2026年安徽省太和县部分校初中学业水平考试 英语试题

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2026-06-14
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学段 初中
学科 英语
教材版本 -
年级 九年级
章节 -
类型 试卷
知识点 -
使用场景 中考复习-三模
学年 2026-2027
地区(省份) 安徽省
地区(市) 阜阳市
地区(区县) 太和县
文件格式 DOCX
文件大小 830 KB
发布时间 2026-06-14
更新时间 2026-06-14
作者 学科网试题平台
品牌系列 -
审核时间 2026-06-14
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价格 2.00储值(1储值=1元)
来源 学科网

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2026年安徽省初中学业水平考试临门一卷 英语 (满分120分,考试时间120分钟) 第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分) Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5 小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What will Jack bring? A. B. C. 2. How does Jimmy go to school today? A. B. C. 3. What club does the boy want to join? A. The dancing club. B. The football club. C. The cooking club. 4. How late is Jenny? A. She’s 50 minutes late. B. She’s 30 minutes late. C. She’s 20 minutes late. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Salesman and customer. B. Driver and passenger. C. Teacher and student. Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5 小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话,回答小题。 6. What kind of volunteer work will Dave do? A. Teach kids English. B. Read stories to kids. C. Clean up the garden. 7. When will Dave do the work? A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Saturday. 听下面一段对话,回答小题。 8. How long did Alice stay at Baishi Mountain? A. For one day. B. For two days. C. For three days. 9. What was Alice’s favorite part? A. Climbing the mountain. B. Trying the glass bridge. C. Riding in the sky. 10. What will Alice show the boy after school? A. Pictures. B. Snacks. C. Postcards. Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. Who helped Rose improve her math? A. Her classmate. B. Her teacher. C. Her friend. 12. How did Rose challenge herself? A. By joining the running race. B. By playing the guitar at the art festival. C. By explaining things to her classmates. 13. Why did Rose join the English club? A. To get good grades. B. To develop her skills. C. To make new friends. 14. What’s Rose like now? A. Kind. B. Confident. C. Patient. 15. What can we learn from Rose’s story? A. Students should develop good habits. B. Friends’ help and personal efforts lead to growth. C. Friendship is more important than winning competitions. Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 A Recycling Program The recycling program is from Class ________, Grade 9. Purpose: To help protect the environment. Acts: Each student in the class collects plastic bottles ________. Their teacher ________ and records the bottles. They make money with these bottles. They will use the money to buy small ________. Meaning: Every bottle they recycle brings us one step closer to a ________ world. 第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分) V.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分) 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. —Do you find it difficult to learn a new ________ like riding a skateboard? —Yes, but we should believe practice makes perfect. A. culture B. instrument C. skill D. language 2. — More and more teenagers are becoming interested in xiangsheng and xiaopin nowadays. — Yeah, that’s because ________ can give people a big laugh. A. all B. both C. none D. neither 3. —I seem to have butterflies in my stomach! —It’s common to feel ________ before making a speech. Just listen to some music to relax. A. strange B. nervous C. calm D. happy 4. — What’s your plan for the weekend? —I ________ go to the science museum, but I’m not sure about it. A. might B. should C. must D. need 5. The 34th Summer Olympic Games ________ in Los Angeles in 2028. It will be the third time for Los Angeles to host the Olympics. A. hold B. are held C. will hold D. will be held 6. —What can I do to ________ my body? —Eat healthily and exercise for an hour every day. A. know B. position C. shape D. feel 7. —Congratulations! Your team won the game at last. —Thank you! We ________ lost it, but we tried our best until the end. A. hardly B. nearly C. actually D. relatively 8. —I heard you joined the school running club, Sally. —Yes. ________ I’m not very fast, I enjoy running with my friends. A. Though B. If C. Unless D. Because 9. —Everyone should ________ their dreams. —Yes. A life without a dream is like a bird without wings. A. stick to B. put up C. give away D. set out 10. —Can we go to Disneyland this summer, Mom? —________, kids. We’re going to see your grandparents in Hefei, and that’s final. A. No problem B. Nothing much C. Not really D. No deal Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分) A 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Mr. Karl Walde was my piano teacher. When I was fourteen, he gave me some ____11____ I would never forget. One day, he asked me how long I ____12____ the piano each day. “Almost all morning,” I replied. “Do you practice for a long time in one go?” he continued. I said yes. Then he said, “As you ____13____, you will have less free time. Start practicing for five or ten minutes whenever you can. Make piano practice a ____14____ of your daily life.” Later, when I taught at a university, I was always ____15____ and thought I had no time for writing. Then I remembered Mr. Walde’s words. The next week, I tried using every short break to write a few lines. To my surprise, by the end of the week, I had finished plenty of pages. From then on, I used this ____16____ for both writing and piano practice. Bit by bit, I discovered short minutes could be enough time if they were added together. The secret was to start quickly. If you only have five minutes, don’t waste four minutes thinking. Instead, be ready and ____17____ right away. Life is made up of minutes and seconds. Although five minutes may seem ____18____, they can even create a strong “gold necklace (项链)” of time. It’s true that he who knows how to use time well will ____19____ find enough time. So, whenever you have a little time—waiting for a friend or during a break— ____20____ it well. Those short moments can open the door to your dreams. 11. A. information B. advice C. courage D. training 12. A. checked B. cleaned C. practiced D. repaired 13. A. cheer up B. hurry up C. give up D. grow up 14. A. part B. tool C. game D. sign 15. A. busy B. serious C. silent D. lonely 16. A. chance B. method C. talent D. material 17. A. finish B. enjoy C. act D. leave 18. A. boring B. short C. enough D. useless 19. A. always B. never C. still D. even 20. A. save B. find C. manage D. reduce B 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Helen, our 91-year-old neighbour, is one of several neighbours that my parents always take good care of. Recently, my dad made it his job to ____21____ Helen’s mailbox, because it was placed down a ____22____ driveway near a very busy highway. Helen ____23____ to have the mailbox near her house, but she did not know where to begin, so my dad took on the ____24____. First, my dad called the local mail service and discussed a better ____25____ for the mailbox with the postman. However, Helen’s house is built of stone, so it was not easy to fix the mailbox on the wall. Luckily, my dad came up with a ____26____ idea. My dad found an old brown milk can at a second-hand store. He filled the milk can with concrete (混凝土) to make it heavy and strong enough to ____27____ the old mailbox. A few days later, the mailbox was ____28____ right by Helen’s front door. Now, Helen can get her mail ____29____ without worrying about the fast traffic or falling down. And the postman can reach the mailbox smoothly without stopping his car. Every time I pass by the thoughtful design from my dad, I am filled with ____30____. And I’ve come to understand that a small caring act can make a difference in people’s lives. 21. A. move B. paint C. recycle D. break 22. A. dirty B. dangerous C. long D. narrow 23. A. failed B. refused C. promised D. expected 24. A. hobby B. result C. challenge D. role 25. A. model B. color C. size D. place 26. A. general B. creative C. risky D. normal 27. A. support B. cover C. push D. hide 28. A. handed out B. taken down C. set up D. locked up 29. A. difficultly B. openly C. safely D. secretly 30. A. worry B. pride C. surprise D. doubt Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Hi, Simon. Tomorrow we will go on our study tour to Jinzhai Revolutionary Memorial Site (金寨县革命纪念地) . ____31____ B: We’re supposed to meet at the school gate at 7:30 in the morning. A: Thank you. ____32____ B: Yes, and don’t forget to take a notebook and a pen. A: ____33____ I’d like to learn more about heroes’ stories. B: I’m also looking forward to the afternoon activity-planting potato plants on a nearby farm. A: I’ve never done that. Is it difficult? B: ____34____ Our teachers will help us step by step. A: That sounds great. ____35____ B: I agree. We can learn about history and understand the value of labour as well. A. I don’t think so. B. See you tomorrow. C. Sure, no problem. D. When and where shall we meet? E. Why do we need to learn about heroes? F. Do we need to wear our school uniforms? G. Tomorrow will surely be a meaningful day. 第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分) Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分) 第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Which is the smartest animal? Chimpanzees (黑猩猩) ·Chimpanzees can beat humans at remembering numbers. ·A chimpanze e knows it can see itself in a mirror. Dolphins(海豚) ·Dolphins love playing. ·They can use tools to protect their noses in the sea. Elephants ·You may have heard the saying that elephants never forget. They really have very good memories. ·They help each other with problems. Crows(乌鸦) ·Crows can solve problems. For example, they drop stones into the glasses to make the water level higher to get the water. ·They can use tools to get food. Other than humans, it’s hard to say which animal is the smartest because each one is smart in different ways. There are several animals in the running for the “smartest animal” prize. Signs of being smart include: ·Knowing themselves in a mirror ·Remembering things ·Solving problems ·Using tools ·Playing Humans do all these things. These animals can do some of them. 36. According to the text, which of the following shows an animal is smart? A. Running very fast. B. Looking like humans. C. Knowing itself in a mirror. D. Storing food in winter. 37. Which animals can be better at remembering numbers than humans? A. Crows. B. Chimpanzees. C. Elephants. D. Dolphins. 38. What can dolphins use tools to do according to the text? A. Protect their noses. B. Get their favorite food. C. Improve their memory. D. Play games with others. B Bertha grew up in a family of teachers in Shillong. From the age of three, she began to fall down often. Later at school, her classmates laughed at her, calling her “bottle-bottom”. In fact, she had a serious eye condition that slowly caused her to lose her sight. Yet, in her studies, she shone brightly. She skipped two grades. As a young woman, Bertha worked hard and got a master’s degree. Full of hope, she went to a government job interview. The interviewer placed a book in front of her and said, “Read this.” Bertha had to answer, “I can’t see.” She did not get the job. Back in Shillong, with her world completely dark, she felt lost. To make a living, she taught English to children in her neighbourhood. Then, a change came. The very doctor who treated her years earlier was starting a small school for blind children. He remembered Bertha’s bright mind and asked for her help. Bertha agreed. The school opened with just eight students. People wondered, “How can a blind woman teach blind children?” But Bertha decided to learn. She received special training in Braille (盲文) . When she returned to the school, her headmaster gave her an important task: to create a Braille system for their local Khasi language. There had been no such system before. Bertha worked day and night with teachers and students. Within a year, she made it. For the first time, blind children in her community could read their own language. Looking back on her difficult journey, Bertha often shares her advice. “You may fail in something,” she says. “Don’t complain (抱怨) about the world. Work with it. That is how the world changes.” 39. What happened to Bertha when she was three? A. She went to the doctor for help. B. She received special training in Braille. C. She was made fun of by her classmates. D. She began to have problems with her eyes. 40. What does the underlined word “skipped” mean in Paragraph 2? A. Held back. B. Pushed down. C. Jumped ahead. D. Dropped behind. 41. Put the events about Bertha into the correct order according to the text. a. Bertha got a master’s degree. b. Bertha created the Khasi Braille system. c. Bertha taught English in her neighbourhood. d. Bertha accepted her doctor’s invitation. e. Bertha failed the government job interview. A. c-a-e-d-b B. a-c-e-b-d C. c-e-a-d-b D. a-e-c-d-b 42. What does the text want to tell us? A. It is normal to have ups and downs in life. B. Complain less and work harder when facing problems. C. Believing in yourself is the most important thing in life. D. Blind people can also do well in their studies or work. C In a video, its creator says, “Tomorrow, you are turning Chinese.” She then lists some Chinese lifestyles. The fun “prediction (预言)” becomes popular quickly around the world. It gets many likes and makes a hot hashtag (主题标签): #Becoming Chinese. Building on the post, foreign bloggers (博主) have increasingly shared their own videos under the hashtag, showing their “Chinese-style” living. These videos are about small but important lifestyle changes, such as drinking warm water instead of iced drinks, practicing Baduanjin, and preparing basic Chinese dishes. Viewers love these videos because they think the practices are healthy and fun. The trend (趋势) goes beyond cultural exchanges; it shows a growing interest in Chinese lifestyle values. The “Becoming Chinese” fever has shown that China is no longer known only for things like kung fu and qipao. The trend has led more international followers to live a Chinese lifestyle and even visit China. For example, in an ancient city in Fujian Province, two foreign tourists said, “The traditional Chinese clothes are very beautiful and the people here are very friendly. We all like the city very much.” They explained that they saw the zanhua and the famous Wuyi tea of Fujian in a Chinese blogger’s video, so they decided to come and try them themselves. China’s soft power has improved greatly in the world. It is not achieved by accident, but comes from many efforts from different fields. 43. What does the underlined sentence “Tomorrow, you are turning Chinese.” in Paragraph 1 mean? A. Foreigners will visit China soon. B. Foreigners will become real Chinese. C. Foreigners will try Chinese lifestyles. D. Foreigners will learn the Chinese language. 44. What might you see in a foreign blogger’s video according to the text? A. B. C. D. 45. What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 3 refer to? A. The ancient cities in China. B. The Chinese kung fu and qipao. C. The zanhua and Wuyi tea of Fujian. D. The beautiful traditional Chinese clothes. 46. What will the writer probably discuss after the last paragraph? A. The challenges China faces in the future. B. China’s standing in soft power in the past. C. Steps China has taken to improve its soft power. D. How other countries influence China’s soft power. D Do you like flying kites on windy days? The wind lifts kites high, dries clothes, and carries seeds. All these show the power of wind. Wind power is a kind of energy that comes from strong winds. People used it long ago to drive sailboats. They also built windmills (风车) and used them for getting water. Today, wind power can be used to produce electricity. Electricity powers many things in our homes, such as lights and fridges. However, wind power is only a small part of the energy people use around the world. So where does most of our energy come from now? The answer is fossil fuels (化石燃料). They are made from the remains of things that lived millions of years ago. People burn fossil fuels to produce energy. A power plant, for example, burns coal to produce electricity. After fossil fuels are used up, they are gone for ever-that’s why we call them nonrenewable resources (不可再生资源). Wind power is a renewable resource. Wind does not stop blowing after it is used for producing energy. Moreover, it is a clean energy source that does not cause pollution. As one of the fastest-growing renewable energy sources, wind may be one important energy source in the future. Energy from water and the sun might also help reduce our need for fossil fuels. Using these renewable energy sources will help make our planet a cleaner place to live! 47. What did people use wind power to do long ago? A. Drive sailboats. B. Produce electricity. C. Build windmills. D. Light rooms. 48. What is the writer’s purpose in writing this text? A. To explain how windmills are used. B. To tell people not to use fossil fuels. C. To teach people how to produce electricity. D. To introduce wind power and its importance. 49. Where is the text most probably from? A. A history textbook. B. A science magazine. C. A sports newspaper. D. A travel guidebook. E Body image (形象) is about how we see and feel about our body, and how we think others see us. Sometimes, we might feel good about our body, while other times we might feel sad or worried. These thoughts and feelings are often influenced by what’s happening around us. The media often shows only one type of body as “fit and healthy”. Friends or family might give negative comments (评论) about our body. Clothes in shops sometimes only fit certain body types. Advertisements encourage dieting and weight loss. If you find yourself comparing your body to what you see every day, you’re not alone. What should you do if you worry too much about your body image? Some suggestions can help you get through this. Be kind to yourself and try not to judge (评判) yourself by comparing yourself to the images you see in the media. These images are often changed to make them look “perfect”, and they don’t show what people look like in real life. Spend time with people who make you feel good. It might also be helpful to write down the nice things people say to you. Don’t just write down what people say about your looks. Remember, people value you for lots of reasons. If bad feelings do not go away, there are always people you can turn to for help, such as your parents, teachers, or doctors. Keep in mind that beauty comes in different shapes and sizes and value yourself for who you are. 50. What does Paragraph 2 mainly talk about? A. Causes of body image worries. B. Opinions on how to keep fit. C. Different body images shown in the media. D. Health problems caused by weight loss. 51. What does the writer suggest to feel better about ourselves? ①Avoiding unnecessary social activities. ②Writing down kind comments about us. ③Asking for help when we feel bad. ④Spending time with people who make us feel good. A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ②③④ D. ①③④ 52. What is the best title (标题) for the text? A. You Are What You Eat B. All Bodies Are Beautiful C. How to Lose Weight D. Positive Comments Are Valuable 第二节 F 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题 (请注意每小题的词数要求)。 I was playing on a homemade swing (秋千). I felt mad at my brother David. He called me a “big baby” at the breakfast table. “He hates me,” I said to myself, “just because I took the last cake under his nose!” The swing carried me up so high that I could see far. Some birds were singing and my red sweater was bright in the morning sunlight. I decided to forget my anger and started to sing a song. However, the red sweater was noticed by a huge bull (公牛) on a hill behind the swing. He lowered his head and ran toward it. At that time, David was feeding the chickens. He took a look around and saw me on the swing. Then suddenly he saw the bull rushing across the field, heading straight for me. Worried about my safety, David shouted loudly, “Get out of there! Run!” I didn’t hear him. The bull was closing in fast. The situation was dangerous. David ran quickly toward me. He stopped the swing and threw me to the ground just before the bull could hit me. Then he pulled off my red sweater, threw it far away, and carried me to a safe place. He was braver than ever before. Since that day, I just laugh when my brother calls me a “big baby”. He can’t fool me—I know___53___ 53. Why did the writer feel mad at her brother?(不超过15个词) ____________________________________________________________ 54. What drew the bull’s attention?(不超过5个词) ____________________________________________________________ 55. What would the writer say at the end of the text?(不超过10个词) ____________________________________________________________ 第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分) IX.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。 56. It’s a good habit to w_______ (洗) your hands carefully before eating. 57. In order to improve this machine, the engineer studied many r_______ (报告) . 58. Those old textbooks can be r_______ (再次使用) by lower-grade students. 59. The w_______ (获胜者) never gave up, so he beat others at last. 60. Confucius was a great teacher and his w_______ (明智的) sayings have influenced many people. X.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分) 61. 假如你是李辉,你们班新来的英国交换生Mike酷爱运动。你校将于下周六举办一场趣味篮球赛。请你根据以下要点,用英语给Mike写一封电子邮件,邀请他参加比赛。 要点如下:1.发出邀请; 2.告知比赛信息; 3.表达期望。 注意:1.邮件须包含以上所有要点,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯; 2.邮件中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称; 3.词数80—100(邮件的开头及结尾已给出,不计入总词数)。 Dear Mike, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I’m sure you’ll enjoy it. I’d love to play with you! Let me know if you can come. Yours, Li Hui 2026年安徽省初中学业水平考试临门一卷 英语 (满分120分,考试时间120分钟) 第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分) Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5 小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What will Jack bring? A. B. C. 2. How does Jimmy go to school today? A. B. C. 3. What club does the boy want to join? A. The dancing club. B. The football club. C. The cooking club. 4. How late is Jenny? A. She’s 50 minutes late. B. She’s 30 minutes late. C. She’s 20 minutes late. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Salesman and customer. B. Driver and passenger. C. Teacher and student. Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5 小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话,回答小题。 6. What kind of volunteer work will Dave do? A. Teach kids English. B. Read stories to kids. C. Clean up the garden. 7. When will Dave do the work? A. On Thursday. B. On Friday. C. On Saturday. 听下面一段对话,回答小题。 8. How long did Alice stay at Baishi Mountain? A. For one day. B. For two days. C. For three days. 9. What was Alice’s favorite part? A. Climbing the mountain. B. Trying the glass bridge. C. Riding in the sky. 10. What will Alice show the boy after school? A. Pictures. B. Snacks. C. Postcards. Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. Who helped Rose improve her math? A. Her classmate. B. Her teacher. C. Her friend. 12. How did Rose challenge herself? A. By joining the running race. B. By playing the guitar at the art festival. C. By explaining things to her classmates. 13. Why did Rose join the English club? A. To get good grades. B. To develop her skills. C. To make new friends. 14. What’s Rose like now? A. Kind. B. Confident. C. Patient. 15. What can we learn from Rose’s story? A. Students should develop good habits. B. Friends’ help and personal efforts lead to growth. C. Friendship is more important than winning competitions. Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 A Recycling Program The recycling program is from Class ________, Grade 9. Purpose: To help protect the environment. Acts: Each student in the class collects plastic bottles ________. Their teacher ________ and records the bottles. They make money with these bottles. They will use the money to buy small ________. Meaning: Every bottle they recycle brings us one step closer to a ________ world. 第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分) V.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分) 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】C 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】A 【5题答案】 【答案】D 【6题答案】 【答案】C 【7题答案】 【答案】B 【8题答案】 【答案】A 【9题答案】 【答案】A 【10题答案】 【答案】D Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分) A 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. B 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. C B 【21~30题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. B Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. D 32. F 33. C 34. A 35. G 第三部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分) Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分) 第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【36~38题答案】 【答案】36. C 37. B 38. A B 【39~42题答案】 【答案】39. D 40. C 41. D 42. B C 【43~46题答案】 【答案】43. C 44. A 45. C 46. C D 【47~49题答案】 【答案】47. A 48. D 49. B E 【50~52题答案】 【答案】50. A 51. C 52. B 第二节 F 【53~55题答案】 【答案】53. Because he called me a “big baby” for taking the last cake. 54. The red sweater./The writer’s red sweater. 55. he loves me./he cares about me./...(答案不唯一,言之有理即可) 第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分) IX.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。 【56题答案】 【答案】wash##ash 【57题答案】 【答案】reports##eports 【58题答案】 【答案】reused##eused 【59题答案】 【答案】winner##inner 【60题答案】 【答案】wise##ise X.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分) 【61题答案】 【答案】One possible version: Dear Mike, Hope this email finds you well. I’m writing to tell you that our school will hold a fun basketball game next Saturday. I know you love sports, so I think you might be interested in it. The game will take place on the school playground from 2:00 to 4:00 in the afternoon. It’s not a serious competition, just a friendly match among students. What’s more, there will be some small games during the breaks. The winner of each game will get a lovely gift. I think it’ll be a great chance to meet new friends. I’m sure you’ll enjoy it. I’d love to play with you! Let me know if you can come. Yours, Li Hui 第1页/共1页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $

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2026年安徽省太和县部分校初中学业水平考试 英语试题
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2026年安徽省太和县部分校初中学业水平考试 英语试题
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2026年安徽省太和县部分校初中学业水平考试 英语试题
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