2026年四川省南充市中考英语试题

南充市二○二六年初中学业水平考试 英语听力测试录音材料 第一节（共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下而5段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出 最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间米回答有关小 趣和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1.W:Tom,do you go to school by bus or by car? M:My father bought a new bike for me.I ride it these days. 2.M:Excuse me,could you please tell me the way to the shopping mall? W:Sure.It's on Sunny Street,between the bookstore and the cinema. 3.W:Jack,the weather reporter says it's going to rain heavily this afternoon. M:Rcally?In that casc,I won't practicc football and just stay in. 4.W:I did well on my English exam today.I can't tell you how happy I am. M:Aha.I can see it on your face. 5.M:Dragon Boat Festival is coming.What is your plan for this big day,Linda? W:We're going to have a big dinner.About ten of my family members will come. 第二节（共15小题：每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段长对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个 选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各 个小题，每小题5秒钟：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6至第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读下面两个小题。 W:I watched the new movie Star Wars yesterday M:Oh,what do you think of it? W:Great!The story is fantastic,and the music is amazing,but what I love most is the actors. M:Wow,wonderful!How much is a ticket? W:20 yuan. M:Oh,I sce.I'll book two tickets right now. 听第7段材料，回答第8全第10三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读下面三个小题。 W:Good morning.Can I help you? M:Yes,please.I'm looking for a book for my son's fourteenth birthday. W:Well,this way.Books in this part may suit your son.such as science and technology,Chinese classics,short stories... M:Mm...Chinese classics are his favorite.Oh,what are they doing over there? W:They are sharing their opinions about Journey to the West.We hold this kind of activity for teenagers once a month. M:Good.My son may like it. W:If you become our member,your son can take part in it for free. M:Great.I'll do it now. 英语听力材料第1页（共2页) 听第8段材料，回答第11至第13三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读下面三个小题。 M:Hi,Lily.How are you doing?You are looking pale.Did you stay up late last night? W:No,I have a fever and a sore throat.I feel so weak that I almost can't walk. M:I'm sorry to hear that.Why don't you take some medicine? W:I've tried that.Oh,I heard that you had joined a club to keep fit. M:Yeah,it's a running club.I run with my teammates every day. W:How wonderful!I should follow your example.I am trying to make morning runs a habit,but it's difficult. M:You'd better set a small goal,like running for 20 minutes. W:You do have a point. 听第9段材料，回答第14至第16三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时问阅读下面三个小题。 W:Hi,Mark.How was your volunteer work at the local museum? M:Wonderful.I worked there to introduce the objects to visitors.Others sold tickets,cleaned the hall and hosted activities. W:Sounds interesting.What made you decide to volunteer there? M:Well,you know,I'm interested in history.I thought it would be a good chance to learn more about it. W:I agrce.Did you get any training? M:Of course.The muscum invited some cxperts to teach us. W:That's great.How did the experience influence you? M:I got a strong feeling of satisfaction when I explained to visitors.I have decided to become a history teacher. 听第10段材料，回答第17至第20四个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读下面四个小题。 Thank you for coming.I'm going to give you some information on our camping trip this weekend.The school bus will be at the school gate at 8:30 on Saturday morning and half an hour later,we will leave.We advise you to arrive fiftcen minutes earlier.You have to bring a jacket, because it may be a little cold in the evening.You don't need to bring tents or food,because we'll prepare them for you. Please look at the noticeboard in the entrance hall this Friday,because there may be some changes which I need to tell you.Now,if you have any questions,please meet me in my office after my class. 英语听力材料第2页（共2页) 南充市二○二六年初中学业水平考试 英语参考答案及评分意见 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 1-5 BCCAB 第：节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 6-10 BCABA 11-15 CABCB 16-20ACACB 第二部分：阅读（共三节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题：每小题2分，满分30分） 21-25 CDCAB 26-30 BBCDA 31-35 BDABC 第二节（共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 36-40 AEBDF 第三节（共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 41.How 42.wclcome 43.most 44.popular 45.changc 第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分45分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 46-50 CAABC 51-55 DBCAB 56-60 CCBDA 第二节（共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 61.fourth 62.grew 63.an 64.her 65.but/yct 66.correctly 67.surprising 68.duties 69.of 70.to have 第四部分写作（满分25分） 书面表达参考范文 Summer vacation is a good chance to improve myself.The area I want to improve most is housework. Doing housework can not only develop my independence but also help me build a sense of responsibility. These two reasons guide my improvement plan. To develop my independence,learning to look after myself is useful for my growth.I will make my bed,wash and fold my clothes on my own.To build a sense of responsibility,trying to share different housework is important.Therefore,I plan to help my parents do some housework,such as cooking meals, cleaning the house and watering the flowers. By following the plan,my life skills will be improved step by stcp.I belicve I will be a better self. 英语参考答案第1页（共2页） 一、写作评分原则 1.本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或 调整档次，最后给分。 3.词数少于80，从总分中减去2分。 4.评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连 贯性。 5,拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的·个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、 关拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 6.如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。 二、写作评分标准 完全完成了试题规定的任务。覆盖所有内容要点：应用了较多的语法结 构和词汇：语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构 第五档 21-25分 或较高级词汇所致；具各较强的语言运用能力：有效地使用了语句间的 连接成分，使全义结构紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。 完成了试题规定的任务。覆盖所有主要内容：应用的语法结构和词汇能 满足任务的要求：语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是 第四档 16-20分 因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致：应刑简单的语句间的连接成分，使 全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作日的。 基本完成了试题规定的任务。虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容： 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求：有一些语法结构或词江：方面 第三档 11-15分 的错误，但不影响理解；应用简单的语句问的连接成分，使全文内容连 贯。基本达到了预糊的写作日的。 未适当完成试趣规定的任务。漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一 些无关内容：语法结构单调，词汇知识有限：有一些语法结构或词汇方 第二档 6-10分 面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解：较少使用语句问的连接成分，内 容缺少连贯性。信总未能清楚地传达给读者。 未完成试题规定的任务。明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因 可能是未理解试题要求；语法结构单调，词汇知识有限：较多语法结构 第一档 1-5分 或词汇方面的错误，影响对与作内容的理解：缺乏语句间的连接成分， 内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判：所写内容均与所要求 0分 内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 英语参考答案第2页（共2页) 秘密 解密时间：2026年 6月14日下午3:00 南充市二〇二六年初中学业水平考试 英语试题 注意事项：1．考试时间120分钟，试卷满分150分。 2．答题前将姓名、座位号、身份证号、准考证号填在答题卡指定位置。 3．所有解答内容均须涂、写在答题卡上。 4．选择题须用2B铅笔将答题卡相应题号对应选项涂黑，若需改动，须擦净另涂。 5．非选择题在答题卡对应题号位置用0.5毫米黑色字迹笔书写。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. How does Tom go to school these days? A. B. C. 2. Where is the man going? A. To the bookstore. B. To the cinema. C. To the shopping mall. 3. What is Jack going to do? A. Check the weather. B. Play football. C. Stay at home. 4. How does the woman feel? A. Excited. B. Upset. C. Calm. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. Delicious food. B. A holiday plan. C. Family members. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段长对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6至第7两个小题。 6. What does the woman like most about the movie? A. The story. B. The actors. C. The music. 7. How much will the man pay? A. 10 yuan. B. 20 yuan. C. 40 yuan. 听第7段材料，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Saleswoman and customer. B. Mother and son. C. Teacher and student. 9. What kind of books does the man’s son prefer? A. Science and technology. B. Chinese classics. C. Short stories. 10. What will the man do next? A. Become a member. B. Hold a party. C. Share a book. 听第8段材料，回答第11至第13三个小题。 11. Why is Lily looking pale? A. She has a cough. B. She has a sore back. C. She has a fever. 12. How does the man keep healthy? A. He runs every day. B. He has a healthy diet. C. He walks to work. 13. What does the man advise Lily to do in the end? A. Join a club. B. Set a small goal. C. Find an example. 听第9段材料，回答第14至第16三个小题。 14. What did Mark do at the museum? A. He hosted activities. B. He cleaned the hall. C. He introduced the objects. 15. What did the museum provide for volunteers? A. Free books. B. Some training. C. Art works. 16. What does Mark want to be? A. A history teacher. B. A museum volunteer. C. A chemistry expert. 听第10段材料，回答第17至第20四个小题。 17. When will the school bus leave? A. At 8:30 a.m. B. At 8:45 a.m. C. At 9:00 a.m. 18. What should the listeners bring? A. A jacket. B. Tents. C. Food. 19. What should the listeners do this Friday? A. Ask more questions. B. Discuss in the entrance hall. C. Pay attention to the noticeboard. 20. What is the speaker most probably? A. A tour guide. B. A school teacher. C. A bus driver. 第二部分 阅读（共三节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Li Hua’s study group made a poster about water. Today, they are sharing it in English class. Part 1 How much water do we need to take in every day? 2.7-3.7 litres (L) It takes water to make these things, even though we don’t see water in them. Part 2 Percentage of water on Earth Part 3 Take shorter showers Water plants with grey water Use energy-saving washing machines 21. How much water does a person need to take in every day? A. 0.7-1.6L. B. 1.7-2.6L. C. 2.7-3.7L. D. 3.8-4.7L. 22. Which of the following takes the most water to make? A. A hamburger. B. A shirt. C. I kilo of sugar. D. A pair of shoes. 23. What do we know about fresh water? A. Factories use more fresh water than farms do. B. Fresh water from underground is easy to get. C. Fresh water takes up about 3% of Earth’s water. D. About 2% of the world’s fresh water was used up. 24. What is Part 3 mainly about? A. Suggestions for saving water. B. Reasons for reusing water. C. Ways of getting fresh water. D. Results of wasting water. 25. When is this poster most likely to be used? A. On World Health Day. B. On World Earth Day. C. On World Forest Day. D. On World Food Day. B Are you wondering how chocolate tasting could be a job? Though this job sounds like a joke, chocolate producers do need professional tasters to taste their products. In the process of production, tasters are given samples (样本) of chocolates to taste, tell if there is too much of cocoa (可可粉), sugar or any other ingredient, and give opinions on them honestly. In this way, the taste can be improved to be perfect. In a sense, you could call this professional a Quality Control Manager. To be a professional taster is not easy. The necessary skill that they have is a strong sense of taste and smell. They should have professional knowledge about chocolates. In addition, they might have to work long hours to complete large orders of sample tasting within a certain time. It means that they need to be very patient and have physical strength. The job brings a lot to professional tasters. Cherrie Lo, a professional chocolate taster, gets valuable insights (洞察力) into food cultures by exploring new market trends (趋势) in chocolate. Another taster, Rebecca Hsu, gets paid $21,000 a year, which improves her life greatly. The future of the job is promising. With the growth of technology, this job will be still in high need for the coming years. Workers in this field can expect higher pay and more chances for development. If chocolates are your favorite food and you are willing to center your life around it, why not have it a try? 26. What do chocolate tasters do first during the process of production? A. Prepare samples. B. Taste samples. C. Tell samples. D. Improve samples. 27. Which of the following qualities do chocolate tasters need? A. A strong sense of touch. B. Great patience and physical strength. C. Rich practical experience. D. Professional knowledge of management. 28. How does the writer show the advantages of the job? A. By asking questions. B. By comparing numbers. C. By giving examples. D. By having discussions. 29. What does the underlined word “promising” in paragraph 5 mean? A. Challenging. B. Risky. C. Relaxing. D. Hopeful. 30. What is the writing purpose of the text? A. To introduce a job. B. To sell chocolates. C. To spread the food culture. D. To explore the chocolate market. C Ugochin is a foreign student studying in China. She took part in the show A Foreign Apprentice Comes to the Mountains in Yunhe, Zhejiang Province, to know more about Chinese country life. She fully experienced it in the show. In front of the camera, she worked together with local villagers to dig potatoes, make tofu, catch fish and cook tasty meals. Away from the camera, she was interested in this peaceful country life. Such a life was shaped more by land, weather and old customs rather than busy work. “China’s rural revitalization (乡村振兴) is really amazing.” Ugochin said. In Yunhe, she met local young villagers who had made a big difference. Instead of selling farm produce (农产品) in the old way, they packed it differently to make it look cooler. They also used livestreaming to reach customers across the country. By trying these new methods, they brought fresh energy to their hometown. Apart from new looks in the countryside, Yunhe’s respect for traditions also impressed (留下印象) Ugochin. “This experience tells me that while we push forward rural revitalization, we should also protect old buildings, carry forward history and keep traditional skills alive.” she shared. When the filming ended, Ugochin was not ready to leave the experience behind. She planned to go back to Yunhe and spend more time enjoying the priceless giving of the countryside. She said from the bottom of her heart, “Clear water and green mountains are as valuable as mountains of gold and silver. ▲ ” 31. What does the underlined word “it” refer to in paragraph 1? A. The filming activity. B. The country life. C. The learning method. D. The mountain trip. 32. What did Ugochin do in the show? A. She planted potatoes. B. She took photos. C. She fed fish. D. She made meals. 33. Which word can best describe local young villagers in Ugochin’s eyes? A. Creative. B. Polite. C. Outgoing. D. Humorous. 34. What can we infer from Ugochin’s words in paragraph 4? A. Keeping traditions should be put in the first place. B. Development and tradition should go hand in hand. C. Traditional knowledge is more useful than new ideas. D. Protecting old buildings may slow down development. 35. Which of the following can be put in the ▲ ? A. The countryside needs more money. B. A good environment means a better future. C. China’s countryside is truly a treasure. D. Traditional village life has great value today. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑，选项中有一项为多余选项。 We all answer questions every day. But how do you know if your answer is actually reasonable (合理的)? Here are four simple ways to check. Think about the logic (逻辑) A reasonable answer must follow basic logic. If your answer disagrees with common knowledge, something is probably wrong. For example, if a math problem asks how many apples are in a basket, and you get “-5”, that isn’t reasonable. 36 Always ask yourself, “Does this fit the real world?” Use real-life examples Let’s say you are solving a science question, “Why do we feel cold in winter?” A reasonable answer is, “Because the temperature drops.” Now compare that with an unreasonable answer, “Because the sun gets angry.” The first answer uses facts. 37 When you give an answer, try to connect it to something you have actually seen or experienced. 38 Before you finish, ask yourself, “Is my answer close to what I expected?” Let’s do a quick math check. If you calculate 38×4, and you get 152, that feels right. But if you get 1,520, that is too big. Compare your answer with an estimate (估算). If they are very different, go back and check your work. Ask yourself questions This is the easiest method. Just ask yourself, “Is the answer reasonable?” “Can I explain the answer to a friend?” “Would my teacher accept the answer?” If you can’t explain your answer in simple words, you might not fully understand it yourself. 39 In short, a reasonable answer is logical, factual (事实的), close to your estimate, and easy to explain. 40 You will make fewer mistakes and feel more confident. A. You cannot have negative apples. B. Compare with what you expected. C. Connect to what you’ve already known. D. A good answer should be easy to talk about. E. The second sounds funny but has no science behind it. F. Next time you finish a question, spend seconds checking. 第三节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，完成图表中所缺信息，并将答案写在答题卡相应的横线上，每空限填一词。 Spring is a symbol of new beginning, and spring outings are good chances to get close to nature. Do you know what activities ancient people did during spring outings? As early as the Western Zhou Dynasty, at the beginning of spring, the king led his officials (官员) to a spring-welcoming ceremony, which could be called the earliest national-level “spring launch event”. In the Tang Dynasty, there was an elegant (优雅的) spring game called doubaicao. People collected unusual flowers and grasses, and competed to get the largest number. In the Song Dynasty, activities were mostly centered around Qingming Festival. People connected tomb sweeping with spring outings. They also took part in cuju. Cu means kicking and ju is a kind of leather ball. People kicked the ball through an opening into a net. During the Ming and Qing dynasties, willow-shooting (射柳) was an event of the era. People shot an arrow (箭) through a willow leaf from a hundred steps. Swinging and kite-flying also enjoyed popularity at that time. As time goes by, spring outings today not only inherit (继承) the spirit of ancient traditions, but also have been developing in forms and content. The only thing that doesn’t change is the love and longing for a better life in the hearts of Chinese people. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分45分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A A robotic Tibetan antelope (机器藏羚羊) is now walking around Hoh Xil Nature Reserve (可可西里自然保护区). With 5G networks and AI algorithms (算法), it is used to 46 the latest information about Tibetan antelope populations without bringing trouble to their life. This is the first time that such a robotic antelope has been 47 in the heart of Hoh Xil, which sits more than 4,600 meters above sea level. Its 48 closely matches a real Tibetan antelope, with similar fur color and body shape. So it has mixed with the Tibetan antelopes 49 . The information it sends back is clearer and more dependable than that from traditional ways. For wildlife research and protection, the project is 50 , especially in the most challenging environment on Earth. It’s a key step in exploring nature for human beings. 46. A. hide B. protect C. collect D. copy 47. A. laid B. thrown C. fed D. forgotten 48. A. appearance B. movement C. ability D. personality 49. A. comfortably B. successfully C. luckily D. bravely 50. A. funny B. easy C. meaningful D. changeable B It was the final 800-meter race of the season. I had trained hard all summer, but now, facing my powerful 51 , Sarah Chen, I doubted myself. The starting gun fired. The first lap (圈) felt unexpectedly 52 . But as we turned into the second lap, Sarah was ahead of me a little bit. 53 coach’s words “Run your own race”, I told myself to follow her all the time. 54 , with 200 meters to go, the gap (距离) between Sarah and me became wider. A negative 55 hit me, “You can’t catch her. Second place is okay.” I was about to slow down when my coach shouted at me, “Mia, run. Believe yourself.” Suddenly, something came into my mind — it wasn’t just about winning against Sarah anymore; it was about honoring all those hours of 56 , and about pushing myself forward. I tried my best to run faster and only 57 the finish line. I crossed the line, 58 and tired. Then I heard the announcement, “First place… Mia Johnson!” I was filled with 59 . Sarah finished a second later, and offered a warm smile and a handshake to me. What I learned from the race was more than just how to run faster. I also 60 that my biggest competitor is often myself. So I’ll keep running and never give up. 51. A. host B. coach C. judge D. competitor 52. A. serious B. smooth C. slow D. strange 53. A. Reading B. Recording C. Remembering D. Reporting 54. A. However B. Besides C. Therefore D. Instead 55. A. memory B. idea C. notice D. reply 56. A. interview B. imagination C. practice D. prediction 57. A. made up B. looked around C. focused on D. left out 58. A. careful B. breathless C. scared D. crazy 59. A. kindness B. stress C. regret D. joy 60. A. realized B. warned C. decided D. expected 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案写在答题卡相应的横线上。 In May, 2026, Lai Ka-ying, with her two teammates, took the Shenzhou ⅩⅩⅢ spacecraft to China’s Tiangong space station. She is the 61 (four) Chinese female (女性的) astronaut, and also the first one from Hong Kong to fly into space. Lai was born in November, 1982 and 62 (grow) up in Hong Kong. Before she became 63 astronaut, she worked for the Hong Kong Police Force. In August,2024, she began 64 (she) 1,700-hour training at the Astronaut Center of China in Beijing. The process was difficult, 65 she kept in good condition and worked closely with her teammates. She worked hard to learn how to operate manned spacecraft 66 (correct). Finally, she completed more than 200 subjects with 67 (surprise) performance. In space, Lai will be responsible for different scientific tests and other 68 (duty). Thanks to long-term training and careful preparation, she is full 69 confidence to finish her tasks. Lai Ka-ying’s journey has encouraged many students in Hong Kong 70 (have) a big dream — whether they want to become scientists, engineers, or even astronauts. Her story shows that with hard work and love for the country, big dreams are within reach. 第四部分 写作（满分25分） 暑假是自我提升的好时机。你校英文网站正在开展主题为“Improve Myself, Grow Better”的征文活动，征文通知页面附带一份自我评价量表，供同学们对照自查。请你从中选择自己最需要提升的一个方面，写一篇短文投稿。 Articles Wanted: Improve Myself, Grow Better We’re waiting for your articles! Read the self-check table first and start your writing. Self-check for Personal Improvement How well do you do in these areas? Very well OK Need improvement Doing sports □ □ □ Eating habits □ □ □ Daily reading □ □ □ Volunteer work □ □ □ Housework □ □ □ Art learning □ □ □ Getting on with others □ □ □ Writing points: 1. What do you want to improve most? 2. Why do you want to improve it? 3. How do you plan to improve it? Summer vacation is a good chance to improve myself. ________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ __________________________________________________________________________________________ 要求： 1．词数100左右（短文开头已给出，不计入总词数）： 2．要点齐全，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3．文中不得出现真实人名、校名或地名。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $