2026年福建省中考英语自编模拟卷（福州江南水都中学）

**基本信息** 融合时代热点与文化传承，梯度设计考查语言能力与思维品质，适配中考模拟需求。 **题型特征** |题型|题量/分值|知识覆盖|命题特色| |----|-----------|----------|----------| |完形填空|10/15|词汇辨析、语篇理解|以马拉松运动员冯培友事迹为素材，渗透拼搏精神，考查上下文逻辑| |阅读理解|25/45|细节查找、推理判断、主旨归纳|涵盖厨房安全（A篇）、儿童文学创作（B篇）、蜜蜂智能研究（C篇）等，兼具生活实用性与科学探究性| |短文填空|10/10|语法运用、文化词汇|围绕“侨批”文化，考查动词时态、介词搭配等，强化家国情怀| |书面表达|1/15|邮件写作、活动介绍|以“AI Explore Day”为主题，要求说明目的、安排并邀请，提升语言综合运用能力|

2026年福建省命卷比赛作品 2026年福建省中考英语自编模拟卷 （考试时间：120分钟试卷满分：150分) 友情提示：请将所有答案填写到答题卡上与题号相对应的答题区域内！ I.听力（共三节，20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分） 第一节听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相关的选项。（每个句 子读两遍) 1. A B. 2. A 不 A B. 4. 夕 C 5. A B 第二节听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍） 听第1段对话，回答第6小题。 6.Whose watch is this? A.Jack's. B.Bob's. C. Li Wei's. 听第2段对话，回答第7小题。 7.Where are the speakers now? A.In a bookstore. B.In a supermarket. C.In a clothing store. 1/10 听第3段对话，回答第8小题。 8.How often does the man make a tour A.Once a year. B.Twice a year C. Three times a year. 听第4段对话，回答第9小题。 9.When will they go to the museum? A.Friday evening. B Saturday morning. Saturday afternoon. 听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。 10.What is the weather like now? A.Rainy. B.Sunny. C. Cloudy. 11.What will they probably do next? A.Play chess. B.Read books. C. Fly kites. 听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。 12.What will the man watchtonight A.Chinese art show.B.Indian art show. C. African art show. 13.How much will the man pay in total? A.30 dollars. B.108 dollars. C 120 dollars. 听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。 14.What's the relationship between the speakers? A.Strangers. B.Classmates. c Workmates. 15.What are the speakers mainly talking about? A.The dumpling competition. B.The delicious food. C. The New Year plan 第三节听下面短文，根据你所听到的内容，完成以下表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍） Notice Topic School Music Festival Preparation Time Next 16 Group 1 Take care of the 17 Group 2 18 and tidy the hall. Tasks Group 3 Carry all the 19 musical instruments. Group 4 Welcome 20 honored guests. II.选择填空（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分) 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。 21.China will probably launch Chang'e 7 August,2026. A.on B.in C.at 22.Many people learn skills by_ through online courses. A.themselves B.them C.they 23.Paper-cutting plays an important part in spreading Chinese A.habit B.invention C.culture 24.A great number of ancient Chinese buildings wereby Lin Huiyin and Liang Sicheng in the 1930s. A.produced B.protected C.provided 25.Qunzhong Road is one of the roads in our city in the rush hours. A.longest B.busiest C.widest 2/10 26.-My grandma can't use mobile payment to take a bus. -Don't worry.We can her how to use it step by step. A.ask B.teach C.give 27.Our school has made safety rules,and of the students must follow them A.all B.both C.either 28.-Do you still work on your volunteer project? -Yes.So far,we over fifty elderly people A.help B.helped C.have helped 29. It's necessary for teenagers to learn how to spend lucky time A.hardly B.freely C.wisely 30.She didn't make the mistake It was just an accident. A.on purpose B.in surprise C.by chance 31.Happiness shared with others is better than happiness enjoyed by a person. A.single B.similar C.simple 32.-I always feel nervous about my study. —Take it easy and keep working hard for your dream A.Look out B.Cheer up C.Take away 33.It took Tom two years Beijing Opera to prepare for the show. A.to learn B.to enjoy C.to watch 34. We shouldn't waste food, it's hard for farmers to grow rice and vegetables A.once B.unless C.because 35. -The 2026 World Cup is coming soon.Could you tell me -In the USA,Canada and Mexico. A.when it will start B. where it will be held C. what the host cities are Ⅲ.（原创）完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。 At the Tokyo Marathon on March 1st this year,24-year-old Feng Peiyou set a new national record with a time of 2:05:58,becoming the first Chinese runner to finish a marathon in less than 2 hours and 6 minutes. Born in the mountainous area of Guizhou,Feng Peiyou never 36 that he had a talent for running.Many kids from the mountains could run well,and he was only a little faster than most of them 37 In the autumn of 2016,when he was 15,Feng got into the Zunyi Sports School.He worked hard for two years before38 the Guizhou provincial team.Training at the provincial team was much 39 than at the sports school.He often felt tired out after running practices, 40 he never gave up and kept practicing. In 2021,Feng competed in his first official marathon in Huai'an,Jiangsu,finishing second behind rising Chinese star He Jie.At the 2023 Wuxi Marathon,Feng clocked 2:09:21_41 becoming the first Chinese athlete bom after 2000 to run a marathon under 2 hours and 10 minutes.He also 42 the 16-year-old national record and achieved a big victory in the same race. Knowing the importance of stamina (in the second half of the marathon,Feng focused on targeted training,and his efforts 43.At the Tokyo Marathon,he kept a regular pace even in the last 10 kilometers. His new record 44 the Chinese men's marathon into the"2:05 era". In 2026,Feng Peryou won all three national marathons he entered."This is not the finishing line,"Feng's 3/10 coach Zou Leilei told CCTV."We have made our training plan and are working toward the next45,Asian Games in September." 36.A.thought B.guessed C.doubted 37.A.in need B.in the beginning C.in a hurry 38. A.leaving B.coming C.joining 39.A.faster B.harder C.easier 40.A.and B.so C.but 41.A.carefully B.successfully C.suddenly 42.A.broke B.kept C.got 43.A.gaveup B.ran out C.paid off 44.A.led B.made C.stepped 45.A.test B.goal C.prize IV.阅读理解（共两节，25小题；满分45分） 第一节阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（共 20小题：每小题2分，满分40分) A Home Safety Rules Kitchen Safety www.i21st.cn Q Kitchen Safety Rules 三3 ●Prepar atio: Always wash your hands before and after touching food. Tie back long hair. ※Wear an apron(围裙)and roll up your sleeves(挽起袖子). ●Cleaning: Keep food preparation surfaces clean. Wash fruit and vegetables under cold water before use Always ask an adult before using knives or going near hot things. ※Use knives and other sharp(尖锐的)tools with care. 米Don't put tools on the edge(边缘)of the work table.. When using a knife,always cut away from yourself to avoid cutting yourself. Use oven gloves when taking hot dishes from the oven or microwave. ●Special attention: ※Clean food spills(谥出)as soon as they happen.. Do not run around the kitchen where food is being prepared. 4/10 46.Which of the following is suggested before touching food? A.Wear an apron. B.Wash your sleeves. C.Clean your hands D.Clean food spills. 47. You should ask your parents before you A.use oven gloves B.pour out boiling water C.wash fruit and vegetables D.put things into a microwave 48.Which of the following can be put in 52 A.Tools B.Hot things C.Tables D.Vegetables 49. Which of the following is correct in the kitchen? A.Tie your long hair back before cooking. B.Cut towards yourself to get a clean cut. C.Run around the kitchen when cooking. D.Put your favourite knife on the edge of the table. 50. Where can you most probably find the poster?() A.In a storybook. B.In a report. C.On a website. D.On a notice board. B(原创) Malia Maunakea is a famous children's author from Hawaii,USA.She is well-known for her stories that combine (Hawaiian traditional culture with modern adventures SHARK )Recently,she accepted an interview and shared her new book The Shark Prince. Reporter:What inspired (you to write your new book The Shark Prince? Malia:I talked with some students about local Hawaiian legends not long ago.They asked me a creative question-"What if a shark prince turned into a human?" This question touched me deeply and stayed in my mind.Slowly,the whole story of The Shark Prince was formed based on this idea. Reporter:Could you tell us the main story of the book? Malia: Sure.It is an exciting adventure story full of Hawaiian mythology ()In the book,a young shark prince became a human boy.He left the sea and came to live on land.Life on land was totally new and challenging for him.He had to learn human living skills,made new human friends,and most importantly,he must keep his true identity a secret. Reporter:Did reading influence you a lot when you were young? Malia:Certainly.I was a big fan of reading as a child.I read all kinds of books,especially adventure stories and books about Hawaiian culture.Reading opened up new worlds for me.It not only enriched (my knowledge but also greatly encouraged me to create my own stories. Reporter:What do you want your readers to learn from your works? Malia:I hope my books can pass on positive values to young readers.I wish kids could learn to respect nature, be independent,and believe in themselves.I want to spread this idea through my books. Up to now,The Shark prince has won great popularity among young readers because of its lively characters and wonderful plots(情节). 51.What makes Malia's stories special? A.Talk about local students B.Use the simple language C.Mix culture and adventure D.Help protect the nature 52.Where did Malia get the inspiration for her new book? A.Students'doubt B.Daily reading C.Sea travelling D.Local stories 53. What challenged the Shark Prince most on land? A.Becoming a human boy B.Hiding his real identity C.Teaching kids living skills D.Having no friends 5/10 54.What do we know about Malia? A.She wants to teach kids to make new friends. B.She creates stories to enrich her spare time. C.She is not fond of creating cultural stories. D.She is influenced by reading and writing. 55.What does Malia think of writing children's books? A.It spreads positive values. B.It wins more readers'favor. C.It satisfies personal interest. D.It develops kids'living skills. c(原创) In April 2025,it was reported that U.S.beekeepers lost 55%of bees,which was the worst loss ever.Kirby's honeybees,.however,,are thriving(生机勃勃的).She avoids chemicals used against varroa mites(瓦螨).Her instructions were leaving bees alone to solve challenges,because they can really work things out. There was a time when scientists believed that the brain of a bee was too tiny to think.However,in recent years,thanks to several creative studies,scientists have learned more about bees.And the results have found that bees are much smarter than almost any one imagined. Researcher Lars Chittka designed a study,placing a row of tent-shaped landmarks,with a feeder between the third and fourth landmarks.Once bees were familiar (with the place,the number of landmarks was changed. If bees met more landmarks than during training,they landed at a shorter distance.If they met fewer landmarks, they flew further.That is,the bees still searched after the third tent.They seemed to count the landmarks they passed. After that,Chittka's team was encouraged to explore even deeper into how clever bees are.In another study. they placed a plastic flower with sugar water under a clear cover.They showed bees how to pull the flower closer by using a string ()The bees quickly worked it out.Then untrained bees watched trained bees pull the string. The watching bees learned,and soon they showed other bees.The study suggested bees recognize cause and effect -how pulling a string can produce a treat-and show social learning. Scientists have realized how greatly we've underestimated (their tiny brains.A bee's job is to learn its world,and perhaps our job as humans is to support bees in their process of learning and adaptation."Humans need to learn to listen to the bees around them,"says Kirby."I always feel like the bees still have so much more to teach US."> 56.What did Kirby do according to Paragraph 1? A.Protected honeybees with chemicals. B.Left bees alone to face challenges C.Suffered the worst loss ever. D.Solved the bee loss problem. 57.How does the writer organize Paragraph 2? A.By listing reasons. B.By asking questions. C.By giving examples D.By comparing opinions 58.According to the study in paragraph 3,which picture shows a possible result? feeder feeder A AOAAA 100m 100m A B feeder feeder A 100m 100m C D 6/10 59.What does the underline word"it"refer to in Paragraph 4? A.Learn from each other. B.Get the treat by pulling a string. C.Find the flower under the cover. D.Drink sugar water without training. 60.Which would be the best title for the passage? A.The loss of bees B.The study of bees C.The secrets of bees D.The protection of bees D(原创) As the saying goes,we can choose our friends but not our family.Our parents provide the genetic material and make powerful early role models,but even more influential in determining (what kind of adult we will become are our brothers and sisters-our siblings. A new research by Dr Gene Brody found that having older children who do well in school and are well liked by other children increases parents'pride.This positive mood will make parents raise their younger children in a more patient and active way.As a result, younger siblings are less likely to have behavioral problems.On the other hand,if the first child is difficult to educate,the whole family may stay nervous and unpleasant for a long time. International sports star Piri Weepu is a well-known rugby (player.His elder brother often trained and challenged him when he was only four years old,which aimed to make him stronger.It seemed to work:Piri followed his brother in playing rugby before he even started school.During childhood,siblings interact with each other.Together with family education,genetic factors (and personal characters,these interactions finally shape who we are. However,the research shows that being Mummy or Daddy's favourite has its own downsides.If you were the easy-going child at home,you're probably good at pleasing parents and later,bosses.But you might,as an adult, find it hard to be confident with people in power.On the other hand,the sibling who is naughty as a child may be able to change that role later,turning those shortcomings (into strengths like determination and leadership. Nowadays,most families are smaller than before.The sibling relationship has become closer than that in large families.Brothers and sisters know each other very well and are more likely to keep lifelong friendship.Unlike kids from big families who may lose touch with their siblings after growing up,most modern siblings can support and accompany(倍伴)each other for a lifetime. 61.How does a successful first child benefit their younger siblings? A.By asking teachers for help. B.By teaching them good behavior. C.By competing for parents'attention. D.By increasing parents'pride and patience. 62.What was Piri Weepu's elder brother like according to paragraph 3? A.He was a famous rugby player. B.He often trained and pushed Piri. C.He stopped Piri from playing rugby. D.He was gentle and never challenged Piri. 63.What does the underlined word"downsides"in paragraph 4 mean? A.negative parts B.lower positions C.useful methods D.final results 7/10 64.What would be the best structure of the passage? 1 1 5 0 65.What's the main idea of the passage? A.Family size changes people's living habits. B.Sibling relationship solves teenage problems. C.Siblings influence personal growth in many ways D.Children's future jobs depend on family education. 第二节阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、 连贯，意思完整。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） E(原创) World Water Day on 22 March reminds us of the importance of water.But did you know water also keeps your mind healthy? ● 66 Whether you walk by a river or sit at the beach,you see waves,hear them crash(),and feel cool water on your feet.There is something peaceful about being close to water.Scientists call these places"blue space,which means the sea,lakes,rivers,even spring.Humans have lived near water for a long time,so it feels safe to us. o Find the benefits of water Blue spaces help you relax and focus.Watching ripples in water can calm your thoughts.67 Studies show that people often feel happier when they live close to the coast.Some research even suggests that breathing sea air is good for your physical health. 68 ●Connect with water 69 You can relax in a bath and feel rain on your skin.If you don't like getting wet,sit indoors by the window.Pick two raindrops and watch them race to the bottom. 70 Because seeing such a huge blue space helps you think your problems are smaller. A.Sitting on the beach can help you let go of worries. B.Water can improve your creativity as well,like in the shower C.You don't need to live by the sea to connect with water. D.The sound of rushing water helps you sleep. E.Feel water with your senses V.情景交际（共5小题：每小题2分，满分10分） 根据情景提示，用得体的英语完成下列对话。 71.-Nice to meet you! 72.-Which season do you like best,spring,summer,fall or winter? 73 have you been like this,sir? -For 3 days. 74 -It's June 9th today. 75. in your free time? I often go swimming in my free time. 8/10 V1.看图写话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。 040℃ ⊕ 6●0 76.in front of 77.taste 78.yesterday 79.next weekend 80.while VII.短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）（原创） 阅读下面短文，根据语境或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个适当的单词，要求所填的词意义 准确、形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。 Dear You,a low-budget film has become one of China's most unexpected box-office successes this year.The 81(move)film has offered us a look into the nearly forgotten world of qiaopi. 泉州府 洋 n Fujian and Guangdong dialects(方言)，“pi'82_(mean)letter.Qiaopi is 83 special kind of family letter with money sent by overseas Chinese to their families 拾 溪 back home in the 19th and 20th centuries. 吉 湖 At that time,many people from China's coastal areas left for Southeast Asia to make a 隆 坡 living,which was84(know)as the wave of"Going to Nanyang."Working hard in 鄉 可 a foreign land,these overseas Chinese always had their families in their 85 (heart). Though they had a hard life abroad,they still saved every coin to send back home.Besides, 福 林 the qiaopi expressed care for aging parents,worries over children's 86(educate), and words of longing between husbands 87 wives separated by oceans. These letters carried something 88(large)than that as well.During the Anti-Japanese War,overseas Chinese sent money to help save China.In hard times,huge amounts of money sent back were used to make great contributions 89 the nation's development.From 1864 to 1980,the money from overseas Chinese totaled about $10.8 billion. In 2013,UNESCO added the qiaopi archives (to its Memory of the World Register."It represents the Chinese people,Chinese culture,Chinese spirit and Chinese heart."President Xi said in 2020 after 90 (visit) a qiaopimuseum in Shantou. 9/10 Ⅷ.书面表达（满分15分） 91.假定你是某校学生李华，近日你校计划举办“AI Explore Day”的主题活动，请你结合以下图示，用 英语给笔友Hey写一封电子邮件，说明活动目的，介绍活动安排并邀请他来参加活动。词数80左右。 listen to a speech have a discussion Al Explore Day Time:9:00a.m.-16:30p.m. June 12th Purpose:… experience Al learning 注意事项： 1.必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥，开头已给出，不计入总词数： 2.意思清楚，表达通顺，行为连贯，书写规范： 3.请勿在文中使用真实的姓名和校名。 Dear Henry, How is everything going?Knowing that you're interested in AI, Yours, Li hua 卷尾语 初三英语适应性练习圆满结束！ 朝夕勤学终有所获！ 祝同学们：落笔生花，金榜题名！ 10/10 英语听力材料 这是2026年九年级英语适应性练习听力部分，该部分共三节。注意回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力考试结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案填涂到答题卡上。 现在是听力试音时间，请各考场根据试音情况将音量调整到最佳状态。 W: Hi, John! What's your plan for the new school term? M: I'm not sure. My parents ask me to focus on study, but I'd like to join a club. W: Which club would you like to join? M: I have no idea. I just want to relax, because I feel tired these days. What about you, Tina? W: I plan to join a sports club, then I will take a lesson to learn to dance. M: Sounds great. 试音到此结束，听力考试正式开始。请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面五个单句，从各小题所给的三幅图中选出与所听到的句子内容相关的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每个句子后，你都有五秒的时间作答和阅读下一小题，每个句子读两遍。 1. M: She often goes to school by bike. W: She often goes to school by bike. 2. W: They like playing basketball in the gym. M: They like playing basketball in the gym. 3. M: My father is a doctor in the hospital. W: My father is a doctor in the hospital. 4. W: It’s not allowed to park here. M: It’s not allowed to park here. 5. M: I was doing the dishes when my mom came back. W: I was doing the dishes when my mom came back. 第二节，听下列七段对话，根据你所听内容选择正确答案。共两节，请听第一节，听下列四段对话。每段对话后有一个问题，从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有五秒时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话读两遍。 听第一段对话完成第6 小题。 W: Jack, the watch looks so nice. Is it yours or Li Wei’s? M: Neither. It’s Bob’s. 听第二段对话完成第 7 小题。现在你有五秒的时间来阅读这个小题。 M: Excuse me, can I try on this pair of pants? W: Sure. The fitting room is over there. 听第三段对话完成第 8 小题。现在你有五秒的时间来阅读这个小题。 M: How often do you make a tour, Grace? W: I often travel three times a year. M: Sounds great. I only do it once a year. 听第四段对话完成第 9 小题。现在你有五秒的时间来阅读这个小题。 W: Dad, can we go to the museum this Saturday? M: I have a meeting in the morning.What about the afternoon? W: OK, and I’ll finish my homework on Friday evening. M: That’s great. 请听第二节。听下列三段对话，每段对话后有两个问题，从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有五秒时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。听第五段对话完成第 10 、11 小题。现在你有十秒的时间来阅读这两个小题。 M: The radio says it’s sunny today. Would you like to fly a kite with me? W: I’d love to, but look at the dark clouds. I think it’s going to rain soon. M: Let’s make it another day. Shall we read the book together? W: I’m afraid not. I’ve just read it. M: What about playing chess? W: Sounds great! It’s my favorite activity. 听第六段对话完成第 12 、13 小题。现在你有十秒的时间来阅读这两个小题。 M: Hello! I'd like to book tickets for the Chinese art show tonight. W: Sorry, it's put off till tomorrow. We have an Indian art show and an African art show today. M: What time does the Indian art show start? W: It starts at 7 p.m. M: How much is the ticket? W: 30 dollars each. M: I'll take four tickets. W: All right. 听第七段对话，完成第 14 、15 小题。现在你有十秒的时间来阅读这两个小题。 W: Hi, Michael! How many dumplings did you make in the competition? M: I only made ten. It was really difficult. What about you, Lucy? W: I made twenty. My desk mate Mary made forty. M: She is so great. How do you like the dumplings? W: They are so delicious. M: I agree with you. W:We welcome the new year in a special way. M: Yeah.I hope our class will have more activities like this. 第三节听短文，根据你所听到的短文内容及要求完成以下表格，每空一词，填写在试卷相应位置。听短文前，你将有20 秒的时间来阅读表格内容，听完后将给出20 秒的作答时间。短文读三遍。 Good afternoon, boys and girls. Here is a notice about our School Music Festival. The festival will be held next Thursday, and we have different voluntary tasks for every group. Group One is going to take care of the singers and will prepare the necessary things for them. Group Two needs to clean and tidy the music hall. Group Three will carry all the heavy musical instruments carefully. Group Four will welcome 10 honored guests on the list and you’ll gather at the school before the festival starts. Do you have any questions? 听力考试到此结束，请考生将正确答案转写到答题卡上，接着完成试卷上的其他题。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $这是2026年九年级英语适应性练习听力部分，该部分共3节。注意回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力考试结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案填涂到答题卡上。现在是听力试音时间，请各考场根据试音情况将音量调整到最佳状态。Hi john, whats your plan for the new school term? I'm not sure my parents ask me to focus on study, but i'd like to join a club. Which club would you . like to join? I have no idea. I just want to relax because I feel tired these days. What about you, tina? I plan to join a sports club that I will take a lesson to learn to. Dance sounds great. 试音。到此结束，听力考试正式开始。请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面五个单句，从各小题所给的三幅图中选出与所听到的句子内容相关的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每个句子后，你都有5秒的时间作答和阅读下一小题，每个句子读两遍。One SHE often goes to school by bike. SHE often goes to school by bike. Two, they like playing basketball in the jam. They like playing basketball in the gym. Three, my father is a doctor in the hospital. My father is a doctor in the hospital. For it's not allowed to park here. It's not allowed . to park here. Five, I was doing the dishes when my mom came back. I was doing the dishes when my mom came back. 第二节听下面7段对话，根据你所听内容选择正确答案，共两节。请听第一节听下面四段对话，每段对话后有一个问题，从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有5秒时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍，听第一段对话，完成第六小题。Jack, the watch looks so nice. Is that yours . or the ways neither its bobs? Jack, the watch looks so nice. Is that yours . or the ways neither it's bobs? 听第二段对话，完成第七小题。现在你有5秒的时间来阅读这个小题。Excuse me, can I try on this pair . of pants? Sure, the fitting room is over there. Excuse me, can I try on this . pair of pants? Sure, the fitting room is over there. 听第三段对话，完成第八小题。现在你有5秒的时间来阅读这个小题。How often do you make a tour? Grace. I often travel three times a year. Sounds great. I only do IT once a year. How often do you make a tour? Grace. I often travel three times a year. Sounds great. I only do IT once a year. 听第四段对话，完成第九小题。现在你有5秒的时间来阅读这个小题。Dad, can we go to the museum this saturday? I have a meeting in the morning. What about the afternoon? Okay, and i'll finish my homework on . friday evening. That's great. Dad, can we go to the museum this saturday? I have a meeting . in the morning. What about the afternoon? Okay, and i'll finish my homework on . friday evening. That's great. 请听第二节，听下列三段对话。每段对话后有两个问题，从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有5秒时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍，听第五段对话完成第十、十一小题。现在你有10秒的时间来阅读这两个小题。The radio says it's Sunny today. Would you like to fly a kite with me? I'd love to. But look at the dark clouds. I think it's going to rain soon. Let's make IT another day. Shall we read the book together? I'm afraid not. I ve just read IT. What about playing chess? Sounds great. It's my favorite activity. The radio says its Sunny today. Would you like to fly a kite with me? I'd love to. But look at the dark clouds. I think it's going to rain soon. Let's make IT another day. Shall we read the book together? I'm afraid not. I ve just read IT. What about playing chess? Sounds great. It's my favorite activity. 听第六段对话，完成第12、十三小题。现在你有10秒的时间来阅读这两个小题。Hello, i'd like to book tickets for the chinese art show tonight. Sorry, it's put off till l tomorrow. We have an indian art show and an african art show today. What time does the indian arts show start? IT starts at seven P. M. How much is the ticket? Thirty dollars each. I'll take . four tickets. All right. Hello, i'd like to book tickets for the chinese art show tonight. Sorry, it's put off till tomorrow. We have an indian art show and an african art show today. What time does the indian arts show start? IT starts at seven. P. M. How much is the ticket? Thirty dollars each. I'll take four tickets. alright. 听第七段。对话，完成第14、十五小题。现在你有10秒的时间来阅读这两个小题。Hi Michael. How many dumplings did you make in the . competition? I only made ten IT was really difficult. What about you, Lucy? I made twenty. My desk made mary made forty. SHE is so great. How do you like the dumplings? They are so delicious. I agree with you. We welcome the new year in a special way. Yeah, I hope our class will have more activities like this. Hi Michael. How many dumplings did you make in the . competition? I only made ten IT was really difficult. What about you, Lucy? I made twenty. My desk made, mary made forty. SHE is so great. How do you like the dumplings? They are so delicious. I agree with you. We welcome . the new year in a special way. Yeah. I hope bar class will have more activities like this. 第三节听短文，根据你所听到的短文内容及要求完成以下表格，每空一词填写在试卷相应位置。听短文前，你将有20秒的时间来阅读表格内容，听完后将给出20秒的作答时间。短文读三遍。Good afternoon, boys and girls. Here is a notice about our school music festival. The festival will be held next thursday, and we have different voluntary tasks for every group. Group one is going to take care of the singers and will prepare the necessary things for them. Group two needs to clean and tidy the musical. Group three will Carry all the heavy musical instruments carefully. Group four will welcome ten honored guests on the list, and you'll gather at the school before the festival starts. Do you have any questions? Good afternoon, boys and girls. Here is a notice about our school music festival. The festival will be held next thursday, and we have different voluntary tasks for every group. Group one is going to take care of the singers and will prepare the necessary things for them. Group two needs to clean and tidy the music. Group three will Carry all the heavy musical instruments carefully. Group four will welcome on our guests on the list, and you'll gather at the school before the festival starts. Do you have any questions? Good afternoon, boys and girls. Here is a notice about our school music festival. The festival will be held next thursday, and we have different voluntary tasks for every group. Group one is going to take care of the singers and will prepare the necessary things for them. Group two needs to clean and tidy the music hall. Group three will Carry all the heavy musical instruments carefully. Group four will welcome ten honored guests on the list, and you'll gather at the school before the festival starts. Do you have any questions? 听力考试到此结束，请考生将正确答案转写到答题卡上，接着完成试卷上的其他题。 2026年福建省命卷比赛作品 2026年福建省中考英语自编模拟卷 （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 友情提示：请将所有答案填写到答题卡上与题号相对应的答题区域内！ I. 听力（共三节, 20小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分30分） 第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三幅图中选出与句子内容相关的选项。(每个句子读两遍) 1. A. B. C. 2. A. B. C. 3. A. B. C. 4. A. B. C. 5. A. B. C. 第二节 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案。 (每段对话读两遍) 听第 1 段对话，回答第 6 小题。 6. Whose watch is this? A. Jack’s. B. Bob’s. C. Li Wei’s. 听第 2 段对话，回答第 7 小题。 7. Where are the speakers now? A. In a bookstore. B. In a supermarket. C. In a clothing store. 听第 3 段对话，回答第 8 小题。 8. How often does the man make a tour ? A. Once a year. B. Twice a year. C. Three times a year. 听第 4 段对话，回答第 9 小题。 9. When will they go to the museum? A. Friday evening. B. Saturday morning. C. Saturday afternoon. 听第 5 段对话，回答第 10、11 小题。 10. What is the weather like now? A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy. 11. What will they probably do next? A. Play chess. B. Read books. C. Fly kites. 听第 6 段对话，回答第 12、13 小题。 12. What will the man watch tonight ? A. Chinese art show. B. Indian art show. C. African art show. 13. How much will the man pay in total? A. 30 dollars. B. 108 dollars. C. 120 dollars. 听第 7 段对话，回答第 14、15 小题。 14. What’s the relationship between the speakers? A. Strangers. B. Classmates. C. Workmates. 15. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. The dumpling competition. B. The delicious food. C. The New Year plan. 第三节 听下面短文，根据你所听到的内容，完成以下表格，每空填一词。 (短文读三遍) Notice Topic School Music Festival Preparation Time Next 16 Tasks Group 1 Take care of the 17 . Group 2 18 and tidy the hall. Group 3 Carry all the 19 musical instruments. Group 4 Welcome 20 honored guests. II. 选择填空（共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。 21. China will probably launch Chang’e 7 ________ August, 2026. A. on B. in C. at 22. Many people learn skills by ________ through online courses. A. themselves B. them C. they 23. Paper-cutting plays an important part in spreading Chinese __________. A. habit B. invention C. culture 24. A great number of ancient Chinese buildings were ______ by Lin Huiyin and Liang Sicheng in the 1930s. A. produced B. protected C. provided 25. Qunzhong Road is one of the roads in our city in the rush hours. A. longest B. busiest C. widest 26. — My grandma can’t use mobile payment to take a bus. — Don’t worry. We can her how to use it step by step. A. ask B. teach C. give 27. Our school has made safety rules, and of the students must follow them. A. all B. both C. either 28. —Do you still work on your volunteer project? —Yes. So far, we ______ over fifty elderly people. A. help B. helped C. have helped 29. It’s necessary for teenagers to learn how to spend lucky time _______. A. hardly B. freely C. wisely 30. She didn’t make the mistake _________. It was just an accident. A. on purpose B. in surprise C. by chance 31. Happiness shared with others is better than happiness enjoyed by a _______ person. A. single B. similar C. simple 32. — I always feel nervous about my study. — Take it easy. and keep working hard for your dream. A. Look out B. Cheer up C. Take away 33. It took Tom two years Beijing Opera to prepare for the show. A. to learn B. to enjoy C. to watch 34. We shouldn’t waste food, it’s hard for farmers to grow rice and vegetables. A. once B. unless C. because 35. — The 2026 World Cup is coming soon. Could you tell me ? — In the USA, Canada and Mexico. A. when it will start B. where it will be held C. what the host cities are Ⅲ. (原创) 完形填空（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分） 阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。 At the Tokyo Marathon on March 1st this year, 24-year-old Feng Peiyou set a new national record with a time of 2:05:58, becoming the first Chinese runner to finish a marathon in less than 2 hours and 6 minutes. Born in the mountainous area of Guizhou, Feng Peiyou never 36 that he had a talent for running. Many kids from the mountains could run well, and he was only a little faster than most of them 37 . In the autumn of 2016, when he was 15, Feng got into the Zunyi Sports School. He worked hard for two years before 38 the Guizhou provincial team. Training at the provincial team was much 39 than at the sports school. He often felt tired out after running practices, 40 he never gave up and kept practicing. In 2021, Feng competed in his first official marathon in Huai’an, Jiangsu, finishing second behind rising Chinese star He Jie. At the 2023 Wuxi Marathon, Feng clocked 2:09:21 41 , becoming the first Chinese athlete born after 2000 to run a marathon under 2 hours and 10 minutes. He also 42 the 16-year-old national record and achieved a big victory in the same race. Knowing the importance of stamina (耐力) in the second half of the marathon, Feng focused on targeted training, and his efforts 43 . At the Tokyo Marathon, he kept a regular pace even in the last 10 kilometers. His new record 44 the Chinese men’s marathon into the “2:05 era”. In 2026, Feng Peiyou won all three national marathons he entered. “This is not the finishing line,” Feng’s coach Zou Leilei told CCTV. “We have made our training plan and are working toward the next 45 , Asian Games in September.” 36. A. thought B. guessed C. doubted 37. A. in need B. in the beginning C. in a hurry 38. A. leaving B. coming C. joining 39. A. faster B. harder C. easier 40. A. and B. so C. but 41. A. carefully B. successfully C. suddenly 42. A. broke B. kept C. got 43. A. gave up B. ran out C. paid off 44. A. led B. made C. stepped 45. A. test B. goal C. prize IV. 阅读理解 (共两节, 25小题; 满分45分) 第一节 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。(共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分) A ● Preparation: Home Safety Rules Kitchen Safety ※ Always wash your hands before and after touching food. ※ Tie back long hair. ※ Wear an apron (围裙) and roll up your sleeves (挽起袖子). ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ● Cleaning: ※ Keep food preparation surfaces clean. ※ Wash fruit and vegetables under cold water before use. ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ● ________ ※ Always ask an adult before using knives or going near hot things. ※ Use knives and other sharp (尖锐的) tools with care. ※ Don’t put tools on the edge (边缘) of the work table. ※When using a knife, always cut away from yourself to avoid cutting yourself. ※Use oven gloves when taking hot dishes from the oven or microwave. ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ ● Special attention: ※ Clean food spills (溢出) as soon as they happen. ※ Do not run around the kitchen where food is being prepared. 46. Which of the following is suggested before touching food? A. Wear an apron. B. Wash your sleeves. C. Clean your hands. D. Clean food spills. 47. You should ask your parents before you __________. A. use oven gloves B. pour out boiling water C. wash fruit and vegetables D. put things into a microwave 48. Which of the following can be put in “ ” ? A. Tools B. Hot things C. Tables D. Vegetables 49. Which of the following is correct in the kitchen? A. Tie your long hair back before cooking. B. Cut towards yourself to get a clean cut. C. Run around the kitchen when cooking. D. Put your favourite knife on the edge of the table. 50. Where can you most probably find the poster? (原创) A. In a storybook. B. In a report. C. On a website. D. On a notice board. B （原创） Malia Maunakea is a famous children’s author from Hawaii, USA. She is well-known for her stories that combine (结合) Hawaiian traditional culture with modern adventures (冒险). Recently, she accepted an interview and shared her new book The Shark Prince. Reporter: What inspired (激发) you to write your new book The Shark Prince? Malia: I talked with some students about local Hawaiian legends not long ago. They asked me a creative question — “What if a shark prince turned into a human?” This question touched me deeply and stayed in my mind. Slowly, the whole story of The Shark Prince was formed based on this idea. Reporter: Could you tell us the main story of the book? Malia: Sure. It is an exciting adventure story full of Hawaiian mythology (神话). In the book, a young shark prince became a human boy. He left the sea and came to live on land. Life on land was totally new and challenging for him. He had to learn human living skills, made new human friends, and most importantly, he must keep his true identity (身份) a secret. Reporter: Did reading influence you a lot when you were young? Malia: Certainly. I was a big fan of reading as a child. I read all kinds of books, especially adventure stories and books about Hawaiian culture. Reading opened up new worlds for me. It not only enriched (充实) my knowledge but also greatly encouraged me to create my own stories. Reporter: What do you want your readers to learn from your works? Malia: I hope my books can pass on positive values to young readers. I wish kids could learn to respect nature, be independent, and believe in themselves. I want to spread this idea through my books. Up to now, The Shark Prince has won great popularity among young readers because of its lively characters and wonderful plots (情节). 51. What makes Malia’s stories special? A. Talk about local students B. Use the simple language C. Mix culture and adventure D. Help protect the nature 52. Where did Malia get the inspiration for her new book? A. Students’ doubt B. Daily reading C. Sea travelling D. Local stories 53. What challenged the Shark Prince most on land? A. Becoming a human boy B. Hiding his real identity C. Teaching kids living skills D. Having no friends 54. What do we know about Malia? A. She wants to teach kids to make new friends. B. She creates stories to enrich her spare time. C. She is not fond of creating cultural stories. D. She is influenced by reading and writing. 55. What does Malia think of writing children’s books? A. It spreads positive values. B. It wins more readers’ favor. C. It satisfies personal interest. D. It develops kids’ living skills. C （原创） In April 2025, it was reported that U.S. beekeepers lost 55% of bees, which was the worst loss ever. Kirby’s honeybees, however, are thriving (生机勃勃的). She avoids chemicals used against varroa mites (瓦螨). Her instructions were leaving bees alone to solve challenges, because they can really work things out. There was a time when scientists believed that the brain of a bee was too tiny to think. However, in recent years, thanks to several creative studies, scientists have learned more about bees. And the results have found that bees are much smarter than almost anyone imagined. Researcher Lars Chittka designed a study, placing a row of tent-shaped landmarks, with a feeder between the third and fourth landmarks. Once bees were familiar (熟悉) with the place, the number of landmarks was changed. If bees met more landmarks than during training, they landed at a shorter distance. If they met fewer landmarks, they flew further. That is, the bees still searched after the third tent. They seemed to count the landmarks they passed. After that, Chittka’s team was encouraged to explore even deeper into how clever bees are. In another study, they placed a plastic flower with sugar water under a clear cover. They showed bees how to pull the flower closer by using a string (绳子). The bees quickly worked it out. Then untrained bees watched trained bees pull the string. The watching bees learned, and soon they showed other bees. The study suggested bees recognize cause and effect — how pulling a string can produce a treat — and show social learning. Scientists have realized how greatly we’ve underestimated (低估) their tiny brains. A bee’s job is to learn its world, and perhaps our job as humans is to support bees in their process of learning and adaptation. “Humans need to learn to listen to the bees around them,” says Kirby. “I always feel like the bees still have so much more to teach us.” 56. What did Kirby do according to Paragraph 1? A. Protected honeybees with chemicals. B. Left bees alone to face challenges. C. Suffered the worst loss ever. D. Solved the bee loss problem. 57. How does the writer organize Paragraph 2? A. By listing reasons. B. By asking questions. C. By giving examples. D. By comparing opinions. 58. According to the study in paragraph 3, which picture shows a possible result? 59. What does the underline word “it” refer to in Paragraph 4? A. Learn from each other. B. Get the treat by pulling a string. C. Find the flower under the cover. D. Drink sugar water without training. 60. Which would be the best title for the passage? A. The loss of bees B. The study of bees C. The secrets of bees D. The protection of bees D （原创） As the saying goes, we can choose our friends but not our family. Our parents provide the genetic material and make powerful early role models, but even more influential in determining (决定) what kind of adult we will become are our brothers and sisters — our siblings. A new research by Dr Gene Brody found that having older children who do well in school and are well liked by other children increases parents’ pride. This positive mood will make parents raise their younger children in a more patient and active way. As a result, younger siblings are less likely to have behavioral problems. On the other hand, if the first child is difficult to educate, the whole family may stay nervous and unpleasant for a long time. International sports star Piri Weepu is a well-known rugby (橄榄球) player. His elder brother often trained and challenged him when he was only four years old, which aimed to make him stronger. It seemed to work: Piri followed his brother in playing rugby before he even started school. During childhood, siblings interact with each other. Together with family education, genetic factors (因素) and personal characters, these interactions finally shape who we are. However, the research shows that being Mummy or Daddy’s favourite has its own downsides. If you were the easy-going child at home, you’re probably good at pleasing parents and later, bosses. But you might, as an adult, find it hard to be confident with people in power. On the other hand, the sibling who is naughty as a child may be able to change that role later, turning those shortcomings (缺点) into strengths like determination and leadership. Nowadays, most families are smaller than before. The sibling relationship has become closer than that in large families. Brothers and sisters know each other very well and are more likely to keep lifelong friendship. Unlike kids from big families who may lose touch with their siblings after growing up, most modern siblings can support and accompany (陪伴) each other for a lifetime. 61. How does a successful first child benefit their younger siblings? A. By asking teachers for help. B. By teaching them good behavior. C. By competing for parents’ attention. D. By increasing parents’ pride and patience. 62. What was Piri Weepu’s elder brother like according to paragraph 3? A. He was a famous rugby player. B. He often trained and pushed Piri. C. He stopped Piri from playing rugby. D. He was gentle and never challenged Piri. 63. What does the underlined word “downsides” in paragraph 4 mean? A. negative parts B. lower positions C. useful methods D. final results 64. What would be the best structure of the passage? 65. What’s the main idea of the passage? A. Family size changes people’s living habits. B. Sibling relationship solves teenage problems. C. Siblings influence personal growth in many ways. D. Children’s future jobs depend on family education. 第二节 阅读下面短文,从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项, 使短文通顺、连贯, 意思完整。(共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分) E （原创） World Water Day on 22 March reminds us of the importance of water. But did you know water also keeps your mind healthy? · 66 Whether you walk by a river or sit at the beach, you see waves, hear them crash (拍击), and feel cool water on your feet. There is something peaceful about being close to water. Scientists call these places “blue space” , which means the sea, lakes, rivers, even spring. Humans have lived near water for a long time, so it feels safe to us. · Find the benefits of water Blue spaces help you relax and focus. Watching ripples (涟漪) in water can calm your thoughts. 67 Studies show that people often feel happier when they live close to the coast. Some research even suggests that breathing sea air is good for your physical health. 68 · Connect with water 69 You can relax in a bath and feel rain on your skin. If you don’t like getting wet, sit indoors by the window. Pick two raindrops and watch them race to the bottom. 70 Because seeing such a huge blue space helps you think your problems are smaller. A. Sitting on the beach can help you let go of worries. B. Water can improve your creativity as well, like in the shower. C. You don’t need to live by the sea to connect with water. D. The sound of rushing water helps you sleep. E. Feel water with your senses V. 情景交际 (共5小题; 每小题2分, 满分10分) 根据情景提示，用得体的英语完成下列对话。 71. — Nice to meet you! — ! 72. — Which season do you like best, spring, summer, fall or winter? — . 73. — have you been like this, sir? — For 3 days. 74. — ? — It’s June 9th today . 75. — in your free time? — I often go swimming in my free time. VI. 看图写话 (共5小题; 每小题2分, 满分10分) 根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词, 写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。 VII. 短文填空 (共10小题; 每小题1分, 满分10分)（原创） 阅读下面短文，根据语境或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个适当的单词，要求所填的词意义准确、形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。 Dear You, a low-budget film has become one of China’s most unexpected box-office successes this year. The 81 (move) film has offered us a look into the nearly forgotten world of qiaopi. In Fujian and Guangdong dialects (方言), “pi” 82 (mean) letter. Qiaopi is 83 special kind of family letter with money sent by overseas Chinese to their families back home in the 19th and 20th centuries. At that time, many people from China’s coastal areas left for Southeast Asia to make a living, which was 84 (know) as the wave of “Going to Nanyang.” Working hard in a foreign land, these overseas Chinese always had their families in their 85 (heart). Though they had a hard life abroad, they still saved every coin to send back home. Besides, the qiaopi expressed care for aging parents, worries over children’s 86 (educate), and words of longing between husbands 87 wives separated by oceans. These letters carried something 88 (large) than that as well. During the Anti-Japanese War, overseas Chinese sent money to help save China. In hard times, huge amounts of money sent back were used to make great contributions 89 the nation’s development. From 1864 to 1980, the money from overseas Chinese totaled about $10.8 billion. In 2013, UNESCO added the qiaopi archives (档案) to its Memory of the World Register. “It represents the Chinese people, Chinese culture, Chinese spirit and Chinese heart.” President Xi said in 2020 after 90 (visit) a qiaopi museum in Shantou. Ⅷ. 书面表达 (满分15分) 91. 假定你是某校学生李华, 近日你校计划举办“AI Explore Day”的主题活动，请你结合以下图示，用英语给笔友 Henry 写一封电子邮件，说明活动目的, 介绍活动安排并邀请他来参加活动。词数 80 左右。 注意事项： 1. 必须包含所有提示信息，可适当发挥，开头已给出，不计入总词数； 2. 意思清楚，表达通顺，行为连贯，书写规范； 3. 请勿在文中使用真实的姓名和校名。 Dear Henry, How is everything going? Knowing that you’re interested in AI, ____________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li hua 卷尾语 初三英语适应性练习圆满结束! 朝夕勤学终有所获! 祝同学们: 落笔生花，金榜题名! / 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年福建省命卷比赛作品 2026年福建省中考英语自编模拟卷 参考答案 I. 听力：共三节，每小题 1.5 分，共 30 分。 第一节 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 第二节 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. A 第三节 16. Thursday 17. singers 18. Clean 19. heavy 20. 10/ ten II. 选择填空：每小题 1 分，共 15 分。 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. A 31. A 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. B III. 完形填空：每小题 1.5 分，共 15 分。 36. A 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. A 43. C 44. A 45. B IV. 阅读理解：共两节，共 45 分。 第一节 (每小题 2 分，共 40 分) 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. C 51. C 52. A 53. B 54. D 55. A 56. B 57. D 58. A 59. B 60. C 61. D 62. B 63. A 64. C 65. C 第二节 (每小题 1 分，共 5 分) 66. E 67. D 68. B 69. C 70. A V. 情景交际：每小题 2 分，共 10 分。 71. Nice to meet you, (too)! 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 72. Spring./ Summer./ Fall./ Winter. 2 2 2 2 73. How long 1 1 74. What’s the date today? 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 75. What do you often do? 1 1 说明：71~75 每小题仅提供一种答案作为参考。 VI. 看图写话：每小题 2 分，共 10 分。 76. There is a car in front of the house. / The car is in front of the house. 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 77. The mooncakes taste delicious. 1 1 78. He had a fever yesterday. 0.5 1 0.5 79. They will go fishing next weekend. 0.5 1 0.5 80. She was doing her homework while her mother was sweeping the floor. 1 1 说明：76~80 每小题仅提供一种答案作为参考。 VI. 短文填空：每小题 1 分，共 10 分。 81. moving 82. means 83. a 84. known 85. hearts 86. education 87. and 88. larger 89. to 90. visiting VII. 书面表达：共 15 分。 91. 参考范文 Dear Henry, How is everything going? Knowing that you’re interested in AI, I am writing to invite you to our AI Explore Day, which aims to help us learn more about AI and use it properly. The activity will start at 9:00 a.m. and end at 4:30 p.m. on June 12th in our school hall. First, we are going to listen to a speech given by an AI expert. Then we will experience various AI learning tools for effective learning. In addition, a heated discussion about the advantages and disadvantages of AI learning will be held. What interests me most is that we can communicate with AI experts face to face. The activity will not only enrich our lives, but it will also help us realize the importance of exploring new technology. I am really looking forward to your coming. Yours, Li Hua 书面表达评分标准 第五档 13-15分 包含所有信息，内容完整，语句通顺，意思连贯。没有或基本没有语法、拼写错误，书写规范，词数符合要求。 第四档 10-12分 包含大部分信息，内容较完整，表达基本清楚，语句较通顺，有少量语法、拼写错误。书写规范，词数基本符合要求。 第三档 7-9分 写出基本信息，语句基本通顺；但句子较简单，表达不够清楚，有部分语法、拼写错误。书写基本规范。 第二档 4-6分 写出部分信息，表达不清楚，有较多语法和拼写错误。 第一档 1-3分 仅能传递个别信息，通篇只有个别句子可读。 0分 只字未写，或写的内容与所要求的内容无关。 详细解析 1. A 【听力原文】 She often goes to school by bike. 句意：她经常骑自行车上学。 2. B 【听力原文】 They like playing basketball in the gym. 句意：他们喜欢在体育馆打篮球。 3. B 【听力原文】 My father is a doctor in the hospital. 句意：我的爸爸是医院的一名医生。 4. C 【听力原文】 It’s not allowed to park here. 句意：此处禁止停车。 5. A 【听力原文】 I was doing the dishes when my mom came back. 句意：妈妈回来时我正在洗碗。 6. B 解析：手表既不是杰克的，也不是李伟的，是鲍勃的，选B。 【听力原文】 W: Jack, the watch looks so nice. Is it yours or Li Wei’s? M: Neither. It’s Bob’s. 7. C 解析：try on pants（试裤子）、fitting room（试衣间）是服装店典型场景，书店、超市不符合，选 C。 【听力原文】 M: Excuse me, can I try on this pair of pants? W: Sure. The fitting room is over there. 8. A 解析：男士一年旅行一次，女士一年旅行三次，提问对象为the man，选 A。 【听力原文】 M: How often do you make a tour, Grace? W: I often travel three times a year. M: Sounds great. I only do it once a year. 9. C 解析：周六爸爸上午要开会，和女儿约定周六下午去博物馆，选 C。 【听力原文】 W: Dad, can we go to the museum this Saturday? M: I have a meeting in the morning.What about the afternoon? W: OK, and I’ll finish my homework on Friday evening. M: That’s great. 10. C 解析：收音机预报今日天气晴朗，此刻乌云密布，所以此刻天气为cloudy,选 C。 11. A 解析：因天气原因取消放风筝，女孩已看过这本书，所以最终决定下棋，选 A。 【听力原文】 M: The radio says it’s sunny today. Would you like to fly a kite with me? W: I’d love to, but look at the dark clouds. I think it’s going to rain soon. M: Let’s make it another day. Shall we read the book together? W: I’m afraid not. I’ve just read it. M: What about playing chess? W: Sounds great! It’s my favorite activity. 12. B 解析：中国展推迟到明天，今晚可以观看的是印度艺术展，选 B。 13. C 解析：30 美元一张票，男士共购买四张，30×4=120，选 C。 【听力原文】 M: Hello! I'd like to book tickets for the Chinese art show tonight. W: Sorry, it's put off till tomorrow. We have an Indian art show and an African art show today. M: What time does the Indian art show start? W: It starts at 7 p.m. M: How much is the ticket? W: 30 dollars each. M: I'll take four tickets. W: All right. 14. B 解析：my desk mate Mary、our class 证明是同班同学，不是陌生人或同事，选 B。 15. A 解析：核心话题是一开始就提及的饺子比赛，选 A。 【听力原文】 W: Hi, Michael! How many dumplings did you make in the competition? M: I only made ten. It was really difficult. What about you, Lucy? W: I made twenty. My desk mate Mary made forty. M: She is so great. How do you like the dumplings? W: They are so delicious. M: I agree with you. W: We welcome the new year in a special way. M: Yeah.I hope our class will have more activities like this. 16. Thursday 定位原文：The festival will be held next Thursday. 解析：音乐节举办时间为下周四，填 Thursday。 17. singers 定位原文：Group One is going to take care of the singers. 解析：第一组的任务为照顾歌手，填复数 singers。 18. Clean 定位原文：Group Two needs to clean and tidy the music hall. 解析：句首表格大写 Clean。 19. heavy 定位原文：Group Three will carry all the heavy musical instruments. 解析：用形容词 heavy（沉重的）修饰乐器。 20. ten/10 定位原文：Welcome 10 honored guests. 解析：数字 ten，接待10位贵宾。 【听力原文】 Good afternoon, boys and girls. Here is a notice about our School Music Festival. The festival will be held next Thursday, and we have different voluntary tasks for every group. Group One is going to take care of the singers and will prepare the necessary things for them. Group Two needs to clean and tidy the music hall. Group Three will carry all the heavy musical instruments carefully. Group Four will welcome 10 honored guests on the list and you’ll gather at the school before the festival starts. Do you have any questions? 21. B 【考点】时间介词 in/on/at的辨析 in + 年、月份、季节； on + 具体某一天、某天早中晚； at + 具体时刻。 句中 August, 2026 是月份 + 年份，用介词 in。 句意：中国或将在2026 年 8 月发射嫦娥七号。 22. A 【考点】反身代词固定搭配 by oneself独自、靠自己。主语 many people 对应反身代词 themselves。 句意：很多人通过线上课程自学技能。 23. C 【考点】名词词义辨析 habit 习惯；invention 发明；culture 文化 句意：剪纸在传播中国文化方面发挥重要作用。 24. B 【考点】动词词义辨析（被动语态） produce 生产；protect 保护；provide 提供 句意：20 世纪 30 年代，林徽因和梁思成保护了大量中国古建筑。 25. B 【考点】形容词最高级词义辨析 longest 最长的；busiest 最繁忙的；widest 最宽的 根据 in the rush hours（早晚高峰），道路是 “最拥堵繁忙的”。 句意：群众路是我市高峰时段最繁忙的道路之一。 26. B 【考点】动词词义辨析 ask 询问；teach 教；give 给予 teach sb. how to do sth. 教某人如何做某事。 句意：-奶奶不会手机扫码乘车。 -别担心，我们可以一步步教她。 27. A 【考点】不定代词 all/both/either辨析 all 三者及以上全部；both 两者都；either 两者任一。 安全守则是所有学生（三者以上）都需要遵守的，用 all。 句意：我校制定了安全守则，所有学生都必须遵守。 28. C 【考点】现在完成时 so far 到目前为止，是现在完成时标志，结构 have/has + 过去分词。 句意：-你还在做志愿项目吗？ -是的。到目前为止，我们已经帮助了五十多位老人。 29. C 【考点】副词词义辨析 hardly 几乎不；freely 自由地；wisely 明智地 spend lucky money wisely 理性 / 明智地花压岁钱。 句意：青少年有必要学会理性支配压岁钱。 30. A 【考点】介词短语辨析 on purpose 故意；in surprise 惊讶地；by chance 偶然 后一句 It was just an accident（只是意外）说明她不是故意犯错。 句意：她不是故意犯这个错，只是一场意外。 31. A 【考点】形容词词义辨析 single 单独的，独自的；similar 相似的；simple 简单的 句意：与人分享的快乐胜过独自拥有的快乐。 32. B 【考点】情景交际 look out 小心；cheer up 振作起来；take away 拿走 对方焦虑自己的学业，安慰对方“振作起来，为梦想努力”。 33. A 【考点】动词词义辨析 learn学习；enjoy欣赏；watch观看。 为演出准备，需要花费两年时间学习京剧。 34. C 【考点】连词逻辑辨析 once 一旦；unless 除非；because 因为 前半句 “我们不该浪费粮食”，后半句给出原因 “农民种粮种菜很辛苦”，用 because 引导原因状语从句。 35. B 【考点】宾语从句辨析 答句 In the USA, Canada and Mexico 是地点，问句用 where 提问举办地点。 A 问时间；C 问主办城市名称，只需回答国家名。 句意：-2026 世界杯快到了，能告诉我它将在哪里举办吗？-在美国、加拿大和墨西哥。 36. A 【考点】动词词义辨析 thought 认为；guessed 猜测；doubted 怀疑 句意：他从未认为自己拥有跑步天赋。 解析：后文说山里孩子都擅长跑步，他只是稍快一点，说明一开始他并不觉得自己有天赋，选 thought。 37. B 【考点】介词短语辨析 in need 需要帮助；in the beginning 起初，一开始；in a hurry 匆忙 句意：山里很多孩子都能跑，一开始他只比大部分人快一点。 解析：交代早期情况，对应后文他后来专业训练、突飞猛进，选 B。 38. C 【考点】动词词义辨析 leaving 离开；coming 来到；joining 加入（队伍） 句意：刻苦训练两年后，他加入贵州省队。 解析：join the team 固定搭配 “加入队伍”，符合文章逻辑。 39. B 【考点】形容词比较级词义辨析 faster 更快；harder 更艰苦；easier 更轻松 句意：省队的训练比体校艰苦得多。 解析：后文 “He often felt tired out（经常筋疲力尽）” 印证训练难度更大，选 harder。 40. C 【考点】并列连词逻辑 and 顺承；so 因此；but 但是（转折） 句意：训练后他常常疲惫不堪，但他从未放弃，持续训练。 解析：前后语义转折，疲惫却不放弃，用 but。 41. B 【考点】副词词义辨析 carefully 仔细地；successfully 成功地；suddenly 突然 句意：在2023年的无锡马拉松上，他成功跑出 2:09:21。 解析：后文提到成为第一个跑进2小时10分钟的00后，是成功的成绩，选 successfully。 42. A 【考点】动词短语辨析 broke（break 过去式）打破；kept 保持；got 得到 句意：他打破尘封 16 年的全国纪录，在同一场赛事取得重大胜利。 43. C 【考点】动词短语辨析 gave up 放弃；ran out 耗尽；paid off（努力）得到回报、奏效 句意：他开展针对性耐力训练并且他的努力得到了回报。 解析：后文刷新纪录，证明训练有成效，选 paid off。 44. A 【考点】动词词义辨析 led（lead 过去式）引领、带领；made 制造；stepped 迈步 句意：他的新纪录带领中国男子马拉松进入 “2:05 时代”。 解析：lead…into… 引领…… 进入……，贴合语境。 45. B 【考点】名词词义辨析 test 测试；goal 目标；prize 奖品 句意：我们制定了训练计划，朝着下一个目标—— 九月亚运会努力。 解析：亚运会是团队奋斗的长远目标，不是单纯测试或奖品，选 goal。 46. C 细节理解题。 原文定位：Preparation 板块第一句 Always wash your hands before and after touching food. 解析：wash your hands = clean your hands 洗手。 A 穿围裙是备餐其中一项，但不是 “接触食物前” 的规定动作；B 清洗袖子没有提及；D 清理洒落食物属于 Special attention 板块，不符合题意。 47. B 细节理解题。 原文定位：Always ask an adult before using knives or going near hot things. 解析：hot things 高温物品，沸水属于高温危险事物； A 使用手套，无需询问；C 洗蔬果属于清洁板块，无要求询问成年人；D 把东西放进微波炉中也不涉及高温或使用刀具。 48. A 推理判断题。 解析：本段全部围绕 knives、sharp tools、oven gloves 等各类厨房工具的安全使用展开，关键词是工具 tools； B 高温物品，C 桌子仅在文中提及，并非主要内容；D 蔬菜偏离本段主题。 49. A 细节理解题。 原文定位：Preparation 板块 Tie back long hair. B 错误：原文在Tools板块提到cut away from yourself（刀刃朝外切，不要朝向自己）； C 错误：原文在Special attention中明确禁止在厨房奔跑； D 错误：原文在Tools板块提到Don’t put tools on the edge 不能把刀具放在桌边。 50. C 文章出处题。 解析：本文的右上角有网站的搜索栏，左上角有网页的导航栏。所以在网站上出现最为合理。 51. C 细节理解题。 原文定位：She is well-known for her stories that combine Hawaiian traditional culture with modern adventures. 解析：combine…with… = mix…and…，把夏威夷传统文化和冒险故事融合在一起。 A 只是创作灵感来源，不是故事特色；B 文中未提及语言简单；D 只是书中传递的理念，并非故事特点。 52. A 细节理解题。 原文定位：They asked me a creative question — “What if a shark prince turned into a human?” This question touched me deeply…the whole story was formed based on this idea. 解析：学生提出的问题给了她灵感。 B 阅读是影响她写作的因素，不是这本书灵感； C 海上旅行文中并未提及；D 本土传说只是聊天载体，真正灵感是学生的提问。 53. B 细节理解题。 原文定位：He had to learn human living skills, made new human friends, and most importantly, he must keep his true identity a secret. 解析：most importantly 强调重中之重，即隐藏真实身份。 A 变成人类是已经发生的设定，不是挑战；C 是他学习技能，不是教别人；D 文中提到他交到新朋友，不符合。 54. D 推理判断题。 原文定位：I was a big fan of reading…Reading opened up new worlds…greatly encouraged me to create my own stories. 解析：年少大量阅读深刻影响了她，激励她进行创作，对应 D 选项。 A 错误：她希望孩子尊重自然、独立自信，并非教孩子交朋友； B 错误：写作是为传递正向价值观，不是打发空闲时间； C 错误：她非常喜欢创作带有本土文化的故事。 55. A 推理判断题。 原文定位：I hope my books can pass on positive values to young readers. 解析：pass on positive values = spread positive values，传递正向价值观。 B 书本受欢迎是客观结果，不是她写作的初衷与看法； C 文中未说只是满足个人爱好； D 发展生活技能是书中主角的经历，不是写书的意义。 56. B 推理判断题。 原文定位：Her instructions were leaving bees alone to solve challenges, because they can really work things out. 解析： A 错误：文中说她避免使用化学药剂保护蜜蜂； C 错误：全美蜂群大量损失是普遍现象，她的蜂群长势很好； D 错误：文中未说她彻底解决蜂群消亡问题，只是她家蜜蜂存活良好。 57. D 写作手法题。 原文先讲过去科学家的观点（蜜蜂大脑太小无法思考），再对比近年新研究得出的相反结论（蜜蜂十分聪明）。通过新旧两种观点对比展开段落。 A 列举原因、B 提问、C 举例子均不符合本段行文逻辑。 58. A 推理判断题。 原文定位: 第三段That is, the bees still searched after the third tent. 训练时：喂食器在第 3、4 个帐篷地标中间； 地标变多→蜜蜂提前降落（距离变短），地标变少→蜜蜂飞过更远距离。蜜蜂仍在第三个地标后寻找食物。 A图中蜜蜂降落在第三个地标后; B图中蜜蜂降落在第六个地标后; C图中蜜蜂降落在第二个地标前; D图中蜜蜂降落在第二个地标后。 59. B 代词指代题。 原文：They showed bees how to pull the flower closer by using a string. The bees quickly worked it out. 解析：it 指代前文整件事：拉动绳子拉近花朵、获取糖水奖励。 A 互相学习是后续行为；C 找到花朵只是前提；D 无训练直接喝糖水与原文不符。 60. C 标题归纳题。 全文主线：通过两项科学实验揭示蜜蜂会数数、懂因果、群体学习的聪慧秘密，最后呼吁人类探索、尊重蜜蜂。A 蜂群损失仅第一段引子；B 蜜蜂研究只是载体，文章核心是揭示蜜蜂隐藏的智慧；D 蜜蜂保护仅文末一句话，并非全文重点。 61. D 推理判断题。 原文定位：having older children who do well… increases parents’ pride. This positive mood will make parents raise their younger children in a more patient and active way. 解析：成绩优异的老大让父母充满自豪感，父母心态变好，对弟妹更有耐心，弟妹更少出现行为问题。 A 文中无求助老师；B 不是哥哥姐姐直接教行为；C 争夺父母关注并未在文中提及。 62. B 推理判断题。 原文定位：His elder brother often trained and challenged him when he was only four years old, which aimed to make him stronger. 解析：challenge sb 等同于 push sb（督促、给人施压锻炼）。 A 皮里本人是知名橄榄球选手，不是哥哥；C、D 与原文完全相反。 63. A 词义猜测题。 解析：后文介绍 “受宠乖巧的孩子成年后面对掌权者缺乏自信”，是偏爱带来的负面坏处。 negative parts 负面之处；lower positions 更低的地位；useful methods 有用方法；final results 最终结果。 64. C 篇章结构题。 第 1 段：总起，提出核心观点 —— 手足对个人成长影响巨大； 第 2 段：分论点 1，老大的表现影响父母教养方式，进而影响弟妹； 第 3 段：举例论证，用橄榄球运动员兄弟的故事说明手足互动影响性格； 第 4 段：分论点 2，成为父母偏爱孩子的优缺点； 第 5 段：当代兄弟姐妹关系的总结。 65. C 主旨大意题。 全文围绕兄弟姐妹从多个方面影响人的成长展开：影响父母教育、互动影响性格、受偏爱带来不同优缺点等。A家庭规模只在最后一段简单提及，不是主旨；B 手足关系无法彻底解决青少年问题，表述绝对且片面；D 未来工作仅举例略微提到，并非全文核心。 66. E 本段后文：看见浪花、听见海浪、感受凉水，对应视觉、听觉、触觉，全部是用感官感受水，E 作为小标题总领整段。 67. D 前一句：水面涟漪能平复思绪。本句递进，补充水流声有助睡眠，继续讲水域带来的心理放松好处，逻辑顺承。 68. B 前文分别提到海边居住心情更好、海边空气有益身体健康。本句补充水也能提升创造力，进一步完善 “水带来身心益处” 这一段落的论据。 69. C 后文举例泡澡、窗边看雨，都是不用住在海边也能接触水的居家方式，C 总领本段 “亲近水” 板块，引出下文简单易行的方法。 70. A A选项坐在海滩边能帮助你放下烦恼，既能承接前文和水互动的场景，又能和后文让问题变小形成因果关系。 71. Nice to meet you, (too)! 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 72. Spring./ Summer./ Fall./ Winter. 2 2 2 2 73. How long 1 1 74. What’s the date today? 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 75. What do you often do? 1 1 说明：71~75 每小题仅提供一种答案作为参考。 76. There is a car in front of the house. / The car is in front of the house. 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 77. The mooncakes taste delicious. 1 1 78. He had a fever yesterday. 0.5 1 0.5 79. They will go fishing next weekend. 0.5 1 0.5 80. She was doing her homework while her mother was sweeping the floor. 1 1 说明：76~80 每小题仅提供一种答案作为参考。 81. moving 【考点】形容词, move 为动词，修饰名词 film 需形容词。moving 令人感动的；moved（人感到感动）。 句意：这部感人的电影。 82. means 【考点】主谓一致, 主语 “pi” 为单数，客观介绍用一般现在时，mean 变三单 means。 句意：“批” 的意思是信件。 83. a 【考点】不定冠词, a special kind of 一种特殊的…… special 辅音音素开头，用 a。 84. known 【考点】词组, be known as 作为…… 而闻名；此处被动语态，know 变过去分词 known。 85. hearts 【考点】名词复数, their 他们的，后接可数名词复数，heart→hearts。 have sb. in one’s hearts 把某人放在心上、牵挂。 86. education 【考点】名词作宾语, educate 动词→education 名词（教育）。 87. and 【考点】并列连词, husbands and wives 夫妻，并列搭配。 88. larger 【考点】形容词比较级, than 是比较级标志, large 比较级 larger； 89. to 【考点】词组，make contributions to… 为…… 做贡献 to 是介词，后接名词 / 动名词。 90. visiting 【考点】动名词， after 是介词，后面动词用 - ing 形式，visit→visiting。 91. 第五档 13-15分 包含所有信息，内容完整，语句通顺，意思连贯。没有或基本没有语法、拼写错误，书写规范，词数符合要求。 第四档 10-12分 包含大部分信息，内容较完整，表达基本清楚，语句较通顺，有少量语法、拼写错误。书写规范，词数基本符合要求。 第三档 7-9分 写出基本信息，语句基本通顺；但句子较简单，表达不够清楚，有部分语法、拼写错误。书写基本规范。 第二档 4-6分 写出部分信息，表达不清楚，有较多语法和拼写错误。 第一档 1-3分 仅能传递个别信息，通篇只有个别句子可读。 0分 只字未写，或写的内容与所要求的内容无关。 91.  参考1：(14分） Dear Henry, How is everything going? Knowing that you're interested in AI, I’m writing to invite you to an activity called AI Explore Day. The activity will be held from 9:00 a.m to 16:30 p.m on June.12th., and it aims to broaden our horizons and enrich our school life. During AI Explore Day, we can listen to a speech about abundant usages of AI. Then, we can share our thoughts by having a discussion, making us have a deeper understanding about AI. Besides, we can visit an AI exhibition. Additionally, we will have a chance to experience AI learning, which may help our study a lot. Last but not least, I hope that you can join in the activity. Yours， Li Hua 参考2：（12分） Dear Henry, How is everything going? Knowing that you're interested in AI, I will tell you something about the "AI Explore Day" which will be held in my school. There will have a lot of interesting activities about AI. First, we will listen a speech about AI technology in the future. Second, There will have a discussion that we will have, the discussion is about how to use AI tools well. Third, Robots will experience AI learning for us. Last, we will have a game with AI. These activities are supposed to encourage us to use AI tools more and learn skills from them. If you think these activities are good for you, come to join us! The activity will be held at 9:00 a.m. to 16:30 p.m on June 12th. I'm looking forward to you. Yours， Li Hua 参考3：（10分） Dear Henry, How is everything going? Knowing that you're interested in AI, our school will hold an "AI Explore Day" activity, would you like to come with me? Now I will tell you anything about it. The "AI Explore Day" will be held on June 12th, 2026. It opens from 9:00 a.m. -16:30 p.m. The activity’s purpose is help us get close to AI. We can listen to a speech about AI, I think it must be very interesting. Besides, we will have a discussion about AI, great for us. Third, we can experience AI learning. It must be exciting. And we can play chess with AI. I think the activity is very wonderful. In the end, I’m looking forward to your coming. Yours, Li Hua 参考4：（8分） Dear Henry, How is everything going? Knowing that you're interested in AI, So, I will invite you to a activity of AI. I believe you will like it. The activity name's "AI Explore Day", on 9:00 am to 16:30 pm June 12th. In there,It will have many small activities for you. First. It has experience AI learning, you will learn how to use AI. Second, We can listen a speech about AI's good and bad, Third. It have a discussion, in the end, we can used AI to drawing! I hope we can create a wonderful picture! Hearing those. I believe you can't wait to join the activity. Are you right? That we meet in it. Yours, Li Hua 参考5：（5分） Dear Henry, How is everything going? Knowing that you're interested in AI, I have a AI Explore Day want join you join. It's the time 9:00a.m-16:30 p.m. This is June 12th. It very have very purpose, if have a listen to a speech, can experience AI learning… AI can teach our homework, ask problems and ask feel. So AI have a discussion. Thank you! Yours, Li Hua 参考6：（3分） Dear Henry, How is everything going? Knowing that you're interested in AI, Explore Day time 9:00am —16:30pm. June12th. Listen to a speech. Have a discussion. Experience AI learning. Yours, Li Hua / 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $Sheet1 中考英语自编模拟卷双向细目表 题号 题型 分值 知识点 难度系数 1 听音选图 1.5 交通方式 观察图片中的交通方式，根据所听句子获取关键词，并选择与句子内容相关的图片。 0.87 2 听音选图 1.5 体育运动 观察图片中的球类运动，根据所听句子获取关键词，并选择与句子内容相关的图片。 0.88 3 听音选图 1.5 工作与职业 观察图片中的人物职业，根据所听句子获取关键信息，并选择与句子内容相关的图片。 0.88 4 听音选图 1.5 规则标识 观察图片中的规则标识，根据所听句子获取关键词，并选择与句子内容相关的图片。 0.86 5 听音选图 1.5 劳动实践 观察图片中的动作，根据所听句子获取关键词，并选择句子内容相关的图片。 0.45 6 对话理解 1.5 物品归属 根据所听对话，获取说话人对物品归属表达的信息。 0.85 7 对话理解 1.5 位置空间 分析并判断说话双方所处的地点。 0.76 8 对话理解 1.5 人际交往 根据所听对话，获取说话人旅游的频率。 0.81 9 对话理解 1.5 业余活动 根据所听对话，分析并判断说话人活动的时间 0.76 10 对话理解 1.5 天气情况 根据所听对话，获取天气情况 0.54 11 对话理解 1.5 活动安排 理解并推断说话人即将发生的行为。 0.85 12 对话理解 1.5 艺术活动 获取说话人出发的时间。 0.77 13 对话理解 1.5 艺术活动 理解并计算活动的费用 0.6 14 对话理解 1.5 竞赛活动 分析并判断对话中人物之间的关系。 0.8 15 对话理解 1.5 竞赛活动 理解并归纳对话的主旨大意。 0.64 16 听音填空 1.5 通知 获取并记录音乐节的举办时间。 0.75 17 听音填空 1.5 通知 获取并记录第一组的任务信息。 0.81 18 听音填空 1.5 通知 获取并记录第二组的任务信息。 0.79 19 听音填空 1.5 通知 获取并记录第三组的任务信息。 0.66 20 听音填空 1.5 通知 获取并记录第四组的任务信息。 0.66 21 单项选择 1 介词 在对话情境中准确理解和运用介词。 0.78 22 单项选择 1 人称代词 在对话情境中准确理解和运用人称代词。 0.78 23 单项选择 1 名词 在对话情境中准确理解和运用名词。 0.77 24 单项选择 1 动词 在具体情境中准确理解和运用动词。 0.71 25 单项选择 1 形容词最高级 在具体情境中准确理解和运用形容词最高级。 0.72 26 单项选择 1 动词 在具体情境中准确理解和运用动词。 0.53 27 单项选择 1 代词 在具体情境中准确理解和运用代词。 0.73 28 单项选择 1 现在完成时 在具体情境中准确理解和运用现在完成时。 0.72 29 单项选择 1 副词 在具体情境中准确理解和运用副词。 0.83 30 单项选择 1 介词短语 在具体情境中准确理解和辨析介词短语。 0.84 31 单项选择 1 形容词 在对话情境中准确理解和运用形容词。 0.63 32 单项选择 1 动词短语 在对话情境中准确理解和运用动词短语。 0.72 33 单项选择 1 非谓语动词 在具体情境中理解非谓语动词的基本结构，并能准确使用。 0.8 34 单项选择 1 连词 在对话情境中准确理解和运用连词。 0.75 35 单项选择 1 宾语从句 在对话情境中理解宾语从句的基本结构，并能准确使用。 0.83 36 完形填空 1.5 动词 根据语境选择恰当的动词。 0.8 37 完形填空 1.5 介词短语 根据语境和上下文线索选择恰当的介词短语。 0.71 38 完形填空 1.5 动词 根据语境、句意和上下文逻辑联系选择恰当的动词。 0.56 39 完形填空 1.5 形容词 根据语境和上下文线索，辨析并选择恰当的形容词。 0.46 40 完形填空 1.5 连词 根据语境和上下文线索，辨析并选择恰当的连词。 0.56 41 完形填空 1.5 副词 根据上下文语境理解、辨析并选择恰当的副词。 0.77 42 完形填空 1.5 动词 根据语境和上下文线索，辨析并选择恰当的动词。 0.63 43 完形填空 1.5 动词短语 根据语境和上下文线索，辨析并选择恰当的动词短语。 0.71 44 完形填空 1.5 动词 根据语境和上下文线索，辨析并选择恰当的动词。 0.71 45 完形填空 1.5 名词 根据语境和上下文线索，辨析并选择恰当的名词。 0.76 46 阅读理解 2 厨房安全规则 通过阅读获取事实信息。 0.78 47 阅读理解 2 通过阅读获取事实信息。 0.71 48 阅读理解 2 通过阅读推断小标题。 0.61 49 阅读理解 2 通过阅读获取事实信息。 0.69 50 阅读理解 2 通过阅读，捕捉关键事实信息并推理判断文章出处。 0.72 51 阅读理解 2 人物访谈 定位文本关键句、理解短语同义转换，抓取文章细节信息。 0.61 52 阅读理解 2 梳理访谈对话逻辑，提取事件起因类细节信息。 0.55 53 阅读理解 2 对比文中多项信息，筛选、判断核心细节，区分主次信息。 0.63 54 阅读理解 2 整合全文多处细节，逐一辨析选项正误，进行简单推理。 0.69 55 阅读理解 2 理解作者态度与写作意图，提炼文本观点，评价文章主旨内涵。 0.36 56 阅读理解 2 发现蜜蜂的奥秘 通过阅读，获取相关事实信息并推断目的。 0.64 57 阅读理解 2 通过阅读，理解第二段的逻辑关系。 0.47 58 阅读理解 2 通过阅读，理解并推断第三段中蜜蜂计数实验的结果。 0.66 59 阅读理解 2 通过阅读，理解并推断指代的内容。 0.66 60 阅读理解 2 通过阅读，推断文章的最佳标题。 0.67 61 阅读理解 2 兄弟姐妹对个人成长影响 定位段落关键语句，理解因果逻辑，转换文本信息。 0.4 62 阅读理解 2 抓取事例中的人物行为细节，匹配选项内容。 0.3 63 阅读理解 2 结合上下文对比语境，推断生词 / 短语含义，分析句间逻辑。 0.2 64 阅读理解 2 划分段落层次，梳理全文行文框架、段落间逻辑关系。 0.45 65 阅读理解 2 概括全文核心内容，区分细节与主旨，总结文章中心思想。 0.21 66 阅读还原 1 蓝色空间的疗愈作用 通过语境与语义，理解并推断句子之间的衔接。 0.58 67 阅读还原 1 通过语境与语义，理解并推断上下文的逻辑关系。 0.54 68 阅读还原 1 通过语境与语义，理解并推断上下文的行文逻辑。 0.77 69 阅读还原 1 通过语境与语义，理解并推断句子之间的行文逻辑。 0.52 70 阅读还原 1 通过语境与语义，理解并推断句子之间的行文逻辑。 0.67 71 情景交际 2 问候 根据应答，礼貌得体地发出问好的询问。 0.87 72 情景交际 2 偏爱 礼貌得体地应答对方询问最喜欢的季节。 0.83 73 情景交际 2 时长 根据应答，正确询问对方病情持续的时间。 0.76 74 情景交际 2 日期 根据应答，礼貌询问当天的日期。 0.7 75 情景交际 2 日常活动 根据应答，礼貌询问对方的日常活动。 0.72 76 看图写话 2 存现句(there be句型） 用 there be句型描述汽车和房子的方位。 0.77 77 看图写话 2 系表结构 用一般现在时和提示词描述月饼很美味。 0.68 78 看图写话 2 一般过去时 用一般过去时描述男孩昨天发烧了。 0.73 79 看图写话 2 一般将来时 用一般将来时描述两名孩子要去钓鱼。 0.79 80 看图写话 2 时间状语 从句 用复合句和提示词while描述女孩正在写作业的时候她的妈妈正在扫地。 0.74 81 短文填空 1 形容词 在具体语境中正确运用形容词。 0.5 82 短文填空 1 动词一般现在时 在具体语境中正确运用动词一般现在时。 0.71 83 短文填空 1 冠词 在具体语境中正确运用冠词。 0.78 84 短文填空 1 动词过去分词 在具体语境中理解句子的结构。 0.62 85 短文填空 1 名词复数 在具体语境中正确运用名词复数。 0.78 86 短文填空 1 连词 在具体语境中正确运用连词。 0.7 87 短文填空 1 名词 在具体语境中正确运用名词。 0.62 88 短文填空 1 形容词比较级 在具体语境中正确运用形容词比较级。 0.73 89 短文填空 1 介词 在具体语境中正确运用介词短语。 0.4 90 短文填空 1 动词-ing 形式 在具体语境中正确运用动词-ing形式。 0.52 91 书面表达 15 人与自我、人与社会 根据要求，结合提示进行书面表达，写一封80词左右的信件，要求内容完整、条理清楚、表达通顺、语言准确、行文连贯、书写规范。考查学生围绕真实情景和任务，以书面语篇的形式向笔友介绍学校即将开展“AI Explore Day”的活动目的，安排，并发出邀请。体现《义务教育英语课程标准（2022年版）》所提及的“践行学思结合、用创为本的英语学习活动观”课程理念，发挥试卷正向价值判断的导向功能。 0.59 全卷难度系数 0.68 $