说明大声朗读文稿便于发现写作疏漏,F项点明修改的价值:打磨文字能够让文章表达更清晰通顺,总结本段核心内容。
第3部分 语言运用
41-45 AADBB 46-50 CACBC 51-55 AAABD
56. discovered 57. a 58. spread 59. When 60. to show 61. making 62. traditions 63. their 64. traditionally 65. it
第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
41.【答案】A
【解析】后文交代害怕画作被他人嘲笑,性格腼腆胆怯不敢展示作品;shy腼腆害羞的,excited兴奋的,proud骄傲的,busy忙碌的。
42.【答案】A
【解析】后半句so that no one can find it,作者刻意把绘画内容写在本子末尾隐藏起来;hide隐藏,draw绘画,show展示,leave遗留。
43.【答案】D
【解析】后文交代并非主动选择美术课,只是为补齐学分偶然选课;by accident偶然,chance机会,mistake错误,heart内心。
44.【答案】B
【解析】后文their paintings are also great,作者自卑,认为同班同学绘画都具备天赋;talented有天赋的,serious严肃的,honest诚实的,hard-working勤奋的。
45.【答案】B
【解析】前文I think I will be the worst in the class,自我否定,认为自己水平最差只会浪费课堂时间;waste浪费。
46.【答案】C
【解析】后文She said that I only need to practice more,老师看完画作指出作者拥有绘画天赋;talent天赋,luck运气,problem问题,time时间。
47.【答案】A
【解析】前文老师鼓励分享作品,开导作者不要害怕展现自我;express展现、表达,protect保护,introduce介绍,enjoy享受。
48.【答案】C
【解析】后文after class to help me learn new skills,老师课后额外抽出时间给予指导帮助;help帮助。
49.【答案】B
【解析】后文每天练习绘画、课堂分享作品,坚持练习后逐步取得进步;improve进步,change改变,agree同意,forget忘记。
50.【答案】C
【解析】前文The students were very friendly,同学待人友善,给予作者大量鼓励与支持;support支持,advice建议,money金钱,information信息。
51.【答案】A
【解析】收获同学认可后慢慢建立自信,开始相信自身能力;believe相信自己,trust侧重信任他人。
52.【答案】A
【解析】如今靠绘画职业谋生,到现在依旧不敢相信自己完成蜕变;still仍然、至今。
53.【答案】A
【解析】后文almost dropped out of class,回忆初次上课差点因胆怯放弃课程;give up放弃。
54.【答案】B
【解析】经历成长后愿意鼓励胆怯不敢展示作品的同龄人;encourage鼓励,warn警告,promise承诺,invite邀请。
55.【答案】D
【解析】全文主旨感悟:不去亲身尝试,永远无法认清自身潜力;try尝试。
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
1. discovered
【考点】一般过去时
【解析】时间状语More than 4,000 years ago为过去时间,谓语动词使用过去式。
1. as
【考点】固定短语搭配
【解析】be used as 固定搭配,含义“被用作……”。
1. spread
【考点】一般过去时
【解析】During the Tang Dynasty唐朝属于过去年代,spread原形和过去式同形,无需变形。
1. When
【考点】时间状语从句连词
【解析】句意:当欧洲人第一次品尝茶叶时就爱上了茶香;句子开头首字母必须大写。
1. to show
【考点】非谓语动词(不定式作目的状语)
【解析】举办茶会的目的是展示新式茶饮,不定式to do用来表行为目的。
1. making
【考点】非谓语动词(现在分词作结果状语)
【解析】往茶中添加奶糖,自然而然带来口感变化,doing表自然而然产生的结果。
1. traditions
【考点】名词复数形式
【解析】固定结构one of + 可数名词复数,表示“……之一”。
1. their
【考点】形容词性物主代词
【解析】修饰名词health,需要使用形容词性物主代词。
1. traditionally
【考点】副词修饰动词
【解析】修饰动词served,形容词要变换为副词形式。
1. it
【考点】代词指代用法
【解析】代词it指代前文喝茶这件事,在句中作形式主语。
第二节(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
56. discovered
答案:discovered
【考点】一般过去时
【解析】时间状语 More than 4,000 years ago(四千多年前)是明确过去时间,谓语动词要用过去式;discover 的过去式为 discovered。
57. as
答案:as
【考点】固定介词搭配
【解析】固定短语 be used as,意为 “被用作……”;句意:起初茶被当作药材使用。
58. spread
答案:spread
【考点】一般过去时
【解析】时间状语 During the Tang Dynasty(唐朝时期)属于过去年代,谓语用过去式;spread 原形、过去式、过去分词同形,无需变形。
59. When
答案:When
【考点】连词引导时间状语从句
【解析】句意:当欧洲人初次品尝茶叶时,就爱上了它清新的口感。此处引导时间状语从句,意为 “当…… 的时候”;位于句首首字母必须大写。
60. to show
答案:to show
【考点】非谓语动词:不定式作目的状语
【解析】富人举办茶会,目的是展示这种新奇饮品;不定式 to do 用来表示动作的目的。
61. making
答案:making
【考点】非谓语动词:现在分词作结果状语
【解析】往茶里加牛奶和糖,自然而然带来口感更温润香甜的结果;doing 形式表顺其自然产生的结果,不能用不定式。
62. traditions
答案:traditions
【考点】名词复数
【解析】固定结构 one of + 可数名词复数,表示 “…… 之一”;tradition(传统)为可数名词,变为复数 traditions。
63. their
答案:their
【考点】形容词性物主代词
【解析】空格后是名词 health,需要用形容词性物主代词修饰名词;they(主格)→ their(他们的)。
64. traditionally
答案:traditionally
【考点】副词修饰动词
【解析】空格修饰后面的动词 served(招待、奉上),形容词要变为副词;traditional(形容词)→ traditionally(副词,传统地)。
65. it
答案:it
【考点】代词用法
【解析】固定句型 it is a time to do sth,it 作形式主语,指代前文喝茶这件事。
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节参考范文(满分15分):
Ranking My High School Daily Priorities
From my perspective, I rank extensive reading first, followed by exercise, and then exercise practice.
Wide reading broadens our horizons and improves language competence fundamentally. Regular exercise keeps us energetic enough to study efficiently. Doing piles of exercises only serves as supplementary means, which should not take up most spare time.
Balancing the three things contributes to sustainable progress in high school.
第二节参考范文(满分25分):
The next morning, the rain stopped, and the old man showed us the way down the mountain. Mr. Chen cut a strong branch for Tom to use as a walking stick and led us slowly along a safer path. On the way, we saw several broken signs lying in the mud. Mr. Chen explained each turn patiently and reminded us never to choose an unfamiliar shortcut again. After two hours, we finally reached the parking lot, where our worried parents were waiting with the rescue workers. Looking back at the misty mountain, Tom and I felt both ashamed and grateful. Before leaving, we thanked Mr. Chen again and promised that we would return to help him repair the signs.
A month later, Tom and I went back to visit the old man. This time, we brought warm clothes, fresh food and several new warning signs donated by our classmates. Mr. Chen welcomed us with the same gentle smile. Under his guidance, we fixed the signs along the unsafe shortcut and cleared away fallen branches. During the work, he told us more stories about protecting the mountain and helping lost hikers. We realized that his small cabin was not only his home but also a shelter for people in danger. When we left, the bright new signs stood firmly in the wind. Tom and I understood that kindness should be passed on, and we decided to join the school hiking club to teach others about outdoor safety.
听力原文:
1.W: My father insists that I have lessons on Sunday night.
M: Here we have several hours to go. I’ll wait for you in the tennis field at four. Don’t be late.
W: You bet!
2.M: I’m back. Is there anything I can help with for dinner?
W: Great! Could you start by washing the vegetables?
M: Sure. And I can do the cutting after that.
3.W: Hi! Glad to meet you. I’m an exchange student from Mexico.
M: Cool. Could you help me practice my Spanish when you’re in the United States?
W: Sure. It’s my pleasure.
4.M: You look worried. What’s wrong?
W: I can’t find my phone. I remember using it just now.
M: Well, why not use mine to call it? Listen! It’s ringing in your bag.
5.M: How are you getting on with your new neighbors?
W: Luckily, they don’t make too much noise. And they always smile and say hello. But what bothers me is the mess they’ve left outside.
6.W: Why did you run out of the room and close the door like that?
M: I was so angry.
W: Do you mean I misunderstood you?
M: To be Frank, you did, I think.
W: Okay, but can you first explain what you did with the cash I left?
M: The dog was sick and I didn’t want to call you on your vacation, so I used the money to take him to the animal hospital.
W: Now everything is clear. It’s my fault.
M: Glad to hear you say that.
7.W: Jacob, your dad said you need my help.
M: Yes please help me preheat the oven. I want to make a chocolate cake on my own. First, put the cocoa powder in the bowl, right?
W: Yes. Remember how many other ingredients we should put into the bowl?
M: Let me think. A cup of water, two cups of vegetable oil and four eggs.
W: Right. I’ll put some oil on the baking sheet so that the cake base won’t stick to it.
M: OK. Everything is done. Let me set a timer for 30 minutes. By the way, Jim invited me to watch his football game in the afternoon. Can you take me there?
W: I have to visit your grandma then. Your dad is free. But you have to clean up the kitchen first.
M: OK.
8.M: Have you seen what’s happening in Baxton Park, Melinda? They’re going to build an entertainment center in it.
W: Oh, I know. It is a pity. It will be used to hold parties every weekend, and then people will be coming and going at all hours of the night! How are we ever going to get a good night’s sleep?
M: I think the trees will probably weaken the sound quite a bit. After all they’re quite heavy and close round here. What I’m worried about is parking. This is going to attract a lot of people here.
W: I know. There’s nothing we can do about the plan.
M: What about phoning up the local paper and getting their photographer round? You never know, we might just get them to think again.
9.M: Hi, I would like to buy a one-way ticket to Brussels please.
W: Certainly, sir. We have an overnight train that leaves at 9 p.m.
M: How long does it take to get there?
W: About twelve hours. If you’d like, you can choose a sleeper on the overnight train, which is not expensive at all.
M: Yeah, I think that is a good option. Do you serve food on the train?
W: Yes, of course. There is a dining car where they serve meals at all times. We do provide free water and coffee for all of our passengers.
M: Great! I’ll take it.
W: Here you are, sir. Your train leaves from platform number eleven at 9 o’clock. Remember to be here at least thirty minutes before the departure time or else you might miss your train!
M: I understand. Thank you very much!
W: Have a great trip.
10. M: Hi, everyone. I’d like to tell you what our class did to celebrate World Environment Day. First, the headmaster gave a presentation about the dangers the environment is facing nowadays and what each of us can do to protect it. Then our history teacher divided our class into three groups. Each group had a teacher as a leader. I was a member of the first group. We spent over two hours going around the neighborhood putting up posters about environmental protection. It was very cold and we got very tired, but we all felt very proud of ourselves. The second group was responsible for cleaning the streets around the school. They picked up all the rubbish on the streets, and they also put two rubbish bins at the school gate. The third group was asked to plant flowers in the schoolyard. When they grow, I’m sure our schoolyard will look very beautiful. When we all finished what we had to do, we gathered in the schoolyard again. The headmaster and our teachers thanked us and gave each of us a bag made of waste paper.
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2026年福建省命卷比赛作品
2026届福建省高考英语自编模拟卷
(考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:150分)
第1部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What will the speakers do this afternoon?
A. Play tennis. B. Watch a play. C. Have lessons.
2. What are the speakers talking about?
A. Going shopping. B. Cooking dinner. C. Doing homework.
3. Where does the woman come from?
A. Mexico. B. Spain. C. The United States.
4. What is the woman looking for?
A. A bus ticket. B. Her mobile phone. C. Her school bag.
5. What does the woman think of her new neighbors?
A. They are noisy. B. They are unfriendly. C. They are untidy.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段对话,回答第6、7小题。
6. How did the man feel at first?
A. Surprised. B. Angry. C. Glad.
7. What did the man do with the money?
A. He donated it to the hospital.
B. He spent it on the sick dog.
C. He paid for his vacation.
听第7段对话,回答第8至10题。
8. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Father and daughter. B. Brother and sister. C. Mom and son.
9. Why does the woman come to Jacob?
A. To ask for advice. B. To offer help. C. To taste his cake.
10. What does the woman ask Jacob to do before going out?
A. Heat the oven. B. Watch the time. C. Do the cleaning.
听第8段对话,回答第11至13小题。
11. What is the woman’s attitude toward the entertainment center?
A Positive. B. Negative. C. Uninterested.
12. What is the man concerned about?
A. Trees. B. Noise. C. Parking.
13. What advice does the man give in the end?
A. Telephoning the local paper. B. Weakening the sound. C. Planting more trees.
听第9段对话,回答第14至17题。
14. What is the man doing?
A. Booking a hotel room.
B. Asking about train services.
C. Changing his flight ticket.
15. When will the man get to Brussels tomorrow?
A. At about 9 am. B. At about 9 pm. C. At about 12 pm.
16. What service can the man get?
A. Get free drinks. B. Have free food. C. Upgrade his seat for free.
17. What does the woman remind the man of?
A. How to get to the station.
B. When to arrive at the station.
C. Which car to have meals in.
听第10段独白,回答第18至20题。
18. What was the speaker’s group responsible for?
A. Promoting environmental protection.
B. Planting flowers in the schoolyard.
C. Cleaning the streets.
19. What were added at the school gate?
A. Flowers. B. Rubbish bins. C. Posters.
20. What did the headmaster and the teachers do in the end?
A. They expressed their thanks to us.
B. They collected the rubbish bags.
C. They picked up some waste paper.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Community Volunteer Opportunities 2026
Looking for ways to give back to your community? We have a variety of volunteer positions available for people of all ages and skills. Here are some of our current openings:
1. After-School Tutoring
Help elementary school students with their homework and study skills. We need volunteers who are patient and good at math and English.
Time: Monday-Friday, 3:30pm-5:30pm
Location: City Central Community Center
Requirements: Age 16+, good communication skills
2. Park Clean-Up
Join our team to keep our local parks clean and beautiful. We pick up litter, plant flowers, and repair small facilities.
Time: Every Saturday, 9:00am-12:00pm
Location: Green Lake Park
Requirements: No experience needed, wear comfortable clothes
3. Senior Companion
Visit elderly residents at the City Nursing Home. You can chat with them, read to them, or help them with small errands.
Time: Sunday afternoons, 2:00pm-4:00pm
Location: City Nursing Home
Requirements: Age 18+, caring and responsible
4. Animal Shelter Helper
Help us take care of homeless animals at the City Animal Shelter. You can walk dogs, clean cages, or help with adoption events.
Time: Flexible, 2-4 hours per week
Location: City Animal Shelter
Requirements: Love animals, able to work independently
For more information or to sign up, please visit our website: www.cityvolunteer.org or call us at 555-1234.
原创 21. Which volunteer job requires the highest age limit?
A. After-School Tutoring.
B. Park Clean-Up.
C. Senior Companion.
D. Animal Shelter Helper.
原创 22. What can volunteers do at Green Lake Park?
A. Help students with homework.
B. Plant flowers and repair facilities.
C. Chat with elderly residents.
D. Walk dogs and clean cages.
原创 23. When can you work as an Animal Shelter Helper?
A. On Monday afternoons.
B. On Friday mornings.
C. On Saturday evenings.
D. Any time that fits your schedule.
B
Last winter, 16-year-old Lena found a shivering kitten under her porch. She didn 't expect it to change her life forever. The kitten was only a few weeks old, cold and hungry, and Lena knew she couldn 't leave it there.
Lena took the kitten home, named it Mochi, and spent several weeks taking care of it to restore its health. At first, her parents worried that they couldn 't afford to keep another pet, but soon they were struck by Mochi 's lovely character. As Mochi grew stronger day by day, Lina noticed that there were many other stray cats in her community. Many of them are sick or hungry, but no one takes care of them.
At that time, Lina decided to set up her own small rescue organization. She has posted posters in the community calling for donations of food and blankets, and created a social media page to share stories of stray cats. Soon, neighbors began to send the cats to her, and some people offered to foster these cats until they found a permanent home.
In just one year, Lina 's rescue organization helped more than 50 cats find a new family. She also organized low-cost vaccination campaigns for stray cats and worked with local animal shelters to launch a ' capture-sterilize-release ' program to control the number of stray cats.
Lena said that the best part of this job is to see a cat from a frightened, hungry stray cat into a happy, loved pet. 'It was Mochi that started it all, ' she says. ' It made me understand that even one person can have a huge impact. As long as I can help a cat live a good life, it ' s all worth it. '
原创 24. What did Lina do when she first found Mochi?
A. She took him home and took care of him.
B. She called the local animal shelter.
C. She asked her neighbors for help.
D. She posted his story on social media.
原创 25. Why did Lina's parents worry at first?
A. They didn't like cats.
B. They were afraid Mochi would get sick.
C. They thought they couldn't afford to keep him.
D. They didn't have time to take care of a pet.
原创 26.What did Lina do to help stray cats ?
A. She built a shelter for them.
B. She called for donations and set up a relief organization.
C. She sent all the stray cats to the animal shelter.
D. She adopted all the stray cats herself.
原创 27.What can we learn from Lena 's story ?
A. Helping stray animals is dangerous.
B. Teenagers cannot form their own organizations.
C. Small actions can have a huge impact.
D. It is easy to find a home for stray cats.
C
A new study from the University of California found that adolescents who use mobile phones for more than 5 hours a day are twice as likely to have sleep problems than those who use mobile phones for less than 2 hours a day. This study conducted a two-year follow-up survey of more than 10,000 adolescents to explore the impact of mobile phone use on their sleep quality and overall health.
Researchers have found that the use of mobile phones at night is particularly harmful. The blue light emitted by the mobile phone screen inhibits the secretion of melatonin, which is a hormone that helps us fall asleep. This means that even if teenagers try to go to bed early, the use of mobile phones before bedtime will make it more difficult for them to fall asleep, and will also lead to shallow sleep and decreased quality.
Dr. Sarah Miller, who led the study, said that many adolescents do not realize how much mobile phone use affects their sleep. 'We found that many teens have been brushing social media or watching videos before bedtime, ' she said. ' They think they 're just relaxing, but in reality, their brains are still in a state of euphoria and blue light is disrupting their body clocks. '
The study also found that adolescents with sleep problems are more likely to be inattentive in the classroom, have lower grades, and have a higher risk of anxiety and depression. Dr. Miller suggested that parents could help their children by setting limits on the use of mobile phones before bedtime, encouraging them to collect their phones at least one hour before bedtime.
'Now mobile phones have become a very important part of teenagers ' lives. We can 't simply stop them from using mobile phones, ' Dr. Miller said. ' But we can help them use mobile phones in a way that doesn 't harm their health. Some small changes, such as turning on night mode, or not using a mobile phone in the bedroom, can make a big difference. '
原创 28. What did the new study find?
A. Most teenagers spend more than 5 hours a day on their phones.
B. Teenagers who use phones a lot are more likely to have sleep problems.
C. Phone use can help teenagers relax before bed.
D. Teenagers with sleep problems use phones to deal with stress.
29. What does the underlined word "suppress" in paragraph 2 probably mean?
A. Increase.
B. Stop or reduce.
C. Improve.
D. Change.
原创 30. Why is late-night phone use harmful?
A. It makes teenagers too tired to work the next day.
B. It stops the body from making the hormone that helps sleep.
C. It makes teenagers spend less time studying.
D. It causes teenagers to have more nightmares.
原创 31. What does Dr. Miller suggest parents do?
A. Stop their kids from using phones completely.
B. Buy their kids phones with smaller screens.
C. Set limits on phone use before bed.
D. Let their kids use phones only in the living room.
D
In many cities around the world, community gardens are becoming more and more popular. These are small plots of land where local residents can grow vegetables, fruits, herbs and flowers. They give people a chance to produce fresh food, meet their neighbors and add more green space to crowded streets.
A recent study found that community gardens bring several benefits. First, they encourage healthier eating. People who grow vegetables themselves tend to eat more fresh produce and are more likely to keep a balanced diet. Second, gardening increases physical activity, helping people stay active in a natural way. Third, these gardens strengthen community ties. People who work side by side often form friendships, which helps reduce loneliness and improves neighborhood safety.
Community gardens are also good for the environment. By replacing areas of concrete with soil and plants, they can help reduce the “heat island effect”, a situation in which cities become hotter than nearby rural areas because of buildings and paved surfaces. Plants can also absorb carbon dioxide and some pollutants. In addition, gardens provide food and shelter for local wildlife, especially bees and butterflies, which are important pollinators.
However, community gardens face challenges. In many cities, land is costly, and open space is limited. Some residents worry that city soil may be polluted and unsafe for growing food. To deal with these problems, some city governments turn unused lots into gardens and test the soil before planting begins.
Experts believe community gardens are a practical way to make cities healthier and more livable. “More people are realizing that they don’t have to move to the countryside to grow food,” says urban agriculture expert Dr. Lisa Wang. “They can grow it in their own communities, and this small change can improve urban life in many ways.”
原创 32. According to the text, what is a community garden?
A. A large park where people can buy fresh food.
B. A small piece of land for local people to grow plants.
C. A school garden where students learn farming skills.
D. A city farm run only by agricultural experts.
原创 33. What can be inferred from the benefits mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. Community gardens may improve both personal well-being and neighborhood connection.
B. The safety of a community depends completely on gardening.
C. People join community gardens only for fresh produce.
D. Loneliness disappears as soon as people start planting vegetables.
原创 34. How do community gardens contribute to environmental improvement?
A. By increasing green space and supporting pollinators.
B. By turning all city buildings into farms.
C. By removing all air pollution from cities.
D. By making rural areas cooler than cities.
原创 35. What can be inferred from Dr. Lisa Wang’s words in the last paragraph?
A. The popularity of community gardens depends only on their location.
B. City residents should move to rural areas for better health.
C. Urban agriculture can improve the livability of communities.
D. Growing food in cities is possible only for experts.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Writing is an important skill that can help you in study, work and life. But many people find it difficult to write a good article. 36. The following are some practical ways to help you improve your writing level.
37. The more you read, the stronger your writing ability will be. Reading can show you different ways of using words, sentence structures and writing styles. It can also help you learn new vocabulary and ideas and apply them to your own writing.
Second, practice writing every day. You don’t have to write a long article. 38. You can write a diary, a short story, or even a short post. The key is to write something every day so that you can get used to turning your thoughts into words.
Third, get feedback. 39. They can tell you which parts are well written and which need to be improved. You can also join a writing group where you can share your work with others and get advice from them.
Fourth, revise your work. After writing, don’t hand it in immediately. Check spelling and grammar carefully to make sure your ideas are clear and easy to understand. Sometimes it is helpful to read your work aloud, because it can help you find mistakes that you missed in silent reading. 40.
Finally, don’t be afraid to make mistakes. Every writer makes mistakes, even famous writers are no exception. It is important to learn from mistakes and keep practicing. As long as you stick to it, your writing will become better and better.
原创 A. You can start with small things.
原创 B. First, read as much as possible.
原创 C. Ask a friend or teacher to read your work.
原创 D. Writing is a skill that takes time and patience.
原创 E. It is important to write down every word perfectly the first time.
原创 F. Taking time to revise can make your writing clearer.
原创 G. Reading can also help you relax after a long day.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
I ' ve always loved drawing, but I never thought I ' d be a real artist. When I was a child, I would draw on my notebook, but I was too __ 41 __ to show it to anyone. I am afraid that people will laugh at my paintings and think they are not good enough. I will draw __ 42 __ in the last few pages of the notebook, so that no one can find it.
At the age of 18, I went to college and __43 __ chose an art class. I wasn 't going to choose, but I needed to take an extra course to fill out the schedule, and this art class was the only time that was right. At first, I was very nervous. Other students look so __ 44 __, their paintings are also great. I think I will be the worst in the class, only __ 45 __ everyone 's time.
But my teacher Li is very kind. She looked at my painting and told me I had __ 46 __. She said that I only need to practice more and should not be afraid of __ 47 __ myself. She encouraged me to share my work with other students and not to give up. She even gave me extra __ 48 __ after class to help me learn new skills.
Slowly, I start __ 49 __. I practiced painting every day and began to share my works in the class. The students were very friendly and gave me a lot of __ 50 __. They say my painting is very beautiful, the way I see the world is very special. I started __ 51 __ myself, which is a feeling I 've never had before.
After graduating from college, I began to sell my paintings online. At first, I only sold a few, but slowly, more and more people began to buy. Now, I make a living as a free artist. I __ 52 __ can 't believe I can do this and make money on what I love.
I often think of the first day of art class. I was almost __ 53 __ because I was too afraid to try. I almost dropped out of class because I didn 't think I was good enough. But I 'm glad I didn 't. Now, I think __ 54 __ those who dare not show their works, tell them that it is normal to be afraid, but should try. Unless you __ 55 __, you never know what you can do.
原创 41. A. shy B. excited C. proud D. busy
原创 42. A. hide B. draw C. show D. leave
原创 43. A. chance B. mistake C. heart D. accident
原创 44. A. serious B. talented C. honest D. hard-working
原创 45. A. take B. waste C. save D. spend
原创 46. A. luck B. problem C. talent D. time
原创 47. A. express B. protect C. introduce D. enjoy
原创 48. A. work B. homework C. help D. praise
原创 49. A. change B. improve C. agree D. forget
原创 50. A. advice B. money C. support D. information
原创 51. A. believe B. trust C. interest D. join
原创 52. A. still B. even C. just D. never
原创 53. A. give up B. show up C. turn up D. go out
原创 54. A. warn B. encourage C. promise D. invite
原创 55. A. do B. make C. have D. try
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
原创.阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Tea is one of the most popular drinks in the world, and its origin is in China. More than 4,000 years ago, Chinese people __56__ (discover) that tea leaves could be used to make drinks. At first, tea was used as __57__ medicine, but slowly it became a daily drink.
During the Tang Dynasty, tea __58__ (spread) to neighboring countries. It first reached Japan and Korea, where it became an important part of local culture. Later, in the 16th century, the first boxes of tea arrived in Europe. __59__ Europeans first tried it, they fell in love with its fresh taste. Wealthy people held tea parties __60__ (show) off this new and exciting drink.
In the 18th century, tea spread to all classes in Britain. British people began to add milk and sugar to tea, __61__ (make) the taste softer and sweeter. English afternoon tea was born in this way. Today, afternoon tea is one of the most famous __62__ (tradition) in Britain.
Now, tea is drunk all over the world. Different countries have different ways of drinking tea. In China, people drink green tea and believe it is good for __63__ (they) health. In Morocco, mint tea is __64__ (traditional) served to guests in small glasses.
Although people around the world drink tea in different ways, one thing is the same: tea can bring people together. Whether you’re drinking tea with family, friends, or even strangers, __65__ is a time to chat, relax, and enjoy each other’s company.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
原创第一节(满分15分)
你校英文校报“Life Tips”栏目面向全校同学征稿,请大家对高中课外日常的刷题(Practise exercises)、运动(Exercise)、课外阅读(Extensive reading)三件事按照重要性排序并说明理由,请你写一篇短文投稿。
注意:
(1) 词数控制在80词左右;
(2) 须在答题卡指定位置使用给定标题作答。
标题:Ranking My High School Daily Priorities
第二节(满分25分)
原创.阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Last October, Tom and I decided to climb Sunset Mountain, famous for its golden evening views. The weather report had promised a clear day, and Tom, who had hiked there twice, was sure we could reach the top before sunset. I was less experienced, but his excitement made me forget my worries. We packed sandwiches, two bottles of water and thin raincoats, then set off early.
For the first few hours, everything went well. The path was dry, the air smelled of pine, and we stopped often for photos. Near noon, however, clouds gathered over the mountain. Tom pointed to a shorter path marked by an old wooden sign. “It will save us forty minutes,” he said. I hesitated, noticing the broken sign and the path covered with leaves. I wondered whether we should turn back, but Tom sounded so confident that I swallowed my doubts. Not wanting to seem timid, I followed him.
Soon the path grew narrow and steep. A cold wind blew through the trees, and heavy rain suddenly fell. We put on our raincoats, but they were too thin to keep us warm. Worse still, my phone had no signal, and Tom’s battery was nearly dead. When we tried to go back, the rain had washed away our footprints. Then Tom slipped on a wet stone and hurt his ankle. He tried to laugh, but pain showed on his face. We shouted for help, but only the rain answered.
As darkness fell, fear took hold of us. We kept walking, hoping to find the main trail, yet seemed to be moving in circles. Just as we were about to give up, a faint yellow light appeared between the trees. Supporting Tom, I walked toward it and found a small wooden cabin. An old man named Mr. Chen opened the door. He was a retired forest ranger who lived there to look after the trails. He gave us hot tea, dry clothes and a place by the fire. Before we slept, he said the storm had knocked down several signs and the old shortcut was unsafe.
注意:
(1) 续写词数应为150个左右;
(2) 请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
The next morning, the rain stopped, and the old man showed us the way down the mountain.________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
A month later, Tom and I went back to visit the old
man.________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
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2026年福建省命卷比赛作品
2026届福建省高考英语自编模拟卷
多维细目表
全卷综合多维细目表(总览版)
模块
总分
题号范围
语篇话题
文本体裁
核心育人价值
学科素养
考查关键能力
核心考点
难度层级
情境类型
听力理解
30
1-5
日常简短交际(邀约、寻物、籍贯、邻里评价)
短对话
人际交往、礼貌素养
语言建构、思维发展
细节捕捉、信息筛选、简单预判
交际词汇、情景句型、行为态度判断
基础
生活化交际情境
6-10
事件叙事(钱款使用、家务求助)
长对话
责任意识、互助礼貌
语言建构、思维发展、审美鉴赏
情节梳理、情绪推理、意图判断
情感形容词、叙事逻辑词、因果推理
综合
生活事件情境
11-15
公共话题(文娱项目利弊讨论)
长对话
理性思辨、公共意识
语言建构、思维发展
观点辨析、利弊研判、方案提炼
态度表达词、议论文逻辑衔接词
综合
社区思辨情境
16-20
出行咨询、校园环保志愿
长对话 + 独白
规则意识、生态文明、奉献精神
四大素养全覆盖
篇章概括、流程梳理、主旨提炼
篇章结构、主旨归纳、事件梳理
综合 + 创新
社会实践情境
阅读理解 A
10
21-23
社区志愿岗位招募
应用文(公告)
志愿服务、社会责任、奉献担当
语言建构、思维发展
信息定位、比对筛选、词义推断
细节查找、信息对比、语境释义
基础
社区公共服务情境
阅读理解 B
10
24-27
少年救助流浪猫成长故事
记叙文
生命关怀、善良品格、微光价值
四大素养全覆盖
时序梳理、因果推理、主旨感悟
行为辨析、原因推理、哲理概括
综合
个人成长德育情境
阅读理解 C
10
28-31
手机使用与青少年睡眠健康
科普说明文
健康自律、科学认知、自我管理
语言建构、思维发展
观点提取、词义猜测、事理分析
科研结论、逻辑猜词、原理梳理
综合
身心健康科普情境
阅读理解 D
10
32-35
城市社区花园生态价值
社科说明文
生态文明、社区共建、人与自然和谐
语言建构、思维发展、文化传承
概念解读、要点整合、观点推断
定义提炼、分层概括、观点研判
综合 + 拔高
城市生态时政情境
七选五
12.5
36-40
英语写作提升方法
事理说明文
科学学习习惯、持之以恒
语言建构、思维发展
主旨提炼、句间逻辑、衔接判断
篇章结构、逻辑过渡、主题句识别
综合
学习方法指导情境
完形填空
15
41-55
绘画少年突破自卑成长历程
记叙文
自信成长、心理健康、师长引领
四大素养全覆盖
语境辨析、情感梳理、心理推理
实词语境辨析、上下文逻辑、情感线索
综合
青少年心理成长情境
语法填空
15
56-65
中国茶文化起源与中外传播
说明文
中华传统文化、文化自信、文明交流
语言建构、文化传承
语法活用、语篇理解、词性转换
时态、介词、连词、非谓语、名词 / 代词 / 副词变形
综合
传统文化传播情境
应用文写作
15
书面表达 1
课外学习事项优先级征文
议论文短文
劳逸结合、理性规划生活
语言建构、思维发展
观点表达、逻辑说理
议论文结构、句式运用、理由阐述
综合
校园征文任务情境
读后续写
25
书面表达 2
结伴登山误入险路遇险叙事
记叙文续写
安全意识、同伴互助、审慎行事
四大素养全覆盖
情节构思、细节描写、情感升华
场景描写、动作心理刻画、叙事逻辑
创新拔高
户外成长历险情境
版本二:逐题细分多维细目表
第一部分 听力理解(满分 30 分,每题 1.5 分)
题号
分值
语篇类型
话题内容
核心育人价值
考查素养
考查能力
考查知识点
难度
情境类型
1-5
7.5
短对话
日常交际、寻物、籍贯、邻里评价
人际交往、礼貌素养
语言建构、思维发展
细节捕捉、简单预判
交际句型、行为判断
易
生活化交际
6-7
3
长对话
钱款处置、行为选择
责任意识、互助礼貌
语言建构、思维发展
情绪推理、细节理解
情感词汇、叙事逻辑
中
生活事件
8-10
4.5
长对话
家务求助、日常叮嘱
责任意识、家庭相处
语言建构、审美鉴赏
意图判断、细节筛选
情景词汇、因果逻辑
中
生活事件
11-13
4.5
长对话
社区文娱项目利弊讨论
理性思辨、公共意识
语言建构、思维发展
观点辨析、方案提炼
态度词汇、逻辑衔接词
中
社区思辨
14-17
6
长对话
列车出行服务咨询
规则意识、文明出行
语言建构、思维发展
信息筛选、细节归纳
出行类词汇、时间信息
中
社会服务
18-20
4.5
独白
校园环保志愿活动
生态文明、奉献精神
四大素养全覆盖
主旨概括、流程梳理
篇章结构、主旨归纳
中 + 难
社会实践
第二部分 阅读理解(满分 40 分,每题 2.5 分)
A 篇 社区志愿招募(应用文)
题号
分值
体裁
话题
育人价值
考查素养
考查能力
考点
难度
情境
21
2.5
公告类应用文
志愿岗位年龄要求
志愿服务
语言建构、思维发展
信息比对
细节理解
易
社区服务
22
2.5
公告类应用文
志愿岗位工作内容
志愿服务
语言建构、思维发展
内容匹配
细节理解
易
社区服务
23
2.5
公告类应用文
志愿岗位工作时间
志愿服务
语言建构、思维发展
词义辨析 + 细节
语境词义、细节判断
易 - 中
社区服务
B 篇 救助流浪猫(记叙文)
题号
分值
体裁
话题
育人价值
考查素养
考查能力
考点
难度
情境
24
2.5
人物记叙文
救助小猫初始行为
生命关怀
四大素养
时序梳理
细节理解
中
成长德育
25
2.5
人物记叙文
家人反对的原因
生命关怀
四大素养
因果推理
推理判断
中
成长德育
26
2.5
人物记叙文
救助流浪猫的举措
善良品格
四大素养
信息整合
细节概括
中
成长德育
27
2.5
人物记叙文
文章主旨启示
微光价值
四大素养
主旨感悟
主旨推理
中
成长德育
C 篇 手机与睡眠(科普说明文)
题号
分值
体裁
话题
育人价值
考查素养
考查能力
考点
难度
情境
28
2.5
科普说明文
研究结论
健康自律
语言建构、思维发展
观点提取
细节理解
中
健康科普
29
2.5
科普说明文
生词词义猜测
健康自律
语言建构、思维发展
逻辑猜词
词义猜测
中
健康科普
30
2.5
科普说明文
蓝光影响睡眠原理
健康自律
语言建构、思维发展
事理分析
细节理解
中
健康科普
31
2.5
科普说明文
专家建议
自我管理
语言建构、思维发展
对策提炼
细节理解
易
健康科普
D 篇 社区花园(社科说明文)
题号
分值
体裁
话题
育人价值
考查素养
考查能力
考点
难度
情境
32
2.5
社科说明文
社区花园定义
生态文明
语言建构、文化传承
概念解读
细节理解
中
生态时政
33
2.5
社科说明文
花园综合益处
社区共建
语言建构、文化传承
综合推理
推理判断
中+
难
生态时政
34
2.5
社科说明文
花园的环境作用
人与自然和谐
语言建构、文化传承
信息筛选
细节理解
中
生态时政
35
2.5
社科说明文
专家观点推断
城市发展
语言建构、文化传承
观点研判
推理判断
中 + 难
生态时政
第三部分 七选五(12.5 分,每题 2.5 分)
题号
分值
体裁
话题
育人价值
考查素养
考查能力
考点
难度
情境
36-40
12.5
事理说明文
英语写作提升方法
勤学坚持
语言建构、思维发展
衔接判断、主旨提炼
篇章逻辑、过渡句
中
学习指导
第四部分 完形填空(15 分,每题 1 分)
题号
分值
体裁
话题
育人价值
考查素养
考查能力
考点
难度
情境
41-55
15
心理记叙文
学画成长、突破自卑
自信成长、心理健康
四大素养全覆盖
语境辨析、心理推理
动词 / 形容词 / 名词辨析、语篇逻辑
中
青少年成长
第五部分 语法填空(15 分,每题 1.5 分)
题号
分值
体裁
话题
育人价值
考查素养
考查能力
考点
难度
情境
56-65
15
文化说明文
中国茶文化传播
文化自信、文明交流
语言建构、文化传承
语法活用、词性转换
时态、介词、连词、非谓语、名词 / 代词 / 副词变形
中
传统文化
第六部分 书面表达
题型
分值
文体
写作话题
育人价值
考查素养
考查能力
考点
难度
情境
应用文
15
议论文短文
课外事项优先级征文
劳逸结合、合理规划
语言建构、思维发展
观点表达、逻辑写作
短文结构、句式运用
中
校园任务
读后续写
25
记叙文续写
登山遇险、同伴互助
安全意识、审慎行事
四大素养全覆盖
情节创作、细节描写
环境 / 动作 / 心理描写、叙事逻辑
难(创新拔高)
户外历险
学科网(北京)股份有限公司
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