天津市静海区第一中学2025-2026学年第二学期高一6月学生学习能力调研英语试题

**基本信息** 静海一中高一英语6月调研卷（120分），通过医院患者互助、AI辅助学习等生活化与时代性情境，融合学法题设计，考查语言能力与学习能力。 **题型特征** |题型|题量/分值|知识覆盖|命题特色| |----|-----------|----------|----------| |完形填空|20题/20分|语篇理解、词汇运用|以医院患者互助故事渗透情感教育，考查上下文逻辑| |阅读理解|15题/30分|社会热点（骨髓移植）、人文（倾听重要性）|含学法题要求提炼标题选择方法，强化学习策略| |写作|1题/15分|应用文写作|围绕AI辅助英语学习创设情境，贴近科技前沿，考查表达能力| |单项填空|15题/15分|词汇辨析、语法（时态/从句）|设易混题组（如10-11题区分定语从句关系词），聚焦易错点|

静海一中2025-2026第二学期高一英语（6月） 学生学业能力调研试卷 命题人：姚庆丽 审题人：董志红 考生注意： 本试卷分第Ⅰ卷基础题（84分）和第Ⅱ卷提高题（21分）第Ⅲ卷听力(15分) 共三部分，含3分卷面分，共120分。 知 识 与 技 能 学习能力（学法） 总分 内容 语言能力 听力理解 学法题 作文 120分 分数 80分 15分 7分 15分 第Ⅰ卷 基础题（共84分） 第一节：单项填空（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。 1.---- Do you remember little Julien from Grade Two? ---- Well, ______, but I can't quite think who he is. A. It's up to you B. that's a good point C. I really envy you D. that name rings a bell 2. The witness (目击者)gave the police a vivid and full________ of the accident. A. account B. desire C. instance D. origin 3. To deal with unexpected situations, employees need to stay ________ and adjust their ways timely. A. accurate B. passive C. flexible D. mental 4. We should judge a person ________ his inner quality instead of his appearance. A. in view of B. in terms of C. in favor of D. in honor of 5.You can ________ the small and unnoticeable(不引人注目的) device to your pet so that you can easily find it. A. confirm B. attach C. resolve D. stimulate 6. When preparing for the school project, we needed to _______ a creative idea, as we couldn’t just copy others’ work. A. put up with B. catch up with C. come up with D. keep up with 7. Everyone believes that this young player ______ handling all kinds of tough challenges well. A.is fond of B. is proud of C. is capable of D. is tired of 8. Currently, about 35,000 works, along with various art forms ________ in over 300 rooms in the Louvre, and it would take a lifetime to see everything. A. were displaying B. are displaying C. were being displayed D. are being displayed 9. ---- The machine is working again! ---- Yes, it broke down yesterday, but it _______. A.has been fixed B. is being fixed C. had been fixed D. would be fixed 易混易错题组（10-11题） 10. Children should be encouraged to participate in social activities __________ they can develop their team spirit. 11. Children should be encouraged to participate in social activities __________ can help them develop their team spirit. A. where B. which C. who D. when 12.The report doesn’t provide definite proof, but it suggests that climate change ________ have affected the local ecosystem. A. must B. should C. might D. need 13. During the Spring Festival, many people stick to their posts, ________ their time and energy to ensuring a safe and harmonious festival for everyone. A. devoted B. devoting C. to devote D. having devoted 14.The hikers made a series of marks on the way ________ they would get lost in the mountain. A. so that B. as though C. even though D. in case 15.--- I feel so exhausted and I almost want to give up this challenging competition. --- ________. As long as you keep trying, you will make progress. A. Never say never B. It doesn't matter C. You are kidding D. Sounds great 第二节：完形填空（共20小题：每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下面短文，从各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项并在答题卡上将其涂黑。 On a beautiful Wednesday morning, I awoke in a shared room in the hospital. Long curtains had been pulled around my bed, 16 me from the other patients. I had broken my right leg the night before. It was still summer, but mine was 17 . On the other side of my bed curtain, I heard a patient cheerfully 18 every nurse as they entered the room, as if welcoming each into his home. He called them by name and asked 19 about their families. I never heard this man whisper a word about his own 20 . That night I wept. I thought about how my schoolwork would be 21 and all the things I could, temporarily, no longer do. I awoke early the next morning, 22 of the uncertain days ahead. The 23 of the room was soon broken by a quiet voice from behind the curtain. “Good morning,” the voice said calmly, clearly 24 at me. “Are you doing okay?” The man must have heard me 25 the night before. Hesitantly, I responded. From there he drew me into a(n) 26 . We talked endlessly through the curtain to pass the time, without seeing each other. Every day he would greet me with cheer, “Good morning, Caroline. You are going to 27 this.” This stranger became my cheerleader, as if it was his mission to lift me up from my 28 . He 29 me to find the best in all difficult situations. Life is not always easy, he would say, but you have to 30 and look for the positive. Days later when the curtain was drawn, I saw this 31 old man for the first time. 32 his own ill health, he continued to coach me from his hospital bed in the days that followed. My discharge papers (出院证明) were finally signed and I waited 33 to get home. As I was wheeled out of the room, I said my final goodbye to the old man. I often think of my exceptional roommate and of what a(n) 34 he was to me. The impact he made during those difficult days in hospital still 35 . Thank you for being my ray of sunshine! 16. A. driving B. separating C. shooting D. injuring 17. A. next B. back C. over D. here 18. A. comforting B. assisting C. drafting D. greeting 19. A. sincerely B. hopefully C. thankfully D. confidently 20. A. attitude B. pain C. threat D. effort 21. A. ignored B. understood C. recommended D. affected 22. A. ashamed B. fond C. scared D. proud 23. A. silence B. agreement C. connection D. limit 24 A. protested B. directed C. imitated D. recorded 25. A. cheer B. appeal C. cry D. comment 26. A. conflict B. adventure C. operation D. conversation 27. A. get through B. come across C. care for D. focus on 28. A. astonishment B. craziness C. sadness D. embarrassment 29. A. promised B. ordered C. permitted D. encouraged 30. A. get away B. move on C. check out D. make up 31. A. strict B. ambitious C. optimistic D. honest 32. A. Despite B. Beyond C. Besides D. Until 33. A. doubtfully B. curiously C. eagerly D. politely 34. A. opportunity B. gift C. dream D. option 35. A. differs B. spreads C. occurs D. stays 第三节：阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分，学法题4分） 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Short Story Competition The V.S. Pritchett Short Story Prize The V.S. Pritchett Short Story Prize held by the Royal Society of Literature (RSL) annually is currently open for entries. Entries from those over 18 years old who are resident in the UK are welcome. Closes: 20 August Word limit: 2.000 — 4,000 words Entry fee: Free Prize: f 1000 and publication in Prospect online The Tasmanian Writers’ Prize Since 2009, Forty South Publishing has awarded writers the Tasmanian Writers’ Prize for the most outstanding short story submitted into this competition. Entries from Australian and New Zealand residents are welcome. Closes: 15 February Word limit: 3,000 — 4,000 words Entry fee: $20 Prize: $500 and publication in Forty South The Nature Writing Prize Created by the Nature Conservancy Australia, the Nature Writing Prize is open for submissions. Writers, 18 years and older, are invited to write an essay to explore their relationship and interaction with the Australian landscape. Closes: 19 February Word limit: 3,000 — 5,000 words Entry fee: $25 Prize: $7,500 and publication in Griffith Review online The Stringybark Open Short Story Award Stringybark Publishing is asking writers to enter a short story into the Stringybark Open Short Story Award. The judges are looking for a story written for an audience of 16 years and older. Closes: 31 January Word limit: 1,500 — 1,800 words Entry fee: $14 for 1 story, $26 for 2 stories, $36 for 3 stories (max) Prize: Over $1,000 in cash and books 36. What do we know about the competition held by the RSL? A. It is free for participants. B. Its deadline is 19 February. C. It is open for writers across the world. D. Its entries are for readers of 18 years or older. 37. Which is TRUE about the Tasmanian Writers’ Prize? A. It has an entry fee of $25. B. It has a history of 20 years. C. Its winner can get his story published. D. It welcomes entries from residents in the UK. 38. What is the word limit for stories exploring the human-nature relationship? A. 1,500 — 1,800 words. B. 2,000 — 4,000 words. C. 3,000 — 4,000 words. D. 3,000 — 5,000 words. 39. Which competition awards its winners cash and books? A. The Nature Writing Prize. B. The Tasmanian Writers’ Prize. C The V.S. Pritchett Short Story Prize. D. The Stringybark Open Short Story Award. 40. How many competitions have age requirement for participants? A. 1 B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. B As the lyrics to Taylor Swifs hit song "Bad Blood" go: "Cause, baby, now we got bad blood. You know it used to be mad love." It's a song about falling out of friendship, but to 14-year-old Hallie Barnard, who was born with a rare blood disorder, the song holds a much deeper meaning. At just 15 months old, Barnard was diagnosed with Diamon Blackfin Anemia, or DBA, and she spent most of her life in and out of the hospital. The Swiftie said she relied on the singer to bring her joy. The only way to survive DBA is with a bone marrow transplant（骨髓移植）and Barnard was desperate for one. But she knew thousands of other patients are, too. So, a few years ago, she decided to do something about it, creating her own foundation: Hallie's Heroes. "It started selfishly as just trying to save my life, but then we realized there were so many other children out there that needed a bone marrow transplant," she said. "So, so far we've tested 8,000 people and found over 300 matches." After a 9-year wait, Bamard got her own match —through her own foundation. But more obstacles stood between her and normal life as a kid. The blood disorder led to a cancer diagnosis: osteosarcoma. She received surgery to cut the cancer out of her leg at MD Anderson in Houston. The recovery was dificult, but Hallie said she stayed hopeful. "My survival instinct just kicked in. I was trying to do anything that I could to survive. So, of course, it was scary but in my mind, I was just thinking that I wanted to be at my sister's future weddings. I wanted to play games and run again," she said. Her survival instinct-combined with Taylor Swift-helped her through her operation, where doctors cut her cancer out, and reattached her foot and ankle to her upper leg to work as a knee. 41. Why does the author mention Taylor Swift's song "Bad Blood"? A. To stress the power of music. B. To introduce the topic of the text. C. To show Taylor Swift's popularity. D. To state Taylor Swift's song is a hit. 42. What is Hallie Barnard's original motivation for creating Hallie's Heroes? A. To raise money for her heroes. B. To treat her rare blood disorder. C. To help other children with DBA. D. To have an operation for her cancer. 43. What does the underlined phrase "kicked in" in paragraph 5 mean? A. begin to play a role B. disappear C. speed up D. break down 44. Which of the following can best describe Hallie Barnard? A. Strong-minded and selfish. B. Hard-working and patient. C. Kind and optimistic. D. Outgoing and helpful. 45. What's the best title for the text? A. "Bad Blood" Inspired More People B. Hallie's Heroes: a Useful Foundation C. Taylor Swift: a Popular Singer with Teens D. A Cancer Survivor Helped Others Find Matches 【学法题1】（2分）（方法规律提炼）请写出选择最佳标题的阅读解题方法：____________________________________________________________________________ C How many times have you found yourself in conversations with friends, family members or loved ones and discovered that you had completely tuned out to what they were saying? How much of our attention are we truly giving to the people who are supposed to be important to us? According to research cited(引用) by Wright State University, while most people believe they are good listeners who don’t need to improve their listening skills, the average person only listens at about 25 percent efficiency. So why aren’t we better listeners? As a society, we may be growing more narcissistic (自我陶醉的). A 2007 study found a rise in self-centeredness and narcissism among college students. If we, as a culture, are becoming more self-centered, how can we, as individuals, work to become more caring and compassionate communicators? We can begin by changing our attitudes toward conversations. As Stephen R. Covey wrote in The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People: Powerful Lessons in Personal Change, “Most people do not listen with the intent to understand but to reply.” A dialogue is an opportunity to learn, to see things from a new perspective, to open your eyes to new information and possibilities. Yet, too often we engage in conversation as if it’s a debate. We speak to hear our own voices — our own pre-existing opinions. In doing so, we tend to space out when spoken to. We wait, perhaps even patiently or politely, for the other person to finish, so we can say something we feel is of value. Playwright Wilson Mizner said, “A good listener is not only popular everywhere, but after a while, he knows something.” Listening doesn’t just expand our knowledge on an intellectual level; it enables us to have a more personal, in-depth understanding of our closest friends. Relationships are truly enriched by an equal back-and-forth exchange in communication. When these dynamics become more one-sided, we tend to lose interest and create distance in our friendships, with less trust established, less honesty exchanged. Thankfully, we can all improve our listening skills. Maybe we aren’t as good a listener as we believe. Do we tend to focus too much on ourselves — both in positive and negative ways? Do we get distracted by an inner coach, rather than living in the moment and really engaging in what’s being said? As we learn to quiet that inner voice in our minds, we can start to open ourselves up to others, becoming better listeners, thinkers, lovers and friends. 46. What is the author’s purpose in showing the social phenomena in Paragraph 1? A. To show most people are confident about their listening skills. B. To express his concerns about people’s lack of attention when talking. C. To introduce the fact that people have low efficiency of listening in life. D. To provide some information about how people behave in conversation. 47. Why does the author cite the research data from the year 2007? A. To prove college students have become more self-cenfered and narcissistic over time. B. To show the belief in people’s listening skills is outdated and needs to be updated. C. To provide an example of how society’s narcissism affects personal relationships. D. To support the argument that society is becoming more self-centered and narcissistic. 48. Based on the views of Stephen R. Covey and Wilson Mizner, which of the following statements is true? A. People should listen to learn and see things from a new perspective. B. A good listener is popular but does not necessarily know everything. C. Most people listen with the intention to understand, not to reply. D. We should speak to hear our own voices and pre-existing opinions. 【学法题2】（2分）（信息筛选题）请写出48题答题依据：____________________________________________________________________________ 49. What does the underline phrase “space out” in Paragraph 4mean? A. Become focused. B. Feel confused. C. Be absent-minded. D. Remain anxious. 50. Which of the following titles best captures the main idea? A. The Decline of Listening in Modern Society B. Improving Listening Skills for Better Relationships C. The Impact of Narcissism on Social Communication D. Why We Should Listen More and Speak Less 第四节：阅读表达（共 5 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10分） I used to be a selfish girl and I only thought of myself. I did not care about helping others, but only about my look, clothes, money and grades. One day, I was suddenly influenced by my neighbor, who is now in college, and ended up wanting to volunteer for others. He had so much fun with volunteering and told me that he felt extremely good after helping others. I hoped to get the same results, for I felt worthless everywhere then. I viewed almost everything in a negative way, and I figured I had to experience something that would make me appreciate things that I had. I volunteered at the nursing home for a year where my neighbor volunteered. I brought snacks, coffee and games for the elderly patients, talked to them while sharing snacks, and played games like chess and checkers with them. Because they were Koreans, they often had trouble communicating with the helpers who were hired to help them. I sometimes translated things for them and offered to be their translator whenever they needed help. By volunteering at the nursing home,I changed a lot. I realized how lucky I am to speak both Korean and English and that I should help other people learn Korean as well. I had learned many life lessons through volunteering. By helping others, I felt needed in society. Not only did it boost my confidence, but it also allowed others to benefit from it. Volunteering is a great opportunity to improve oneself, others, and the whole society. So if you ever have the chance, volunteer! It's something you won't regret. 51. What kind of person was the author before volunteering? ( no more than 5 words) _________________________________________________________________________ 52. Why did the author want to volunteer one day?( no more than 10 words) _________________________________________________________________________ 53. What did the author do when the elderly patients had difficulty in communicating with the workers?( no more than 10 words) _________________________________________________________________________ 54. What does the underlined word in Paragraph 4 mean? ( no more than 3 words) _________________________________________________________________________ 55. What do you think of volunteering after reading the text? ( no more than 20 words)(开放题) _________________________________________________________________________ 第五节：课文重点词汇考核（每题1 分，共5分） 56. The Tang emperors were very fond of horses, which meant that the animal was a f_______ subject for artists. 57. People all over the country sing high p_______ for those volunteers who devote themselves to helping people in need. 58. Modern technology plays a s________ role in improving people's daily working and living efficiency. 59. We need to collect enough evidence carefully so as to _________(建立) the truth of the whole accident finally. 60. A flash of lighting hit the kite, and electricity was ________ (导电，传导) through the string to the key. 第II卷 提高题（共21分） 第一节：改写句子（方法规律提炼题 共3分,61题1分,62题2分） 61. It is easy to see great art nowadays, because people are creating it everywhere you look.(请把划线部分改为被动语态) _________________________________________________________________________ 62. The young Han Gan was born into a poor family in the early Tang Dynasty. The young Han Gan had to help support his family by working in a local wine shop.(请用非谓语动词做状语，把两句合为一句) __________________________________________________________________ 第二节：写作（满分15分） 63. 假如你是李津，晨光中学高一学生。你的英国笔友Jack对人工智能AI辅助英语学习很感兴趣，他想了解你在英语学习中使用AI的情况。请你给他回一封邮件，内容包括： (1) AI软件（如Deepseek、豆包等）的功能，(如在学习，生活，工作等方面)； (2) AI软件对你学习英语的帮助； (3)你对AI辅助英语学习的看法。 注意：(1). 词数不少于100；(2). 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； (3). 开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Jack, I’m Li Jin. ...... Yours, Li Jin 第Ⅲ卷 听力部分（15分） ！！！注意：听力答案涂在答题卡上64-78！ 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分15分） 第一节（共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分） 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有 10 秒钟时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What will the man probably do tonight? A. Do his printing. B. Write his report. C. Finish his work. 2. What’s the man’s opinion about the film? A. He didn’t think much of it. B. He liked the fighting a lot. C. He agreed with Tom’s opinion. 3. When did the movie end? A. At 10:30 pm. B. At 10:40 pm. C. At 11:00 pm. 4. Where does this conversation take place? A. In the library. B. In the office. C. In a shopping center. 5. What did the man do yesterday? A. He went to see a doctor. B. He went to play football. C. He went to a park. 第二节（共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分） 听下面 3 段材料，每段材料后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段材料前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第 6 至第 8 三个小题。 6. When did Dennis Hutton die according to the dialogue? A. In 1836. B. In 1956. C. In 1920. 7. What did Dennis Hutton do when he was 15? A. He entered the University of London. B. He graduated from university. C. He went to America. 8. Why did Dennis Hutton go to New York? A. To further his study. B. To work as a teacher. C. To enjoy his holidays. 听下面一段对话，回答第 9 至第 11 三个小题。 9. What will the woman’s sister do next Monday? A. Travel around the city. B. Go to college. C. Buy some coffee. 10. What will the woman probably buy? A. A pair of sports shoes. B. A pair of sunglasses. C. A handbag. 11. What will the woman do on Sunday? A. Do some shopping. B. Go to the cinema. C. Take her dog for a walk. 听下面一段独白，回答第 12 至第 15 四个小题。 12. How many people went hiking together with the speaker? A. Six. B. Seven. C. Eight. 13. When did the huge rainstorm happen? A. On the second night.B. On the fifth night.C. On the last night. 14. What was the weather like on the third day? A. Rainy.B. Cloudy.C. Sunny. 15. What do we know about the speaker? A. He was convinced to go on the trip.B. He walked 100 miles in one week. C. He was disappointed with the trip. 卷面分：3 分 静海一中2025-2026第二学期高一英语（6月） 学生学业能力调研试卷答案 单项选择 （每小题1分，共15分） 1-5 DACBB 6-10 CCDAA 11-15 BCBDA 完型填空 （每小题1分，共20分） 16-2BCDAB 21-25DCABC 26-30DACDB 31-35CACBD 阅读理解 （每小题2分，共30分） 36-40 ACDDB 41-45BBACD 46-50 CDACB 【学法题1】（2分）（方法规律提炼）选择最佳标题的阅读解题方法： (1) . 看首尾段，找每段主旨句，标题一定贴合主旨。 （写出第一条可以给2分） (2). 抓高频重复词,反复出现的名词/主题词 (3). 比对语气贴合, 故事类抓人物情感；议论文抓观点；说明文抓介绍对象。 【学法题2】 (2分）（信息筛选题）写出48题答案的出处： 第四段第三行A dialogue is an opportunity to learn, to see things from a new perspective, to open your eyes to new information and possibilities. 和第五段第一行Playwright Wilson Mizner said, “A good listener is not only popular everywhere, but after a while, he knows something.” 写出其中一处即可。 阅读表达 （每小题2分，共10分） 51. She was a selfish person./She was selfish. 52. Because she wanted to experience some positive changes. Or: Because she was influenced by her neighbor. Or: Because she wanted to experience something making her feel good. 53. She offered to be their translator whenever they needed help. Or: She sometimes translated things for them 54. Improve/Increase/Enhance/Raise. 55. I think volunteering not only helps those who need help, but also benefits the givers and the society.(只写最后一段第一句，给1分) 单词填空 （每小题1分，共5分） 56.frequent 57.praises 58. significant 59. establish 60. conducted 书面表达 （61题1分，62题2分，共3分） 61. It is easy to see great art nowadays,because it is being created everywhere you look. 62. Born into a poor family in the early Tang Dynasty, the young Han Gan had to help support his family by working in a local wine shop. 63.作文 （满分15分） Dear Jack, I’m Li jin. Knowing that you are curious about how I use AI to learn English, I’d like to share my experience with you, hoping you can like it. AI software like Doubao and Deepseek serves people well in study, life and work. Not only can they explain academic knowledge and offer translations for learners but also they can answer all kinds of questions in our daily life. For work, it helps deal with documents and polish articles. What’s more, AI software greatly aids my English study. I practice oral English and get my compositions revised with it. When I meet unfamiliar words or difficult knowledge points after class, AI can give detailed and easy-to-understand explanations immediately, saving me a lot of time In my view, AI is a great learning helper, but we should never depend on it entirely. Hope my sharing helps. Looking forward to your reply. Yours, Li Jin. 听力部分 (每小题1分，满分15分) 听力：1-5 CABCB 6-10 CABBA 11-15 BBACA 高一英语（6月）学生学业能力调研试卷 第 10 页 共14页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $