江苏南京市第六十六中学2026届高三考前模拟英语试题

2026届南京市第六十六中学校内三模英语试卷 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，只交答题卡。 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案涂在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the woman want to do? A. Wash some plates. B. Prepare a cloth. C. Clean a shelf. 2. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Sister and brother. C. Teacher and student. 3. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Finding a violinist. B. Forming a band. C. Learning the drums. 4. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. On a plane. B. On a train. C. On a bus. 5. What did the man buy? A. Socks. B. Shorts. C. Shoes. 第二节 (共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 6. What does the man want to do at first? A. Order takeout. B. Go out for dinner. C. Eat what they have. 7. What does the man order? A. A burger. B. A salad. C. An onion pie. 8. What does the woman want to learn? A. Gardening skills. B. Computer skills. C. Cooking skills. 9. What do we know about the woman? A. She has bad eyesight. B. Her mind isn’t active. C. She has a poor memory 10. What will the woman probably do next? A. Buy a new ring. B. Go to the town hall. C. Call the night school. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 11. What does the man think of the end of the book? A. It’s exciting. B. It’s amusing. C. It’s disappointing. 12. Where did the man get the book? A. On a train. B. In a bookstore. C. In a library. 13. What will the man do next? A. Read the book again. B. Give the book to the woman. C. Recommend the book to others. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 14. Why does the man meet the woman? A. To study for an exam. B. To have a meal together. C. To discuss their study plan. 15. Which subject does Mr. Potter teach? A. Math. B. Geography. C. History. 16. Where will the woman go this afternoon? A. A park. B. A soccer field. C. A pool. 17. How does the woman sound in the end? A. Expectant. B. Thankful. C. Confused. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。 18. What is the purpose of the event? A. To present awards. B. To raise money for schools. C. To celebrate Rob Cook’s retirement. 19. How much money was raised by the community last year? A. $35,000. B. $30,000. C. $25,000. 20. Which award did Rob Cook get first? A. The White Flower. B. The Pink Rose. C. The Gold Star. 第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) A Farmer for a day Your introduction to the wonderful world of farming Experience Overview Farmer Experience Days is suitable for children over 10 years old and adults, which provides the most popular activities in Rushmoor Farm Park. This is a great opportunity to see how a farm works and how to care for animals. You will join one of our team members performing farming duties. Experience Price One Person: £ 55 Two People: £ 80 All participants will be given a Rushmoor farmer T-shirt. Lunch will be included with a pot of tea or coffee. Cupcakes, pudding and other desserts are not included in the price. What to Expect The day starts at 10 a.m. You will be welcomed by one of our team members and get a brief safety chat. The first activity is feeding pigs. Then you can expect to brush rabbits and clean horses. Horse-riding is allowed under guidance, for adults only. Our Jersey cows also need milking so you’ll be showed all about it and try hand milking. Finishing time is not fixed but all activities should end around 3 pm. You can choose to return home by our free bus at 4 p.m. Additional Information ＊Children must be accompanied by an adult (even if non-participating). ＊Please wear suitable clothes and footwear. Click here(http://www.farm 520.com) to simply fill out your details and select your desired day. 1. Which of the following requires extra money? A. Lunch. B. The farmer T-shirt. C. Desserts. D. The bus ride. 2. What can children do during the day? A. Feed cows. B. Learn milking. C. Ride horses. D. Plant trees. 3. Where does the text most likely appear? A. In a park website. B. In a farm introduction. C. In a travel brochure. D. In a children magazine. B When Mia Woods retired at 61, she knew she needed a plan. “I was worried about losing my identity as a professional. What else can I be?” she thought. The year before, she had been told she had a mild memory problem. “I was trying to show myself that I could still think and be creative,” she says. So she decided to do — rather than be — something new: bake a pie every day for a year and give each pie away. “It made me reach out every day to somebody, so I wouldn’t be alone. And it gave me a routine,” she says. She baked her first pie and gave it to her 88-year-old aunt, Carol. As a teenager, Mia had moved in with her aunt’s family when her mother became ill. “They gave me stability... It was the perfect first pie,” she says. She went on giving pies to former colleagues, grocery clerks, even a homeless man. As word spread, she got known as “the pie lady”. For more than 30 years, Mia had worked as a city planner. “I’m a planner by nature, training and profession. What I really liked about it was that planning takes time, chaos, many different components, puts them all together and makes them into something manageable.” She sees the same in baking pies: “You take a bunch of ingredients and create something out of them.” Twelve years on, Mia has continued to invent new projects, including writing a letter a day, and painting pictures of her local sky. She is writing a book about the pie experience. But she has learned more than baking. “What really came out of it was the understanding that I was someone who could do new things,” she reflects. “And my professional identity wasn’t critical to who I am.” “Even now, after I have an encounter with somebody, I think: ‘There’s a person I wish I could give a pie to.’” says Mia. 4. What was Mia’s worry when she retired? A. Her serious mental problem. B. Her being cut off from others. C. Having no identity beyond career. D. Having to change her daily routine. 5. Why did Mia give her first pie to her aunt? A. She had given Mia a home. B. She had cared for Mia’s mum. C. She was the oldest in the family. D. She had built Mia’s stable character. 6. What do city planning and baking pies have in common according to Mia? A. Both require professional training. B. Both make sense of mixed elements. C. Both create something out of nothing. D. Both connect people with one another. 7. What is Mia’s reflection on her experience? A. Everyone in the world deserves a pie. B. New challenges redefine who we are. C. Opening up to changes takes courage. D. Simple acts can bring people together. C Festivals are meant for music, dancing, and celebration — not for leaving behind piles of rubbish. While this idea has long been a shared belief among festival-goers, the reality often tells a different story. Festivals like Coachella and Stagecoach produce about 214,000 pounds of waste a day, and only a fifth of it is recycled. The carefree feeling at festivals — where people try to escape everyday duties — can sometimes lead to careless habits, like throwing things away without thinking. But this also gives us a chance to help people change how they act. If festival-goers learn to take responsibility for their impact on the environment while they’re there, they might keep those good habits when they return home. “That’s why we need festivals that show what a clean, waste-free event can look like,” says Heather White, founder of One Green Thing. “If people’s attitudes don’t change, even strong government rules won’t solve the problem.” This idea finds its purest expression in Norway’s Oya Festival. As Norway’s largest outdoor music festival, Oya is recognized as Europe’s Greenest Festival. First, nearly all of the 22,000 attendees travel to the festival by public transport or bike, which removes the biggest source of pollution at most festivals-travel. Second, while UK festivals burn about 100 million gallons of diesel fuel every year, Oya runs almost entirely on clean energy. This is possible because more than 90% of Norway’s electricity comes from renewable sources like water and wind. Finally, to reduce plastic waste, Oya forbade single-use plastics in 2019. Nearly all food packaging is turned into a renewable fuel after the festival. About 60% of the festival’s total waste is recycled, which is about three times the rate at Coachella. Oya proves that it’s possible to have fun while protecting the environment. But one green festival alone can’t fix the planet’s problems. Only when the whole music industry works together can we expect festivals with pure joy and no pollution. 8. Why are the two festivals mentioned in paragraph 1? A. To compare their musical styles. B. To show how fun festivals can be. C. To introduce popular music events. D. To give examples of wasteful festivals. 9. What’s important for green festivals, according to Heather White? A. Government measures. B. Festival-goers’ feeling. C. People’s attitude change. D. Careless environmental habits. 10. How does the author show the effectiveness of Oya’s measures? A. By giving expert advice. B. By making comparisons. C. By listing government rules. D. By telling an inspiring story. 11. What can we infer from the last paragraph? A. Oya is the only green festival in Europe. B. The music industry needs to join hands. C. Pure joy is hard to achieve at music festivals. D. Oya Festival has completely got rid of pollution. D At any bus stop or while waiting in line, most people will have their heads down scrolling (滚屏) on their phones. But studies suggest if you resist that urge and let your mind wander instead, there could be some serious benefits. We actually spend nearly half our waking time daydreaming, but it isn’t always pleasant. A study found people even preferred electric shocks to being alone with their thoughts. This explains why we automatically reach for phones during downtime Social psychology professor Erin Westgate compares mindless scrolling to “brain candy” — momentarily pleasurable but lacking in meaning. She adds human achievements largely come from higher-order thinking. So next time you have a few minutes free, put away your phone and let your mind wander. Many people fear boredom, but this fear is often overblown. In a 2022 study, people predicted they would hate 20 minutes alone doing nothing, yet afterward reported greater enjoyment than expected. According to researcher Kou Murayama, the ability to mentally wander — to reflect on past experiences, and consider others’ viewpoints — is a distinctly human capacity that boosts learning and helps understand others. Mind-wandering is also key to problem-solving. People often find solutions better after unfocused thinking than intentional effort alone, especially during routine tasks like driving or showering. Even when people are not actively thinking, their brains remain active in a so-called default mode (默认模式), allowing ideas to connect in new ways. It’s especially helpful for complex problems. Beyond cognitive (认知的) benefits, daydreaming also boosts social and emotional connections. A study found imagining pleasant interactions with loved ones made people feel closer. Social daydreaming allows individuals to practice conversations, reflect on past interactions, and prepare for future social situations. As psychologist Poerio says, our ability to mentally “time travel” helps us better handle the social world. Murayama says he now tries to resist checking his phone during short waits and let his thoughts wander. He finds simply entertaining oneself mentally can be both satisfying and meaningful. 12. Why does Erin Westgate compare mindless scrolling to “brain candy”? A. It does harm to people’s health. B. It helps people to avoid boredom. C. It replaces deep thinking in daily life. D. It brings quick but shallow enjoyment. 13. What is the 2022 study used to demonstrate? A. Phone addiction is avoidable. B. Daydreaming is undervalued. C. Being alone promotes learning. D. Self-reflection defines humans. 14. What does the default mode suggest? A. Unfocused thinking fuels creativity. B. Intentional effort brings new ideas. C. Complex tasks require active minds. D. Routines involve little brain activity. 15. Which of the following is a suitable title for the text? A. Maintain Focus in the Digital Age B. Discover the Joy of Being Truly Alone C. Unlock the Power of Your Wandering Mind D. Explore Secret Benefits of Social Daydreaming 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) We all know that eating too much sugar isn’t good for us, as its consumption is linked to health dangers like obesity, heart disease, and cancer. Reducing sugar intake not only helps you avoid the harm of overconsumption. ____16____ The first thing to understand is that not all sugar is bad for you because there’s a big difference between natural sugars and added sugars. ____17____ They provide energy and sweetness, urging us to eat food rich in vitamins, minerals and nutrients that offset the sugar. For instance, a medium mango has over 20g of natural sugar but plenty of fiber for absorption. ____18____ Added during processing, cooking or at the table, they’re listed as “added sugars” on labels, with over 200 names like “honey” or “corn syrup”. What’s worse, added sugars offer no meaningful nutrients — they’re “empty calories”. ____19____ Too much intake raises risks of immune system disorders, high blood pressure and over a dozen cancers. A 2023 study links 35% more added sugar to 65% higher risk of heart disease and a 10% higher risk of stroke. They also feed harmful gut bacteria, causing inflammation and mental health issues. Cutting added sugars boosts quality of life. It lowers depression risk, enhances focus before tests, reduces acne for better skin, and calms the brain for better sleep. ____20____ You benefit from permanent reduction, but even temporary cuts work — 8 weeks of a low-sugar diet improves teens’ liver health, and type 2 diabetes also drops rapidly. A. Many struggle to cut sugar due to strong desires. B. Added sugars, however, are a wholly different story. C. Importantly, the benefits can appear in a very short time. D. Processed foods often hide huge amounts of added sugars. E. Moreover, it brings surprising benefits you will enjoy soon. F. Their true danger lies in the harm they do to bodily systems. G. Natural sugars in bread, fruit and milk are naturally existing. 第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 完形填空 (共15个小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 Weeks ago, I was in line to check out in a large store. In front of me was a mom, who was ____21____ four large cans of baby formula (配方奶) with a special card. However, the ____22____ failed. I badly wanted to pay for her but something ____23____ me — I didn’t want to make the mom feel offended (冒犯) and I was shy. ____24____, she gave up the formula and left. I regretted ____25____ the opportunity to help. Days ago, I was in the same store and I ____26____ another woman behind me had four large cans of baby formula and coupons (优惠券) in her hand. After I checked out, I hung around, feeling I might have a special ____27____. I was right. There was a(n) ____28____ with the woman’s coupons and she felt sorry for holding up the line. Gathering my courage and hoping she wouldn’t feel ____29____, I asked if it was OK with her if I paid for her formula. She agreed because she didn’t want to cause more ____30____ to people behind her. Later, she told me she was having a ____31____ time and thanked me for helping her out. She asked me why I ____32____. I said I’d received the same ____33____ as a young mom and I wanted to pay it forward. She ____34____ to do so as well. I didn’t tell her that it was my second chance to help a mom and I was ____35____ I could seize it. 21. A. donating B. comparing C. promoting D. purchasing 22. A. payment B. debate C. advertisement D. proposal 23. A. sheltered B. shaped C. stopped D. pushed 24. A. Similarly B. Eventually C. Regularly D. Fortunately 25. A. accepting B. assessing C. missing D. providing 26. A. predicted B. suspected C. ensured D. noticed 27. A. challenge B. encounter C. mission D. award 28. A. experiment B. bond C. reaction D. issue 29. A. embarrassed B. tested C. monitored D. abandoned 30. A. misinformation B. inconvenience C. excitement D. extinction 31. A. tough B. productive C. safe D. busy 32. A. held on B. stepped forward C. fell behind D. shouted out 33. A. recognition B. patience C. praise D. kindness 34. A. pretended B. declined C. promised D. managed 35. A. grateful B. afraid C. confident D. regretful 第二节 (共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Have you ever had this kind of childhood memory: a family sits together casually during a holiday, drinking and tasting tea after lunch or dinner? This has been a ____36____ (day) activity for Chinese people throughout the history. After being spread to different parts of the world, tea has been recognized ____37____ a shared cultural treasure of mankind. “The ____38____ (practice) of greeting guests with tea are shared among multiple ethnic groups. They provide ____39____ sense of identity and continuity for communities, groups and individuals ____40____ (concern)” states a document from the Ministry of Culture and Tourism to UNESCO. This explanation can be fully manifested by weilu zhucha, which ____41____ (mean) boiling tea at a stove, a social tea activity going viral among the young generation of Chinese people. By the end of November, 2022, videos recording or introducing this activity ____42____ (play) 1.14 billion times, and related posts had attracted 11.58 million views on social media platforms, reported by CCTV. Weliu zhucha might be a replacement in the cold seasons for the camping craze. ____43____ (sit) around with friends and families with a stove, some tea, fruit and refreshments on the table, people may chat, view the surrounding scenery, ____44____ be immersed (沉浸) in traditional Chinese culture by boiling tea together in person. “____45____ attracts me most is its warm atmosphere when boiling tea.” an Internet user commented on Sina Weibo. 第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (满分15分) 46. 假定你是李华，上周你参加了学校组织的“走进科技农场 (Exploring Smart Farms)”研学活动。请你给新西兰朋友Oliver写一封邮件分享这次经历，内容包括： 1. 你的见闻； 2. 你的感想。 注意： 1. 写作词数应为80左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Oliver, I’m thrilled to share my recent experience of “Exploring Smart Farms” organized by our school last week. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节 (满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I want every high school student to know: You don’t have to be perfect. You don’t have to join in many extracurricular activities or get perfect test scores. What matters is that you work hard, believe in yourself, and let your true self shine. I was once a girl who doubted whether I could ever get into Harvard University, but with hard work and a little faith, I made it. And so can you. In high school, such a belief felt out of reach to me. Those days were full of self-doubt. I would spend hours watching videos of students online talking about their perfect extracurricular activities — ten clubs, volunteer work abroad, internships at big companies — and compare myself to them. I only had a few after-school activities: attending the book club, tutoring younger students in math, and playing on the girls’ soccer team. My test scores were good, but not perfect. Every time I saw those “perfect” numbers online, I felt like I was falling behind, and I even thought about giving up my dream of going to a top university. Everything changed the day my teacher, Cathy, pulled me aside. She noticed I was feeling down and asked me what was troubling me. I told her about my doubts, the numbers and activities that made me feel inadequate (缺乏信心的). She smiled and handed me a brochure about Harvard’s admissions process. “Ana,” she said gently, “colleges like Harvard don’t just look at numbers. They look at the whole person — your struggles, your efforts, your growth, and the opportunities you’ve had. You don’t have to be perfect; you just have to be yourself.” Those words hit me like a ray of light. For the first time, I realized that my background, my hard work, and my unique story were not weaknesses — they were part of who I was, and they mattered. 注意： （1）续写词数应为150个左右； （2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 From that day on, I stopped comparing myself to others and focused on doing my best. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ When applying to colleges, I hesitated before adding Harvard. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2026届南京市第六十六中学校内三模英语试卷 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，只交答题卡。 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案涂在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the woman want to do? A. Wash some plates. B. Prepare a cloth. C. Clean a shelf. 2. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Sister and brother. C. Teacher and student. 3. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Finding a violinist. B. Forming a band. C. Learning the drums. 4. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. On a plane. B. On a train. C. On a bus. 5. What did the man buy? A. Socks. B. Shorts. C. Shoes. 第二节 (共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 6. What does the man want to do at first? A. Order takeout. B. Go out for dinner. C. Eat what they have. 7. What does the man order? A. A burger. B. A salad. C. An onion pie. 8. What does the woman want to learn? A. Gardening skills. B. Computer skills. C. Cooking skills. 9. What do we know about the woman? A. She has bad eyesight. B. Her mind isn’t active. C. She has a poor memory 10. What will the woman probably do next? A. Buy a new ring. B. Go to the town hall. C. Call the night school. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 11. What does the man think of the end of the book? A. It’s exciting. B. It’s amusing. C. It’s disappointing. 12. Where did the man get the book? A. On a train. B. In a bookstore. C. In a library. 13. What will the man do next? A. Read the book again. B. Give the book to the woman. C. Recommend the book to others. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 14. Why does the man meet the woman? A. To study for an exam. B. To have a meal together. C. To discuss their study plan. 15. Which subject does Mr. Potter teach? A. Math. B. Geography. C. History. 16. Where will the woman go this afternoon? A. A park. B. A soccer field. C. A pool. 17. How does the woman sound in the end? A. Expectant. B. Thankful. C. Confused. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。 18. What is the purpose of the event? A. To present awards. B. To raise money for schools. C. To celebrate Rob Cook’s retirement. 19. How much money was raised by the community last year? A. $35,000. B. $30,000. C. $25,000. 20. Which award did Rob Cook get first? A. The White Flower. B. The Pink Rose. C. The Gold Star. 第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. B 3. A B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. A 6. B 7. B C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. C 10. B 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. B 14. A 15. C 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. E 17. G 18. B 19. F 20. C 第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 完形填空 (共15个小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. B 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. C 35. A 第二节 (共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. daily 37. as 38. practices 39. a 40. concerned 41. means 42. had been played 43. Sitting 44. and 45. What 第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40分) 第一节 (满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Oliver, I’m thrilled to share my recent experience of “Exploring Smart Farms” organized by our school last week. It impressed me most to see how technology is changing agriculture. We visited a high-tech farm where robots do the watering and drones monitor crop growth. Standing in the greenhouse, I watched sensors control temperature and humidity automatically. It is this smart system that helps farmers save time, cut down waste, and increase production. We even saw robotic arms picking ripe tomatoes with great care. I now realize that farming is no longer just about hard work — it’s about working smart. Technology can make agriculture more sustainable and efficient. I hope you can experience it yourself one day! Yours, Li Hua 第二节 (满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】参考范文： From that day on, I stopped comparing myself to others and focused on doing my best. I threw myself into the activities I loved: leading book club discussions, spending more time tutoring students who needed help, and even organizing a small fundraiser for a local children’s shelter with my soccer team. It wasn’t always easy — there were nights when I stayed up late studying for exams, weekends I spent volunteering instead of hanging out with friends, and moments when I still felt like giving up. But whenever I felt discouraged, I thought of Cathy’s words. When applying to colleges, I hesitated before adding Harvard. My hands trembled as I clicked “submit” on my application. I told myself that even if I didn’t get in, I was proud of how hard I had worked. Weeks later, when I received the acceptance letter in the mail, I couldn’t believe my eyes. What made it even more amazing was that Harvard offered me a full scholarship through their need-based financial aid programs — all because of the hard work I had put in during high school. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $