2026年浙江绍兴市柯桥区九年级中考适应性练习英语试卷

2026年九年级中考适应性练习 英语试卷 考生须知： 1.本卷共四部分，76小题，满分120：考试时间100分钟。 2.答案必须写在答题纸相应的位置上，写在试题卷、草稿纸上均无效。 3.答题前，请认真阅读答题纸上的《注意事项》，按规定答题。 第一部分听力理解（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最 佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和 阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1.Who will the boy buy the birthday gift for? A.His mother B.His father. C.His sister. 2.Where are the speakers probably talking? A.In a library. B.In a classroom. C.In a restaurant. 3.Why did the girl call Tom? A.To invite him to her house B.To ask him to bring her book. C.To borrow a book from him. 4.What time will the girl arrive at the station? A.At8:00 B.At8:10 C.At8:20. 5.What does the man probably mean? A.He can't repair her bike. B.He doesn't know the way C.He can't drive the woman there. 第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选 出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。 英语试卷-1 听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 6.Why didn't Lily go to the party last night? A.She was badly ill. B.She had to study C.She forgot the time. 7.How did Jack feel that Lily didn't show up? A.Angry. B.Disappointed. C.Embarrassed 听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10小题 8.What will the girl do this Sunday morning? A.Have a piano lesson. B.Have a picnic. C.Go for a bike ride 9.When will they go for a picnic? A.This Sunday afternoon. B.Next Saturday. C.Next Sunday. 10.How will they get to the picnic place? A.By bike. B.On foot. C.By bus. 第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选 项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟：听完后， 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。 11.What activity did the speaker take part in last Saturday? A.Visiting an old people's home. B.Cleaning up the community. C.Planting trees in the garden. 12.Who did the speaker go with? A.His parents B.His friends. C.His classmates 13.Why did they walk there? A.It was near the school B.There was no bus. C.They wanted to exercise. 14.How long did they spend on the activity? A.For about two hours. B.For about three hours. C.For about four hours. 15.What does the speaker think of this activity? A.Meaningful. B.Boring. C.Relaxing 第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 英语试卷-2 Mount Fuji Climbing Summer climbing registration (for Mount Fuji,Japan's highest mountain,is now open To avoid heavy crowds and make climbing safer and more enjoyable,Yamanashi Prefecture began to use an online registration system in 2024.A gate was built at the mountain's 5th station to manage visitors. ........000.000 Important Rules for Climbers All climbers must sign up online ahead of time. Each person needs to pay 4,000 yen (about 25 dollars)to pass the gate. Group leaders have to offer clear information,including the number of climbers,climbing time and whether they will stay in mountain houses. Basic Safety Tips Take warm clothes because it is cold on the mountain Wear comfortable climbing shoes. Climbers are not allowed to keep climbing all night without rest. This year,people who only hike part of the yoshida Trail ( Good News from the foot to the 5th station don't need to pay the climbing fee. Wish all climbers have a safe and pleasant journey! 16.Why was the online registration system created? A.To raise more money. B.To interest more visitors. C.To make sure of safe climbing. D.To build more mountain stations. 17.Which of the following is TRUE according to the text? A.All hikers have to pay $4000 for climbing. B.Comfortable shoes will be prepared for climbers. C.Climbers can't climb in the daytime without rest. D.Group leaders should provide clear climbing time. 18.Where is the text most probably from? A.A travel diary. B.A news report. C.A public notice. D.A book review. 英语试卷-3 B Marco Rovati,a Croatian shipbuilding expert with 35 years of experience,is now working at the CSSC Shanghai Waigaoqiao Shipyard.Four years ago,he joined a project in Shanghai- helping build cruise ships (for Adora Cruises.At the time China had not yet built its first large cruise ship. "It was the will for the challenge that brought me here,"he said."Helping China's shipbuilding industry develop the cruise market is challenging and meaningful." Now,Rovati serves as the project manager.He has trained a group of young Chinese engineers."They are becoming a real cruise ship management team,"he said proudly.He often speaks highly of the united and supportive working style at the Chinese shipyard,where all the members from different departments take part in meetings and checks.This is quite different from European yards. Rovati enjoys his life in Shanghai.He loves the delicious food and feels almost at home.He has also watched the city change rapidly.In 2025,he was honored with the Chinese Government Friendship Award for his outstanding efforts for China's development. Looking to the future,Rovati is open-ended but hopeful."At the moment,I don't make plans," he said,"but I would like to work on further new projects in China's cruise building industry."He stresses the importance of keeping on building ships to train more engineers.Although he plans to let younger people take his place one day,he now has no end to how many ships he will build.As the Adora Flora City is ready to sail,Rovati is looking ahead to a future he wants to be part of. 19.Why did Rovati come to Shanghai four years ago? A.To experience the life in China. B.To help build large cruise ships. C.To visit the shipyard in Shanghai. D.To learn new shipbuilding technology. 20.What does Rovati praise in the Chinese shipyard according to Paragraph 3? A.Strong team spirit. B.Fast training speed. C.High level technology. D.Rich working experience. 21.Which of the following words can best describe Rovati? A.Strict. B.Honest. C.Responsible. D.Humorous. 22.What can we infer from Rovati's future plan? A.He'll go back to his country directly B.He'll win more prizes for his company. C.He'll soon pass down his work to the youth.D.He'll continue working on shipbuilding. 英语试卷-4 0 Cathy knows that she has an article that must be handed in on Monday.However,instead of beginning work on it today,she waits until the last minute.Of course,it is impossible to write an article in one night,so she gets a bad grade.She then kicks herself for not starting earlier and promises to do better next time. Does Cathy's story sound familiar?Like Cathy,many of us procrastinate-we put off doing something important until the last moment.But why do we do this?Some research shows that we do it because of negative feelings.We put off doing the work in order to avoid these bad feelings. Sadly,we are more likely to fail or do poorly.This creates even more negative feelings and makes it more likely that we will delay the next time. The long-term solution to this problem is to deal with our negative feelings.We need to forgive (ourselves for failing.We need to accept that sometimes we will not meet the mark. We also need to realize that difficult work isn't always a bad thing.It is through difficulty that we learn and grow. So what can we do?Here are some tips.First,realize that once we face our fears and get started,our fears often go away,and we start to enjoy the work.Second,break large projects into small parts,then take each thing step by step.Third,give yourself a treat for getting a step done. Relax or do something fun,then get back to work.Finally,stay away from temptation.This means if you chat with friends to put off work,then work alone or find a place where nothing breaks your focus. In the end,it is up to you and the actions you take to overcome procrastination.So what are you waiting for? 23.How does the writer start the passage? A.By giving an example. B.By asking a question C.By introducing an article. D.By listing some facts 24.What does the underlined word"delay"in Paragraph 2 probably mean? A.give up B.set off C.speed up D.put off 25.Which of the following can help to overcome procrastination? A.Avoid doing things that may lead to failure.B.Face fears and then begin to work. C.Design a suitable project before working.D.Keep talking with friends while studying. 26.What's the purpose of the passage? A.To explain the reason for Cathy's poor article B.To show the influence of negative feelings. C.To describe common problems in people's life D.To encourage us to deal with procrastination. 英语试卷-5 D Scientists at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) have discovered that rice seeds(种子)that "hear'”the sound of raindrops seem to come out faster than those that do not.The study is the first to suggest that seeds can sense sound,and use the information to help themdecide when to come out. As surprising as it may sound,the idea that plants can"hear"isn't completely new.In 2014, scientists discovered that plants could respond(反应)to the sound of caterpillars(毛毛虫) chewing.Now scientists at MIT have published a study suggesting that rice seeds can sense the sound of raindrops hitting water. The researchers wanted to make sure that the seeds were responding to the sound of rain and not to its water.So they chose to focus on rice seeds because rice is usually grown in water,which made all seeds equally wet. For the experiment,the researchers placed thousands of rice seeds in water pools.All of the seeds had enough water to grow.Some of the water was kept completely quiet.But other pools were hit with falling drops of water to imitate real rain-light,medium,or heavy.As a result, seeds hit by falling water drops grew 30-40%faster than seeds in quiet water.Dr.Nicholas Makris, who led the study,says,"The energy of the rain sound is enough to speed up a seed's growth." Though it may seem strange to think about seeds"hearing"something,sound is really just a vibration ()The researchers believe the seeds may respond to water vibrations from falling raindrops.These vibrations are much more powerful underwater than in air. In their experiment,the MIT scientists only studied rice seeds,but they believe it's likely that other kinds of seeds may also be able to"hear"the rain. 27.What can we learn from Paragraph 1? A.The speed of rice seeds'growth. B.The ability of rice seeds to sense sound. C.Best time for rice seeds'growth. D.Suggestions on spreading rice seeds. 28.Why did the scientists choose rice seeds for the experiment? A.Because they are easy to find in the lab B.Because they grow faster than other seeds. C.Because rice growing in water keeps seeds wet. D.Because only rice seeds can hear sounds in water. 英语试卷-6 29.Which chart shows the speed of rice seeds'growth in the experiment? Growth speed A. B. Growth speed 75 70 65 65 60 5 40 Quiet water Light rain Medium rain Heavy rain Quiet water Light rain Medium rain Heavy rain C Growth speed Growth speed 45 Quiet water Light rain Medium rain Heavy rain Quiet water Light rain Medium rain Heavy rain 30.What can be the best title of the passage? A.Rice Seeds Sense the Sound of Rain B.A New Way to Grow Rice Faster C.Rain Helps All Kinds of Seeds D.The Importamnce of Rice Seeds 第二节任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选出正确的选项（其中一项是多余选项）， 将其序号填入第31-34小题，并回答第35小题。注意：请将第35小题的答案写在答题纸上 非选择题部分的相应位置。 Why Do We Feel Freer With Strangers? When you look at your photo,do you think it is truly yourself?Most people feel easy to be real when staying with strangers,while feeling nervous around people they know.Why does this happen? I meet lots of strangers in daily life.Though we share few same interests,I always feel comfortable with them.31 I can talk and behave naturally as long as I am polite. Do you have the same feeling?I can talk about my true thoughts easily with strangers. Perhaps it is because we may never meet again.But things are different with familiar persons.I sometimes keep away from certain topics with friends.32 It is hard to show new sides of myself.They may feel it is not like me.So why? 33 Sometimes we can treat our friends like strangers.We do not need to keep old manners,and can stop acting in the way they always see us.It helps us know each other better and be more like ourselves. When you meet new people,you can change your style,or express yourself freely.At first, people around you might feel surprised.Strangers will accept you as you are,but friends may take time to get used to it.34 When you stop living for others'ideas,you can finally feel free and proud of who you are. 英语试卷-7 A.I fear my words may sound strange B.I always feel free when talking to them. C.Making friends with strangers is easy. D.The problem is just about their old way of seeing me E.Soon they will come to know and accept the real you. 35.Do you like talking to strangers or people you know well?Why?(No more than 20 words) 第三部分语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) On April 19 at 8:20 a.m.,a red figure ran across the finish line of a half-marathon race in Beijing.It was me,Flashing,and I had just made 36. I'm not talking about human history.I'm a humanoid(人型的) robot designed 37 the company Honor.There was no 38 for a good night's sleep before my race,or time to catch my breath. My biggest challenge was not hitting others on the 39 field:over 300 robots took part in it. I finished in 50 minutes and 26seconds,faster than any of the 12,000humanruners.I 40 beat the human world-record holder,Jacob Kiplimo of Uganda.No wonder people clapped and 41 as I crossed the line But were they cheering just for me?Much of the honor should go to my 42.Designing and perfecting a winning robot is a marathon in itself.Have you ever 43 why my legs are over 90 centimeters long while my arms are so small?They are 44 shaped after the world's best human athletes.I also have a special cooling system,so I'm less likely to overheat.However, cooling remains a big 45 for other humanoids.Many of my competitors couldn't run fast simply because their motors()became too 46 during the race. Last year,when the first robot halfmarathon was held,many competitors hadto 47 halfway.The fastest robot finished in two hours and 40 minutes-it took longer time than 48.Maybe Robot runners do not show the same strength and courage as humans,49 this race does show just as much spirit. What does the future hold?When can we run fast enough in accidents to help50 lives? Part of the answer may come from you. 36.A.interviews B.decisions C.history D.pleasure 37.A.as B.by C.into D.with 38.A.need B.reason C.mind D.plan 39.A.special B.safe C.clean D.crowded 英语试卷-8 40.A.never B.seldom C.even D.just 41.A.cheered B.laughed C.waited D.talked 42.A.fans B.competitors C.friends D.engineers 43.A.worried B.wondered C.agreed D.checked 44.A.blindly B.simply C.hardly D.carefully 45.A.problem B.advantage C.difference D.change 46.A.noisy B.slow C.hot D.weak 47.A.look around B.go off C.drop out D.pull down 48.A.it B.me C.them D.him 49.A.so B.but C.and D.or 50.A.waste B.destroy C.risk D.save 第二节词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分) A.将方框中所给词语的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。 end up through million though get dry Many places in the world have so little rain that people can't get enough water.Scientists have found a new way that could help some of the biggest and 51 towns and cities in the world.The water from fog could offer drinking water to 52 of people. Researchers in Chile have been studying ways of 53 water from fog.It is collected on large mesh screens (that are hung between tall sticks When fog and clouds pass 54 the screens,drops of water stay on them.This water runs down into small pipes and 55 in water boxes,which helps people a lot.56 it hardly rains in some areas,people find it easy to collect water B.阅读下面短文，然后根据括号内所给汉语意思写出单词的正确形式（每空一词)。 The Old Man and the Sea is a short novel.Its writer is Ernest Hemingway from the US He uses plain and simple language to show different 57()of life around us. This great work tells a warm and moving story about an old fisherman called Santiago.He stayed out at sea and spent almost 58()days catching no fish at all.Luckily he finally got a huge fish,yet it soon 59()his quiet and relaxing trip on the wide sea. Santiago made up his mind and tried his best to fight 60()the fierce shark nearby.Sadly,the big fish was 61()in the end after a long fight.The old man returned home with nothing but fish bones. He never gives up easily when 62()all kinds of failure and trouble in life.He always encourages 63()to stick to his belief all the time.The great story reminds us to realize our own 64()goals and hold on to our dreams firmly.We should overcome all kinds of difficulties 65 and keep moving forward in our daily life. 英语试卷-9 第三节语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入，个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 Last October,A strong typhoon hit villages in western Alaska.It brought strong winds and big floods,destroy ing both countless homes and community systems. As the 66(villager)rushed to safe places in cities,many of them had to leave their pet dogs behind.67 felt sad because their animals weren't allowed on the planes.Some dogs were tied up outside buildings,while 68(other)were caught inside broken homes. Several days after the storm,an elderly man gave a callto alocal petrescue (group 69 (ask) about his dog."It really broke me 70 no one was helping the dogs left behind,"said Jesslyn Elliott,the organization's director.71 callpushedher and a vet (on her team to take action. In just one week,about 25 volunteers in the group saved 170 dogs.As this 72(excite) news spread,several rescue groups in southern Alaska came to help."Everyone in the pet community raced 73(quickly)than ever to help,"said Joel Jorgensen,a vet from southern Alaska."Since the rescue,it 74 (touch)many people's hearts." Many dog owners felt thankful to leam through social media that their pets were looked 75 well. "The storm was cruel,but in the end,no one was left behind,"one owner said. 第四部分书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 76.假设你是李华，你校英语报正在举办以Home Sweet Home''为主题的征文活动。请你根 据提示写一篇短文投稿。谈谈你让家变得更温馨的具体做法，并分享你在这个过程中的收获。 Benefits >learn life skills >understand each other Ways to Make Home Sweet >improve the relationship >help with housework y.… >communicate more >express love directly (hug,say thanks...) 要求：()短文应包含图中所给要点，可适当发挥： (2)文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息； (3)词数80词左右，标题和首句已给出，不计入总词数。 Home Sweet Home Home is the sweetest place for everyone. 此题请答在答题纸上 英语试卷-10这是九年级中考适应性练习英语试卷听力部分，该部分共分3节。注意做题时请先将答案划在试卷上，该部分录音内容结束后，你将有一分钟时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上。现在请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选择最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间回答这一小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。现在你有5秒钟的时间来阅读第一小题的有关内容。One, hi eric. What are . you doing in the shop? I'm looking for a gift for my mother. Her birthday is coming too. Good morning, sir. What can I do for you? I'd like a bowl of beef noodles and a glass of orange juice. Three, hi tom. This is amy. Could you bring my english book to school tomorrow? I loved IT at your house. sure. No problem. For Sally, when will you get to stay? The train leaves at eight twenty. Don't worry, it's eight o'clock now, and IT takes me ten minutes to walk there. Five, darling, could you drive me to the bus station? My bike is broken. I'm sorry. I lend my car to my friend. You can take the subway instead. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选择最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置，每段对话读两遍。听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间来阅读这两个小题。Hello, jack. Hi lily. Why didn't you come to my birthday party last night? I'm so sorry. I had a bad cold and had to stay in bed all evening. Oh, that's too bad. I was looking forward to seeing you. I feel really bad about letting you done. How about having dinner next weekend? That sounds . great. Hello, jack. Hi lily. Why didn't come to my birthday party . last night? I'm so sorry. I had a bad cold and had to stay in bed all evening. Oh, that's too bad. I was looking forward to seeing you. I feel really bad about letting you done. How about having dinner next weekend? That sounds . great. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间来阅读这三个小题。Hi, Linda. How's your weekend going? Pretty good. Just enjoy the Sunny weather. That's great to hear. Would you like to have a picnic with me this someday? The park by the river is supposed to be beautiful right now. I love to, but I have a piano lesson on sunday morning. What about next sunday? perfect. How do we go there? We can ride our bikes. There is only about fifteen minutes away, and the road along the river is . really nice. great. I can't wait. I will bring some snacks and drinks. Hi, Linda. How's your weekend going? Pretty good. Just enjoy the Sunny weather. That's great to hear. Would you like to have a picnic with me this sunday? The park by the river is supposed to be beautiful right now. I love to, but I have a piano lesson on sunday morning. What about next sunday? perfect. How do we go there? We can ride our bikes. There is only about fifteen minutes away, and the road along the river is really nice. great. I can't wait. I will bring some snacks and drinks. 第二节到此结束。第三节听。下面一段独白。独白后有五个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选择正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置，读白读两遍。现在你有25秒钟的时间来阅读这五个小题。Hello, everyone, i'd like to tell you about my volunteer activity. Last saturday, along with my classmates, I took part in a community cleanup project. We met at the community gate at nine o'clock AM. We went there on foot because IT was not far from our school. Once we arrived, we got strike to work. We picked up rubbish, cleaned the public chairs and water the flowers in the garden. After about three hours of hard work, we were all tied out. But seeing the clean neighborhood made us feel really happy and proud. IT was such a meaningful experience through this activity, we learned a lot about helping others and protecting our environment. Hello, everyone, i'd like to tell you about my volunteer activity. Last saturday, along with my classmates, I took part in a community clean up project. We met at the community gate at nine o'clock AM. We went there on foot because IT was not far from our school. Once we arrived, we got strike to work. We picked up rubbish, cleaned the public chairs and water the flowers in the garden. After about three hours of hard work, we were all tired out, but seeing the clean neighborhood made us feel really happy and proud. IT was such a meaningful experience through this activity, we learned a lot about helping others and protecting our environment. 第三节到此结束，现在你有一分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上，听力部分到此结束。 2026年九年级中考适应性练习英语试卷 参考答案及评分标准 参考答案 第一部分听力理解（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 1-5 ACBBC 第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 6-10ABACA 第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 11-15 BCABA 第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分》 第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，共计30分） 1620 CDCBA 21-25 CDADB 2630 DBCCA 第二节任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 31一34BADE35.答案不唯一，言之有理即可。 第三部分语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，共计15分） 3640 CBADC 41-45 ADBDA 46-50 CCBBD 第二节词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，共计15分） 51.driest 52.millions 53.getting 54.through 55.ends up 56.though 57.values 58.eighty 59.stopped 60.against 61.eaten 62.facing 63.himself 64.lifelong 65.bravely 第三节语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，共计10分） 66.villagers 67.They 68.others 69.to ask 70.because 71.the 72.exciting 73.more quickly 74.has touched 75.after 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 76.Possible version:(- Home Sweet Home Home is the sweetest place for everyone.In order to make my home warmer,I try to do something meaningful. First,I often help with housework,such as cleaning the rooms and washing dishes.By doing this,I have learned valuable life skills.Second,I communicate more with my parents.We share our feelings and daily experiences,which helps us understand each other better.Third,I express my love directly-a warm hug in the morning or a simple"thank you"at night really improves our relationship. These small actions make our home full of love and laughter.A sweet home is not only about a comfortable house but also about caring hearts. 1 Possible version:(二) Home Sweet Home Home is the sweetest place for everyone.In my daily life,I try to make my home warmer through simple but meaningful actions. For example,I always help with housework like sweeping the floor and setting the table.This not only teaches me life skills but also reduces my parents'stress.Besides,I make an effort to communicate more with my family.Sharing my joys and worries at the dinner table helps us understand each other deeply.Most importantly,I express love directly.A hug before leaving home and saying"I love you on birthdays truly improve our relationship From these experiences,I have learned that a sweet home is built with care and small acts of kindness. 2 评分标准 第1-5小题，每小题1分，共计5分。选错答案（包括多选或不选），一律不给分。 第6-15小题，每小题1.5分，共计15分。选错答案（包括多选或不选），一律不给分。 第16-30小题，每小题2分，共计30分。选错答案（包括多选或不选），一律不给分。 第31-34小题，每小题2分，共计8分。选错答案（包括多选或不选），一律不给分。 第35小题，共计2分。回答了所有问题但有1-2个错误的扣0.5分；回答了所有问题 但有3-4个错误的扣1分：回答了所有问题但有5个及以上错误的扣2分。答非所问的 扣2分。 第36-50小题，每小题1分，共计15分。选错答案（包括多选或不选），一律不给分。 第50-65小题，每小题1分，共计15分。写错答案，一律不给分。 第66-75小题，每小题1分，共计10分。写错答案，一律不给分。第76小题，共计20 分。按下列表格要求给分。 一、采分点 采分点 满分 可给分值 6-7 描述所有信息，内容合理、丰富 1. 内容充实，覆盖要 3-5 描述了大部分信息，内容比较合理 点（内容、要点） > 1-2 描述了小部分信息，内容不合理 0 没有作答或描述内容与主题无关 6-7用词贴切，句型变化多样有效，完全或基本没有语言错误 3-5用词基本贴切，句型较为单一，有少量语言错误但不影 2.用词适切，语法正 响理解 确，句型多样 > 1-2有较多语言错误，一定程度上影响理解 (词汇、语法、句型) 0有大量语言错误，影响理解 3-4行文连贯，连接词使用恰当，指代清晰 3.结构紧凑，意义连贯 (语意、连词、指代) 4 1-2行文不够连贯，连接词使用不够恰当，指代不够清晰 0 没有连贯的意识 2 大小写、标点正确，词数达标，书写规范整洁 4.书写规范，词数适宜 1 大小写、标点有部分错误，词数达标，书写尚可辨认 (标点符号、大小写、 0 词数) 大小写、标点错误较多，语言运用不规范，词数严重不 足，书写难以辨认 3 二、评分细则 1.本题总分20分，按5个档次给分。 2.根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整。 3.词数少于60，适度扣分。 4.应注意的主要内容：内容要点、词汇、语法结构及上下文的连贯性与逻辑性。 5.如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。 三、档次划分 包含所有要点，完全完成了试题规定的任务；有清晰文本框架，较多 的语法结构和词汇；有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧 第五档 18.—20分 凑，行文连贯，表达清楚；语言基本无误。 基本包含所有要点，遗漏少量要点，较全面地完成了试题规定的任务： 有较清晰的文本框架，比较多样的语法结构和词汇；行文基本连贯， 第四档 14-17分 表达基本清楚；语言有少量错误。 包含大多数要点，基本完成了试题规定的任务；少许语句不通顺，语 第三档 10-13分 言错误较多，但不影响整体理解。 只包含少数要点，未恰当完成试题规定的任务；多数语句不完整，语 第二档 6-9分 法结构单调，词汇项目有限，语言有较多错误，影响理解。 只包含个别要点，未完成试题规定的任务；多数语句不完整或意思不 1-5分 明，内容不连贯，错误很多。 第一档 未能传达给读者任何信息；写的内容均与所要求的内容无关或所写内 0分 容无法看清。报告查询：登录zhixue.com或扫描二维码下载App (用户名和初始密码均为准考证号) n 2026年九年级中考适应性练习 非选择题 英语答题卷 第二部分阅读理解 学校 姓名： 第二节任务型阅读(2分) 班级： 贴条形码区 35. 可啦职 (正面上，切勿贴出虚线方框 可 正确填涂 缺考标记 第一部分听力理解 1[A][B][C] 6[A][B][C] 11[A][B][C] 2[A][B][C] T[A][B][C] 12[A][B][C] 第三部分语言运用 3[A][B][C] 8[A][B][C] 13[A][B][C] 4[A][B][C] 9[A][B][c] 14[A][B][C] 第二节词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共15分） 5[A][B][C] 10[A][B][C] 15[A][B][C] 51. 52. 53. 第二部分阅读理解 第一节阅读理解 54. 55 56. 57. 58. 59. 16[A][B][C][D] 21[A][B][C][D] 26[A][B][C][D] 17[A][B][C][D] 22[A][B][C][D] 27[A][B][C][D] 18[A][B][C][D] 23[A][B][C][D] 60 61 62 28[A][B][C][D] 19[A][B][C][D] 24[A][B][C][D] 29[A][B][C][D] 63 64. 65. 20[A][B][C][D] 25[A][B][C][D] 30[A][B][C][D] 第二节任务型阅读 31[A][B][C][D][E] 32[A][B][C][D][E] 33[A][B][C][D][E] 34[A][B][C][D][E] 第三节语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分) 第三部分语言运用 第一节完形填空 66. 67. 68. 36[A][B][C][D] 41[A][B][C][D] 46[A][B][C][D] 69 70. 71. 37[A][B][C][D] 42[A][B][C][D] 47[A][B][C][D] 38[A][B][C][D] 43[A][B][C][D] 48[A][B][C][D] 72. 73. 74 39[A][B][C][D] 44[A][B][C][D] 49[A][B][C][D] 40[A][B][C][D] 45[A][B][c][D] 50[A][B][C][D] 75. ■ 第四部分书面表达（本题共20分） 76. Home Sweet Home Home is the sweetest place for everyone.