安徽滁州市琅琊区2026年中考考前预测英语试卷

2026安徽中考名校互鉴（四） 英语 注意事项： 满分120分，时间为120分钟。 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ．短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What did Tom do on the farm last weekend? A. B. C. 2. How will Lily go to Hong Kong? A. B. C. 3. Who bought David the new schoolbag? A. David’s cousin. B. David’s mom. C. David’s aunt. 4. What does Alice want to be in the future? A. A pianist. B. An artist. C. A scientist. 5. Where might the conversation take place? A. On the street. B. On the subway. C. At the high-speed train station. Ⅱ．长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 6. What time did Jim go to bed last night? A. At about 10 o’clock. B. At about 11 o’clock. C. At about 12 o’clock. 7. What does Emma advise Jim to do? A. Manage his time well. B. Do more housework. C. Do more homework. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。 8. What is Alan doing now? A. He is watching some funny videos. B. He is reading a piece of news. C. He is planting a tree. 9. Why did the boys invent the robot? A. Because of wildfires. B. Because of rainstorms. C. Because of earthquakes. 10. What does the robot look like? A. A snake. B. A human. C. A dog. Ⅲ．短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. Who invited Jane to volunteer at the pet hospital? A. Her neighbor. B. Her friend. C. Her teacher. 12. How did Jane feel at first? A. Excited. B. Bored. C. Nervous. 13. When did Jane volunteer at the pet hospital? A. Last Friday. B. Last Saturday. C. Last Sunday. 14. What did Jane do in the morning? A. She did some cleaning. B. She treated sick animals. C. She guided pet owners. 15. What did Jane think of the experience? A. Awful. B. Interesting. C. Meaningful. Ⅳ．信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Own Your Words and Actions What it means It means that every 16 you make, big or small, has results. You should accept your mistakes and complete small 17 on time. How you do it Always be 18 when you get things wrong. Find a way to 19 the problem. Learn from your mistakes so you can 20 them next time. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） Ⅴ．单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21. It is normal to have a ________ of the unknown, but never let it stop you from trying new things. A. spirit B. pride C. sense D. fear 22. — This wooden desk is so ________ that I can’t move it by myself. — Come on! I will help you move it to the. right place. A. heavy B. old C. tall D. short 23. We will ________ lots of white pollution if we keep using plastic bags while shopping. A. collect B. support C. produce D. control 24. — I was caught in the rain and got completely wet on the way. — What bad luck! ________, you’re back home safely. A. Moreover B. Still C. Instead D. Anyway 25. Tony often keeps quiet ________ to listen to others’ ideas carefully in group discussions. A. in trouble B. on business C. in surprise D. on purpose 26. The noise outside was so loud that I ________ very early this morning. A. woke up B. took up C. put up D. set up 27. — I wonder ________ hat was left in the library. — It must be Gina’s. I always see her wear it. A. which B. where C. whose D. what 28. We admire Cai Gao ________ she shows Chinese traditional beauty in her warm picture books. A. when B. because C. before D. unless 29. — Look! So many kites ________ high in the sky. — Wow, they look so beautiful. A. flew B. fly C. are flying D. has flown 30. — Sorry, Mona. I can’t go shopping with you today. — ________. We can make it another time. A. It’s up to you B. It’s no big deal C. It makes no difference D. It serves you right Ⅵ．完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A One Friday night, after the plates were cleared and most guests had left, two friends still stayed at our dining table. They shared stories and 31 a lot. As I heard their loud laughter, I realized it was not the 32 but the people that kept them there. Growing up as an only child, I had family dinners. with just my 33 . My father encouraged long talks. My mother made 34 and colorful meals. I filled the space with stories. Our table was 35 , but these meals gave me the big joy of being together. My wife, Talia grew up in a. family where having guests was 36 . Old friends and new faces were welcomed easily at her home. When we met 18 years ago, we both loved bringing people. together. We invited friends, neighbors, and even 37 I cooked food myself, and Talia planned menus. Hosting isn’t always 38 , as a messy kitchen. at night is common. But it connects people. Small acts, like sharing food or cleaning up together, build close 39 . In a busy world; the dining table not only 40 us, but also brings us together. 31. A. argued B. worried C. practiced D. laughed 32. A. room B. food C. time D. money 33. A. parents B. friends C. sisters D. brothers 34. A. expensive B. low C. balanced D. dangerous 35. A. short B. small C. slow D. modern 36. A. clear B. difficult C. serious D. natural 37. A. classmates B. strangers C. relatives D. teachers 38. A. hard B. nervous C. easy D. fast. 39. A. confidence B. courage C. characters D. relationships 40. A. feeds B. feels C. finds D. falls B Huagudeng is a traditional folk dance of the Han people in China, mainly popular in Fengtai and other parts of Anhui Province. It 41 dancing, singing, and the lively beats of gongs (锣) and drums into simple stories. Fengtai Huagudeng is an important style and 42 its strong. feelings and soft moves. It has a history of about 1,000 years and was listed as China’s national intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) in 2006. People mainly perform it in 43 , after the autumn harvest (收获) and before spring farming. Villagers gather in town squares to 44 the good harvest with these dances. The show 45 group dances, pair dances, small plays and folk music. Pair dances often 46 love stories between young people. Women dancers, called lanhua, move 47 with soft waist (腰部) movements. Men dancers, called gujiazi, show strength by lifting other performers or performing martial arts (武术). Two 48 help keep this. art alive. First, it has long been part of local 49 life. Second, it is now taught in colleges. Many people work hard to teach Huagudeng and lead dance groups to perform across the country. Their 50 have made this traditional dance more popular nationwide. 41. A. divides B. takes C. mixes D. joins 42. A. known for B. popular with C. famous as D. good at 43. A. spring B. summer C. autumn D. winter 44. A. decide B. remember C. celebrate D. depend 45. A. introduces B. includes C. invites D. invents 46. A. bring out B. take up C. call back D. hand in 47. A. differently B. beautifully C. suddenly D. rapidly 48. A. reasons B. results C. chances D. challenges 49. A. enjoyable B. cultural C. personal D. medical 50. A. manners B. styles C. abilities D. efforts Ⅶ．补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Hi, Ben. I just spent all my pocket money again. I don’t even know where it went. B: Really? 51 I prefer to save a little at·a time. A: That’s a good habit. 52 B: I want to buy a new bike. 53 A: I often buy things without thinking, but later I find I don’t need them at all. B: 54 Maybe you should learn to think carefully before buying things. A: You have a point there. 55 B: It’s never too late to change. Just take it step by step. A. It’s OK. B. That’s a pity. C. Do you have pocket money? D. What do you save money for? E. I seldom spend my pocket money. F. I really need to change this bad habit. G. So why do you always use up all your pocket money? 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ．阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Hefei Science and Technology Museum Are you looking for an exciting place to learn science? Come to Hefei Science and Technology Museum! Opening Hours Wednesday to Sunday,9:00 a.m. — 4:30 p.m. (You can’t. enter after 4:00 p.m.) Book Method Use “Hefei Science and Technology Museum” WeChat Mini-Program to book. Choose your preferred date and fill in visitor information. You should book a ticket 2 days in advance (提前). Ticket Price Free for all visitors (including children and adults). Some special shows or activities may have separate tickets. Rules 14 years old and under must be with an adult throughout the visit. You can’t take pets, ballons or other dangerous goods. You can’t take food with strong smells or soft drinks. No running, shouting or touching exhibits (展品). 56. When can you visit the museum? A. At 10:00 a.m. on Monday. B. At 3:00 p.m. on Tuesday. C. At 2:00 p.m. on Wednesday. D. At 5:00 p.m. on Thursday. 57. How can you book the ticket to the museum? A. By asking a policeman for help. B. By using a WeChat Mini-Program. C. By making a phone call. D. By buying it from guides in advance. 58. Which sign can you most probably see in the museum? A. B. C. D. B Kenyan runner Sabastian Sawe made history at the 2026 London Marathon on April 26 with a time of 1:59:30. He became the first person ever to complete an official marathon in under two hours. His performance greatly broke the former (之前的) world record of 2:00:35. Imagine running 100 meters in under 17 seconds and then keeping that pace (速度) up for the remaining 42,095 meters. That is what the 31-year-old Kenyan did. Sawe is called the “silent killer” at his training camp because he talks little but shines brightly in every race. He grew up in a poor village in Kenya, in a mu d house (泥屋) with no electricity, but he always loved running. He was so shy that he would often hide in the school kitchen before races. However, one of his early teachers encouraged him to run bravely and told him, “Running is not just talent. It's your luck and your future.” Later, with proper training and a great coach, he really began to shine. Sawe said, “I’ve shown that nothing is impossible. This will stay in my mind forever.” His victory proves that hard work and the strong spirit can help break human limits (限制). 59. How much faster did Sawe run than the former world record? A. 26 seconds. B. 30 seconds. C. 41 seconds. D. 65 seconds. 60. Where did young Sawe often hide before races? A. In a mud house. B. In the school kitchen. C. In the teacher’s office. D. In the playground. 61. Which words can best describe Sawe? A. Talented and outgoing. B. Quiet and hard-working. C. Brave and humorous. D. Lucky and warm-hearted. C Nowadays, in our busy school life, many students focus only on grades and practical skills. Things that cannot bring quick benefits are often considered useless. Making tea is one of them. It seems to have nothing to do with studying, but it has become an important part of my daily life. I became interested in making tea not for any practical reason, but for the peace it brings. Unlike exciting activities such as playing basketball, making tea requires me to slow down. I need to control the water temperature and take time to watch the leaves unfold. This process helps me reduce stress and feel calm inside. Some say making tea is a waste of time, but I believe these “useless” activities make our lives colorful. When tired from studying, making tea calms my mind and helps me refocus. It teaches me to be patient and enjoy the moment, not just rush for results. Making tea has changed my attitude (态度) toward life. Not all valuable things are practical. These quiet hobbies make us more balanced and positive. In fact, the most “useless” things in life often give us the most warmth and power. 62. What does the underlined word “them” refer to (指的是)? A. Things with great difficulties. B. Things having no fast benefits. C. All kinds of quiet hobbies. D. All daily relaxing activities. 63. How does the writer like making tea? A. Practical. B. Useless. C. Challenging. D. Relaxing. 64. What does making tea teach the writer? A. To cut down useless social activities. B. To pay more attention to her health. C. To be patient and enjoy the moment. D. To make friends with top students. 65. What might happen to the writer in the future? A. She will keep making tea in daily life. B. She will give up making tea for study. C. She will focus more on school grades. D. She will develop a better living habit. D On TikTok, more and more Westerners are “becoming Chinese”. They practice qigong, drink hot water in the morning, eat rice or porridge for breakfast, or learn Mandarin (普通话) on Duolingo, a language-learning app. A popular video creator named Sherry XiiRui started sharing cheerful videos about these habits under the tag (标签) # Becoming Chinese in late 2025. Each of her more than 20 short videos got about 1 million views in just two months. This “Chinamaxxing” trend (趋势) has become hugely popular among Western young people. So why does it happen? This is because of the fast rise of China’s cultural soft power. As China gets more global (全球的) influence, topics about China app ear more in online discussions. Many Westerners know little about China, so they are very curious about this mysterious country. What’s more, these small daily habits are easy to copy, so they attract many young people. Qu Qiang, an expert at Minzu University of China in Beijing, described the # Becoming Chinese trend is a new kind of cultural exchange, different from old symbols like pandas or kung fu. It shows China’s growing cultural influence, as more foreign young people learn about and accept Chinese culture through these small everyday acts. However, people have different opinions about it. 66. Why does the writer use the example of Sherry XiiRui? A. To show the popularity of the trend. B. To explain how to learn Mandarin well. C. To teach ways of making good videos. D. To prove her influence on social apps. 67. What is paragraph 3 mainly about? A. The growth of China’s global influence. B. The advantages of Chinese lifestyles. C. The reasons for the trend’s popularity. D. The power of Westerners’ curiosity. 68. What might the text talk about next? A. Good and bad sides of Chinese culture. B. Proper ways to develop better habits. C. Expert’s advice on becoming Chinese. D. People’s different opinions on the trend. E Have you seen the popular AI-made video about saving a fox on a snowy mountain? It made viewers laugh with its unexpected plot twist (剧情反转), and many even created their own versions (版本) with different storylines. Besides this funny video, many high-quality AI-made works have appeared online. One example is Paper Plane, a touching short film made for Tomb-Sweeping Day. It’s a story about a boy missing his grandmother. Filled with sincere emotion (情感), the video. was even shared by CCTV News. In the early days of AI, many people rejected it, as they believed AI copied human work and showed little respect for creators. However, AI has developed rapidly and is now a powerful tool. It can turn ideas into pictures or videos quickly and help in many fields. More importantly, AI is still just a tool, like a sword (剑). It works best in the hands of a skilled user. We need clear ideas and instructions to get good results from it. Instead of worrying if AI will replace humans, we should focus on our special talents: creativity and imagination. These make us the real home of new ideas. 69. What is the short film Paper Plane about? A. A fox on a snowy mountain. B. A boy missing his grandma. C. A student making paper planes. D. A girl using AI to study. 70. What does the underlined word “rejected” probably mean? A. Tried to improve. B. Began to create. C. Refused to accept. D. Decided to use. 71. Which opinion may the writer agree with? A. People should use AI tools wisely. B. AI is a necessary tool for everyone. C. AI can create works without human ideas. D. People are losing interest in AI-made videos. 72. What is the best title (标题) for the text? A. Videos carry emotions B. AI tools rule the world C. Technology shapes society D. Creativity leads the way 第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 F Do you remember the lyrics from the Disney movie Moana: “See the line where the sky meets the sea? It calls me! And no one knows how far it goes …”? They really speak to my heart, as I feel a strong connection to the spirit of adventure. In the film, Moana chooses to follow her dream of being a navigator (航海家). I was deeply moved by her courage and independent spirit. She never gives up, no matter how hard things get. With the help of her friends, she sets sail, bravely faces every challenge and finally finds the heart of Te Fiti. Moana’s journey has taught me a simple truth: If you keep going, you’ll reach something. beautiful. To me, Moana is like my ideal (理想的) self — she is brave, curious and strong-willed. I felt this spirit when I decided to run my first marathon. It was very stressful and tiring, both mentally (心理地) and physically. But I trained every day, pushed through the tiredness and made it to the finish line at last. This experience, just like Moana’s great trip, showed me that when you move forward with courage, amazing things can happen. 73. What does Moana want to be? (不超过5个词) ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 74. What is Moana like? (不超过10个词) ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 75. What’s your favorite movie character? List one and give your reason. (不超过15个词) ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ．单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 76. It’s every student’s d________ (责任) to follow school rules and respect teachers. 77. Teenagers need to e________ (探索) nature and feel the beauty of the world. 78. Our class basketball team f________ (奋斗) hard and won the game at last. 79. Never hurt others’ feelings just to make up a meaningless j________ (笑话). 80. Tom wants to break the habit of being l________ (懒惰的) and make good use of every day. Ⅹ．书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 回望初中三年，随着人工智能逐渐融入日常学习，加上双减教育政策（double reduction policy）落地实施，我们的学习与生活方式发生了很大改变。请根据以下要点结合自身经历写一篇英语短文。 要点： 1．学习方法：是否借助AI助力学习？学习是否变得更高效有趣？ 2．个人爱好：随着课余时间增多，是否培养了新的兴趣爱好？ 3．个人性格：相比从前，是否变得更自信、开朗或独立？ 注意： 1．短文须包含上述要点，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 2．文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称； 3．词数80~100（作文开头已为你写好，不计入总词数）。 参考词汇：efficient高效的 My Changes Over Three Junior High Years Time flies in my junior high school years. ______________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026安徽中考名校互鉴（四） 英语参考答案及评分参考 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ. 1—5 BACBB Ⅱ. 6—10 BABAC Ⅲ. 11—15 BCCAC Ⅳ. 16. choice 17. tasks 18. honest 19. fix 20. avoid 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V．单项填空 21—25 DACDD 26—30 ACBCB Ⅵ．完形填空 31—35 DBACB 36—40 DBCDA 41—45 CADCB 46—50 ABABD Ⅶ．补全对话 51—55 EDGBF 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ．阅读理解 56—58 CBD 59—61 DBB 62—65 BDCA 66—68 ACD 69—72 BCAD 73. A navigator. 74. She is brave, curious and strong-willed. 75. I love Spider-Man because he is kind and responsible. 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ．单词拼写 76. duty 77. explore 78. fought 79. joke 80. lazy X．书面表达 One possible version: My Changes Over Three Junior High Years Time flies in my junior high school years. With AI widely used in study and the double reduction policy carried out, my life and study have changed a lot. In study, I often turn to AI to solve difficult problems and practice English. It makes my study more efficient and lively. Besides, I have more spare time now. I have developed new hobbies such as reading and hiking. These hobbies make my life more colorful. What’s more, I have greatly changed in personality. I used to be shy, but now I become more confident and independent. These changes help me grow into a better self. 听力部分录音文字稿 Ⅰ．短对话理解 你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. W: Tom, I heard you went to the farm last weekend. Did you pick any fruit there? M: No, I didn’t. I fed the pigs and tried riding a horse. I had a wonderful time. 2. M: Are you going to travel in the summer holiday, Lily? W: Yes. I’m going to fly to Hong Kong. I want to visit Disneyland. 3. W: Hi, David. Your new schoolbag is the same style as Peter’s, but different in color. M: Oh, yes. He is my cousin. His mother bought us the schoolbags together. 4. M: You’re really good at playing the piano. Do you want to be a pianist in the future, Alice? W: No. In fact, I want to be an artist, though my parents hope I can be a scientist. 5. W: Excuse me, does this subway go to the high-speed railway station? M: I’m afraid not. You need to get off at the next stop and change to Line 5 to get there. Ⅱ．长对话理解 你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 W: Hi, Jim! You look really tired today. Are you okay? M: I’m just so sleepy. I didn’t go to bed until 11 o’clock last night. W: That’s too late for us students. Why did you stay up so late? M: Because after finishing my homework, I had to walk the dog and clean the kitchen. I hate housework. W: I know how you feel, but housework can help us learn to be responsible. Maybe you just need to manage your time well. M: You have a point there. I will try it. Thanks for your advice, Emma. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。 W: Hey, Alan, you’ve been looking at your phone for a long time. Are you watching some funny videos? M: Not really. I’m reading a piece of news. W: What’s it about? M: It’s about two 19-year-old boys who invented a tree-planting robot. W: Wow, that sounds interesting! Why did they make such a robot? M: Well, because of some terrible wildfires. The robot they invented can plant trees in the areas hit by fires. W: They’re so smart and kind. So what does the robot look like? Is it like a snake or a human? M: Neither. It looks like a dog. W: That’s amazing! We should learn from them. Ⅲ．短文理解 你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题，请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 My name is Jane. A few days ago, my friend invited me to volunteer at a pet hospital. I agreed at once. However, I felt really nervous at first because I had no experience of looking after animals. When we got there last Sunday, the doctors and other volunteers were very kind. They taught me how to work step by step patiently. In the morning, I helped do some cleaning and feed sick cats and dogs. In the afternoon, I guided pet owners to fill in forms and match them with right doctors. Though it was far from interesting and made me really tired, I still had a meaningful day. I learned to be patient and caring. I really hope to join such volunteer activities again. Ⅳ．信息转换 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Owning your words and actions means taking responsibility for what you say and do. It means that every choice you make, big or small, has results. In other words, you should accept your mistakes and complete small tasks on time, like tidying up or handing in your homework. Owning up to mistakes can be hard sometimes. Here is some advice for you. First, always be honest when you get things wrong. Second, find a way to fix the problem. Try to make things right if you can. Third, learn from your mistakes so you can avoid them next time. In all, owning your words and actions is a simple but powerful way to become a better person. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $