2026年湖南邵阳市新邵县小塘镇初级中学等校初中学业水平考试模拟试卷 英语

2026年初中学业水平考试模拟试卷 英语（八） 本试卷共8页。时量100分钟。满分100分。 注意事项： 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号写在答题卡和本试题卷上，并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号和相关信息； 2.选择题部分请按题号用2B铅笔填涂方框，修改时用橡皮擦干净，不留痕迹； 3.非选择题部分请按题号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写，否则作答无效； 4.在草稿纸、试题卷上作答无效； 5.请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁； 6.答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸。 第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What is Tina’s model ship made of? A. Paper. B. Wood. C. Glass. 2. How is the weather now? A. Rainy. B. Windy. C. Sunny. 3. When does the school bus usually arrive at the stop? A. At 7:30. B. At 7:35. C. At 7:40. 4. What will Lisa do this Saturday? A. Go to the family farm. B. Go to the city bookstore. C. Visit the children’s hospital. 5. Which school club does Ann want to join? A. The Story Club. B. The Animal Club. C. The Clean School Club. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听材料，回答以下各小题。 6. Where did David borrow the book from? A. The school library. B. His cousin. C. A city bookstore. 7. What does David think of the book? A. Difficult. B. Interesting. C. Educational. 听材料，回答以下各小题。 8. Who will John go to watch the dragon boat race with? A. His friends. B. His parents. C. His grandparents. 9. What’s Lingling’s plan for the Dragon Boat Festival? A. Make zongzi at home. B. Visit her school teacher. C. Have a big family lunch. 听材料，回答以下各小题。 10. What is Nick going to do tomorrow? A. Go on a picnic. B. Have a family party. C. Attend a job interview. 11. Which clothes does Lisa think is the best for Nick tomorrow? A. The black suit. B. The brown jacket. C. The blue sweater. 听材料，回答以下各小题。 12. How does the man feel? A. Tired. B. Bored. C. Excited. 13. What does the woman suggest doing first? A. Ordering some food. B. Watching a movie. C. Going shopping. 14. What is the woman’s favorite food? A. Pizza. B. Chicken. C. Hamburgers. 听材料，回答以下各小题。 15. What is Lucy doing now? A. Reading an article. B. Giving a talk. C. Watching TV. 16. What does Tom advise to do? A. Plant more trees. B. Stop using all bottles. C. Take buses more often. 17. What’s the relationship between the two speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Father and daughter. 听材料，回答以下各小题。 18. Where can people learn Beijing Opera? A. In the music center. B. In the art museum. C. In the art center. 19. How much should a student pay for the silk show? A. 5 dollars. B. 10 dollars. C. 20 dollars. 20. How can people get more information about the two activities? A. By sending emails. B. By visiting the website. C. By making phone calls. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分） 阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 A English Speech Competition Date & Time: June 25th, 1:00 p.m.~5:00 p.m. Who can join: All students in our school Competition Groups: Group A: Grade 7 Group B: Grade 8 Group C: Grade 9 Competition Rounds: Round 1: Free Topic Students can speak on any topic they like. English teachers will judge (评审) the speeches. The top 5 speakers from each group will enter Round 2. Round2: Given Topic Each student will get a fixed topic to speak about. The top 3 speakers from each group will be the final winners. The school headmaster will give prizes to the winners. For more information: Go to the Students’ Union (学生会) Office (Room 203, Teaching Building 2). Call Mr. Smith at 8656-6178. Don’t miss your chance to shine on stage (舞台)! We look forward to your joining. 1. Who can take part in Group C of the competition? A. Lucy Brown, a Grade 7 student. B. David White, a Grade 9 student. C. Emma Green, an English teacher. 2. What do we know about Round 2? A. The headmaster will judge the speeches. B. English teachers will give prizes to the winners. C. The top 3 speakers from each group will be final winners. 3. Where can students get more information about the competition? A. In the School Hall. B. In Mr. Smith’s home. C. In the Students’ Union Office. B I used to be the “last-minute girl”: always finishing tasks later than the schedule (日程表). I’d start my homework at midnight, and rush late for soccer practice. On my 14th birthday, my aunt gave me a smart watch with a note: “Dear Emily, Time is your friend. Learn to get along with it.— Aunt Lisa.” I wondered: how could this little thing fix my years of bad habits? At first, I paid no attention to it. But one Monday, I overslept, missed the school bus, and forgot to finish my science project. Feeling terrible, I finally took out the watch and set up a new schedule on it. To my surprise, it told me clearly: “8:00 a. m. tomorrow — Science project due (到期的). Get it ready tonight! Wow!” Things just got interesting. Slowly, I began to trust it. The watch broke big tasks into small steps: “Math homework: 3 problems now, 3 after dinner.” It even celebrated my small wins and told me to go to bed if I stayed up late. Days passed. My classmates and mom noticed my change. The real test came with the speech competition. Old Emily would have written the speech the night before. New Emily let the watch plan two weeks of practice. Backstage, my hands shook — then the watch shook softly and showed a message: “Breathe (呼吸). You’ve prepared 37 hours for this moment.” I smiled, walked onto the stage, and spoke about my journey with time. When I won first prize, the watch screen simply said: “Proud of you!” Some say technology makes us lazy. But for me, that little watch showed me I could work hard and manage my time well. 4. What does “last-minute girl” mean in Paragraph 1? A. Doing things on time. B. Always doing things late. C. Doing things ahead of time. 5. What did Emily first do with the smart watch? A. She left it alone. B. She used it at once. C. She showed it to friends. 6. How did the smart watch help Emily? A. It only told her about exams. B. It broke tasks into small steps. C. It told her teachers her problems. 7. What does the story mainly tell us? A. We should make good use of technology. B. Smart watches always make students lazy. C. Time management is the only way to succeed. C In recent years, more and more people find joy in watching and listening to birds in local parks, gardens, or even from their windows. This easy activity, called bird-watching, has become a very popular hobby. But why is it more and more popular? Studies help explain what bird-watchers often feel. One study shows that people who spend time watching birds have better feelings for most of the day. Another study finds that people living in places with more kinds of birds more easily feel happy about their lives. Scientists believe this has something to do with how our minds connect with the quiet, natural world. Also, a scientist from a bird study group says that watching a bird fly easily through the air can be a happy experience. Besides, the bright colors, beautiful songs, and different actions of birds bring lots of fun, and take people into their world without having to get close to them at all. What’s more, unlike many hobbies, you don’t need special training to join a club, or much money to start it. As a scientist says, the only thing you need is just “a little bit of natural space”. This makes it easy for people and their families to have fun in the open air together. If you want to have a try, it’s easy to start. Put a food box for birds outside—you can even make one yourself with a pine cone (松果) and peanut butter (花生酱). Write down a list of birds you see and those you hope to see. If you have a garden, you can plant local plants that bring and protect birds. Let this new hobby come into your life. You might find it brings more than just birds into your daily life. 8. What is the main purpose of the first paragraph? A. To lead into the topic. B. To give an example. C. To provide some advice. 9. What is one reason why bird-watching is so popular according to Paragraph 2? A. It makes people feel happier. B. It needs people to live near many parks. C. It asks people to watch birds for a whole day. 10. What does Paragraph 5 mainly talk about? A. Where to find birds in the city. B. How to keep birds in the garden. C. How to start bird-watching easily. 11. What is the best title for the passage? A. The Fun of Bird-Watching B. Studies About Birds and People C. Ways to Protect Birds Around Us 第二节（共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Kids face different kinds of pressure, from schoolwork to the wishes of parents and teachers. But one of the biggest problems is getting on with friends—this is called “peer pressure (同伴压力)”. It often happens when you do things only because your friends are doing them. ___12___ Teenagers often say peer pressure makes them act in certain ways. Some even use it as an excuse for wrong things, like smoking or drinking. This brings trouble and bad habits. Some teens do so just to fit in, but it is dangerous. You may even lose yourself over time. But good friends will always like the real you. ___13___ Friends can also bring you good changes. They may encourage you to study harder, take part in meaningful activities or make the right choices. This helps you grow into a better person. The most important thing is to know when to follow your friends and when to be yourself. ___14___ If friends ask you to do something you dislike, you can kindly talk about other ideas or just walk away. Hold on to your own ideas and stay with friends who understand you. If you feel stressed, talk to someone you trust, like a parent, teacher, or counselor (辅导员). ___15___ Sharing your feelings can help you get help and make right decisions. A. Don’t keep your feelings to yourself. B. However, peer pressure isn’t always bad. C. You can deal with peer pressure by yourself. D. Be brave enough to say no when you need to. E. It can also happen when your peers encourage you to join in. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 In a small village, there lived a skilled old carpenter (木匠). People came from far and wide to buy furniture (家具) from him. One day, a young man came to ____16____ him. Although the young man loved working with wood, he was always in a ____17____ to finish things. The old carpenter found that the young man was not patient at all and said, “I can teach you to make furniture quickly, but first, I have a simple ____18____ for you.” He ____19____ the young man a rough (粗糙的) board and said, “Make this board smooth.” The man thought it was ____20____. He sanded (打磨) the board a few times and quickly returned it. The old carpenter felt the board and said, “It is not smooth enough. Try again.” A bit impatient, the young man sanded harder, but the old carpenter ____21____ his head again. Feeling unhappy, the young man started to think more ____22____. He realized the importance of taking his time and began sanding each part of the board with ____23____. Finally, the board became as smooth as glass. This time, the old carpenter ____24____ and said, “You have learned an important lesson. Success requires not only skills but also ____25____. The simpler the task is, the more patience it needs.” Life is similar: A successful person moves forward step by step. 16. A. run after B. learn from C. compete with 17. A. rush B. way C. moment 18. A. gift B. task C. game 19. A. sold B. threw C. handed 20. A. easy B. hard C. cool 21. A. turned B. shook C. nodded 22. A. deeply B. excitedly C. wonderfully 23. A. fun B. care C. speed 24. A. shouted B. cried C. smiled 25. A. luck B. courage C. patience 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据内容从方框中选择合适的单词，将其正确形式填入空白处。每个单词限用一次。 true serve he city as early and play begin the As one of the world’s most famous choirs (合唱团), the Vienna Boys’ Choir has a history of more than 500 years, with shows around the world. In 2013, ____26____ choir welcomed its first-ever Chinese conductor (指挥家) Jimmy Chiang Chi Bun. The pianist and conductor, who comes from Hong Kong, China, started his musical training at an ____27____ age. While his father was not a professional (专业的) musician, his deep love of music had a strong influence on him. He learned to ____28____ the piano at the age of 4 and made his first public stage show at the age of 5. After years of hard training in Hong Kong and many ____29____ across Europe and America, Chiang went on to successfully direct a great number of classical music works. In 2013, Chiang ____30____ his role leading the Vienna Boys’ Choir. Since then, he has put ____31____ heart into introducing Chinese music to international listeners. In 2018, Chiang and his choir successfully recorded the show of I Love You, China. “Most of the choir members can’t speak Chinese, but they ____32____ feel the feeling behind the music,” he shared. Since the choir’s first China tour in 2015, Chiang has included many famous Chinese songs ____33____ traditional Chinese songs in their live shows. Last year, Chiang once again led the choir on a China tour. He chose “From the Danube to the Yangtze River” ____34____ the topic, so The Song of the Yangtze River became the main Chinese piece. Chiang believes that music is an art form that goes beyond (超越) language and ____35____ as the best cultural bridge. 第四部分 综合技能（共两节，满分25分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题或翻译划线部分。 In today’s fast-changing world, we often rush through meals without noticing their true meaning. We forget that even simple dishes can carry warm messages of love. I clearly remember how my mother would prepare stir-fried pork with green peppers (青椒炒肉) for our family dinners every Friday. She would skillfully cut fresh meat and vegetables into thin pieces, and then cook them. Soon, the nice smell of the dish and the happy sizzling (咝咝作响的) sound became her special ways of saying “I love you” to our family. Those simple Friday dinners have become my most valuable childhood memories (记忆). Food also plays an important role in connecting us to our culture. Each family has its own special recipes (食谱) that get passed down through generations (一代代人). This is because these recipes carry the family’s history and values. My grandmother shared her cooking secrets with my mother, and now my mother is teaching them to me. During important festivals, we always prepare traditional family dishes. All of this forms a living history, deeply connected to our daily lives. Although modern machines can prepare food much faster, they can never copy the warmth of a home-cooked meal. The nice smell of freshly made rice, and the bright colors of stir-fried eggs and tomatoes—these common dishes carry special meanings. They silently say, “You are loved. You belong here.” The best food isn’t the tastiest one, but the one made with love and full of meaningful memories. It brings us comfort and helps us remember where we come from. This is the magic of food that technology can never copy. 36. What dish did the writer’s mother prepare for family dinners every Friday? _____________________________________________________ 37. What have those simple Friday dinners become for the writer? _____________________________________________________ 38. Why are family special recipes passed down through generations? _____________________________________________________ 39. What do you think is the best food? And why? _____________________________________________________ 40. 将短文中划线句子翻译成中文。 _____________________________________________________ 41. 第二节 校英文报以“My Delicious Memory”为主题征稿。请结合上文并根据以下提示内容，写一篇英语短文投稿。 要求： (1)短文必须包含所有提示信息，并适当发挥； (2)词数80个左右（标题和开头都已给出，不计入总词数）； (3)文中不得出现真实人名和校名。 My Delicious Memory Food is like a key, which opens the door to my sweetest memories. As for me, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2026年初中学业水平考试模拟试卷 英语（八） 本试卷共8页。时量100分钟。满分100分。 注意事项： 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号写在答题卡和本试题卷上，并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号和相关信息； 2.选择题部分请按题号用2B铅笔填涂方框，修改时用橡皮擦干净，不留痕迹； 3.非选择题部分请按题号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写，否则作答无效； 4.在草稿纸、试题卷上作答无效； 5.请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁； 6.答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸。 第一部分 听力理解（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What is Tina’s model ship made of? A. Paper. B. Wood. C. Glass. 2. How is the weather now? A. Rainy. B. Windy. C. Sunny. 3. When does the school bus usually arrive at the stop? A. At 7:30. B. At 7:35. C. At 7:40. 4. What will Lisa do this Saturday? A. Go to the family farm. B. Go to the city bookstore. C. Visit the children’s hospital. 5. Which school club does Ann want to join? A. The Story Club. B. The Animal Club. C. The Clean School Club. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听材料，回答以下各小题。 6. Where did David borrow the book from? A. The school library. B. His cousin. C. A city bookstore. 7. What does David think of the book? A. Difficult. B. Interesting. C. Educational. 听材料，回答以下各小题。 8. Who will John go to watch the dragon boat race with? A. His friends. B. His parents. C. His grandparents. 9. What’s Lingling’s plan for the Dragon Boat Festival? A. Make zongzi at home. B. Visit her school teacher. C. Have a big family lunch. 听材料，回答以下各小题。 10. What is Nick going to do tomorrow? A. Go on a picnic. B. Have a family party. C. Attend a job interview. 11. Which clothes does Lisa think is the best for Nick tomorrow? A. The black suit. B. The brown jacket. C. The blue sweater. 听材料，回答以下各小题。 12. How does the man feel? A. Tired. B. Bored. C. Excited. 13. What does the woman suggest doing first? A. Ordering some food. B. Watching a movie. C. Going shopping. 14. What is the woman’s favorite food? A. Pizza. B. Chicken. C. Hamburgers. 听材料，回答以下各小题。 15. What is Lucy doing now? A. Reading an article. B. Giving a talk. C. Watching TV. 16. What does Tom advise to do? A. Plant more trees. B. Stop using all bottles. C. Take buses more often. 17. What’s the relationship between the two speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Father and daughter. 听材料，回答以下各小题。 18. Where can people learn Beijing Opera? A. In the music center. B. In the art museum. C. In the art center. 19. How much should a student pay for the silk show? A. 5 dollars. B. 10 dollars. C. 20 dollars. 20. How can people get more information about the two activities? A. By sending emails. B. By visiting the website. C. By making phone calls. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分） 阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. C 3. C B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. A 6. B 7. A C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. A 9. A 10. C 11. A 第二节（共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分） 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. E 13. B 14. D 15. A 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【16~25题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. C 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 【26~35题答案】 【答案】26. the 27. early 28. play 29. cities 30. began 31. his 32. truly 33. and 34. as 35. serves 第四部分 综合技能（共两节，满分25分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 【36~41题答案】 【答案】36. Stir-fried pork with green peppers. 37. They have become the writer’s most valuable childhood memories. 38. Because these recipes carry the family’s history and values. 39. I think the best food is traditional Hunan dishes. Because they connect me to my family and our local culture. (开放性试题，言之有理即可) 40. 最好的食物不是最美味的那一种，而是饱含爱意、充满珍贵回忆的那一种。 41. 例文 My Delicious Memory Food is like a key, which opens the door to my sweetest memories. As for me, the food that brings back warm memories is dumplings. They taste soft and warm, with a nice taste of fresh meat and vegetables. Last Spring Festival’s Eve, I made dumplings with my family at home. Grandma taught me to make them step by step. Though my dumplings looked funny, we all laughed happily. Eating the hot dumplings, I felt the deep warmth and care from my family. To me, dumplings are not just food—they carry my family’s love and my sweetest memories. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $