浙江省宁波市效实中学等校2026年初中学业水平考试英语试题

机密★启用前 浙江省2026年初中学业水平考试 英语 姓名 准考证号 座位号 考生注意： 1.本试题卷包括四部分，共6页，满分为120分，考试时间100分钟。 2.答题前，请务必将自已的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸 规定的位置上。 3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的 作答一律无效。 第一部分听力理解（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位 置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1.What is Tom going to do after school? A.Play ball games. B.Join the English club C.Clean the classroom. 2.Where will Eric do volunteer work? A.At the old people's home.B.In the city park C.At the community shop. 3.Why does David use a cloth bag? A.Because it can carry more things. B.Because it can save much money. C.Because it can cut down white pollution. 4.How can John keep safe in an earthquake? A.By staying under a desk.B.By staying outside. C.By taking the lift down. 5.Who helps Mike do housework on weekends? A.His father. B.His elder sister. C.His classmate. 第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相 应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话 读两遍。 听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 6.Which space object does Malee like best? A.The bright moon. B.The shining stars. C.The red planet Mars. 7.When will the space show start? A.At 9 AM on Saturday.B.At 9 AM on Sunday. C.At 2 PM on Saturday. 听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8.What did Kelly and her classmates do last weekend? A.They watered flowers in a park. B.They planted beans and carrots. C.They made a bird house at home. 9.Where did James put the bird house he made? A.In the school garden. B.In the park near his school. C.In the tree beside his house. 10.Why does Kelly enjoy gardening at school? A.Because it is very relaxing. B.Because her teacher gives prizes. C.Because she likes eating vegetables. 第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听 独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。 听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。 11.When will the study trip be held? A.This Friday and Saturday.B.This Saturday and Sunday. C.This Thursday and Friday. 12.Where will the students meet first? A.At Green Farm. B.At the school gate. C.At the City Science Museum. 13.What must the students take with them? A.Water cups,lunch boxes and notebooks. B.Light jackets,schoolbags and textbooks. C.Pencils,water cups and school uniforms. 14.Who can help the students if they have questions? A.Their parents. B.Their good friends. C.Their head teacher. 15.What can the students do during the study trip? A.Sing songs and play games.B.Make things and grow plants. C.Draw pictures and read books. 第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40分) 第一节阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C,D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 (A) The City of Burlington's public art program will show short-term art signs at the Beachway for Ontario Culture Days. It will choose 10 artists and 10 writers from Burlington to create works for signs along the road,and it welcomes different art forms,such as photos,poems and stories,whether they are old or new. Each artist will get $400 for this project.The city will pay all costs for making,putting up and taking care of these short-term signs. Project Timeline August 2 Artists must send their replies. By August 12 Choose successful artists and sign an agreement with the City of Burlington. September 6 Hand in the final pieces of the artworks. September 23-October 13 Show the artworks during the Culture Days celebration. Application Materials Artwork Statement:Please write a short statement(no more than 150 words)to explain the idea of your artwork. Handing In Artworks or Writing: Handing In Your Artwork:Please hand in a sketch()of your art idea.It can be an unfinished piece rather than a completed one.If you plan to use a finished work,please turn it in as your"sketch". Handing In Your Writing:Your writing must be no more than 250 words.It can be a single work like a poem or short story,or a part taken from a longer work. Artist Introduction:Please write a short introduction(no more than 50 words)about the artist in the third person. 16.What is the purpose of this text? A.To raise money for local artists. B.To show a collection of artworks. C.To introduce a cultural festival. D.To ask for artworks for a project. 17.How long will the public art signs be on display? A.For ten days. B.For three weeks. C.For one month. D.For two months. 18.Which of the following meets the application requirements? A.A 150-word poem. B.A 100-word self-introduction. C.A 300-word story. D.A 200-word artwork description. (B) In the past,plant nurseries()were the heart of gardening in the UK.But not long ago,many began to disappear.Older gardeners couldn't visit as often,and costs were rising.Even famous family businesses,like Cants of Colchester which grew beautiful roses,had to close their gates.The future for this green industry looked worrying. However,a new seed()of hope was growing.It came from young people like Jonny Bruce.Jonny's journey didn't start in a big garden at home.It began during his training at a place called Great Dixter.Walking between the nursery and the garden,a dream grew in his heart.His dream took him to the Netherlands()where he stayed for more than four years.There,he saw new plants and learned a different way of thinking about nature. Returning to the UK,Jonny carried his dream and a new idea.He wanted a nursery that worked with nature,not against it.The search for land was difficult.Then,luck smiled on him.A developer had a small field that wasn't used for building houses.They liked Jonny's green idea and agreed to let him use it.With great excitement,Jonny and his part- time helper,his friend Daniel,started their project.They named it the Field Nursery. The work was hard under the open sky.Step by step,they built two greenhouses and a small shed.But they were planting more than just pretty flowers.They chose local trees and built little insect hotels.Their goal was to help wildlife,not keep it out."A nursery can be a home for all living things,"Jonny explained.Their nursery was becoming a busy,friendly place for bees,birds,and plants. Today,the Field Nursery is getting ready for its first autumn sale.Jonny and Daniel's hands are dirty,but their hearts are full.They are showing that with care and new ideas,the old tradition of nurseries can grow strong again. 19.Why does the writer mention "a new seed of hope"in Paragraph 2? A.To compare hope to a growing plant. B.To describe a new type of plant seed. C.To list the tools needed for gardening. D.To explain how to plant seeds correctly. 20.What can we infer about Jonny's time in the Netherlands? A.It taught him to build houses quickly. B.It showed him gardening was too hard. C.It helped him make a lot of money there. D.It changed how he thought about nature. 21.How is the text mainly organized? A.It lists reasons for a problem in time order. B.It describes a problem and then a solution. C.It compares two different gardeners'lives. D.It gives facts about plants in the Netherlands. 22.Which of the following best describes the Field Nursery? A.Traditional and boring. B.Ordinary and small. C.Friendly to the environment. D.Expensive and famous. (C) Science is like a wonderful toolbox,helping us understand the world.But just like in life, it's important to know a tool's limits()to use it well.Imagine you need to hit a nail. You can use the handle of a knife,but a real hammer()works much better.Science is a powerful tool,but it's best for answering questions we can actually test. Our human brains are amazing,but they also have limits.Sometimes,to push past these limits,we need help.We need better equipment()-bigger computers and stronger telescopes.These tools are expensive,but they help us look deeper into space and make new discoveries.Our brains,with the right help,can solve great mysteries. But some limits are about how we think.Think about chimpanzees().They are very smart,and their DNA is very close to ours.But can they learn difficult math?Probably not.Our human brains let us think in special ways.What if our brains could develop just a little more?What amazing things could we understand then?Maybe our thinking has limits we can't even imagine today. Some questions might be too big for science,no matter how smart we get.How did the universe truly begin?What was there before the beginning?These are deep mysteries.There may be no experiment we can ever do to find the answer.This is a basic limit.Science may never be able to explain everything. Here is a key rule:for an idea to be scientific,it must be testable.This doesn't mean we can test it today.It means we could test it one day in the future.Some of the most interesting ideas-the ones people have wondered about for thousands of years-are not testable right now.This doesn't make them wrong.It just means,for now,they live outside the toolbox of science,waiting for the right tool. 23.Why does the writer talk about a knife and a hammer? A.To teach a lesson about using tools safely. B.To show the right tool gives a better result. C.To explain why science needs many tools. D.To compare the price of two simple tools. 24.What message does Paragraph 4 give? A.We can push science's limits with hard work.B.Experiments help space technology develop well C.Science's limits come from not doing enough tests.D.Some universe mysteries are too hard for science to explore. 25.What might the writer think about future humans? A.They will stop asking big questions. B.Their brains may understand much more. C.They will finally discover all secrets of the universe.D.They will use chimpanzees for experiments 26.What will,the writer most likely discuss next? A.An example of an untestable idea. B.A list of all the tools science uses. C.The high cost of building telescopes. D.The complete history of the universe (D) Climate change is a big challenge for our world.One main reason is too much carbon dioxide(CO2)in the air. Luckily,plants are nature's helpers-they take in this gas.Scientists at the Salk Institute are trying to make plants even better helpers.Their idea is to improve the plants'root()systems.Better roots can store more carbon and keep it locked in the ground for a longer time.This is their important goal. To create these "climate-helping"plants,the scientists use an AI tool named SLEAP.It can watch and record how plant roots grow.A scientist named Talmo Pereira first made SLEAP.He designed it to study how animals move in labs. Later,he worked with plant expert Professor Wolfgang Busch.Together,they had a new thought:"Can we use SLEAP to study plant roots?"They tried,and it worked. In the study,they found a new way to use SLEAP.The tool helps study the special features (of plant roots.It measures how deep and wide the roots go,and how big the whole system is.Before SLEAP appeared,studying physical features of plants and animals needed lots of work.This made scientific research slow.But SLEAP uses computer“eyes”anda“brain'” that learns.These AI technologies help researchers process images()much more quickly. Using SLEAP,the team built the largest collection of plant root data ever.This data helps them find the plant genes (linked to good roots.It also shows if one gene controls many things.This knowledge lets the scientists choose the best genes to design the most helpful plants. "Our teamwork shows something special and useful,"says Pereira."We don't just take ideas from different fields. We treat all fields of study fairly to create something better than the total of its parts." 27.What is the main goal of the scientists'research at the Salk Institute? A.To create more types of plants in nature. B.To make plants grow much taller and faster. C.To change how plants use sunlight for food. D.To help plants store more carbon underground. 28.What is the writer's purpose of writing the text? A.To show the harm of CO2. B.To introduce an AI tool for plants. C.To explain how animals live well. D.To describe different plant genes. 29.What does the underlined sentence "We treat all fields of study fairly to create something better than the total of its parts.”mean? A.Different fields work for better results. B.We should copy other scientists'ideas. C.Every team needs clever researchers. D.One field is more useful than others. 30.What is the best title for the text? A.The History of the Salk Institute's Study B.Ways to Improve Plant Root Systems C.AI Helps Plants Fight Climate Change D.How to Record Animal Movement Easily 第二节任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A一E五个选项中选出正确选项（其中一项是多余选项），将其序号填入第31~34 小题，并回答第35小题。注意：请将第35小题的答案写在答题纸上非选择题部分的相应位置。 Dear Timo, How's everything going?I wanted to share a wonderful part of my culture with you-the Chinese Zodiac().It started more than 2,000 years ago.The ancient Chinese people chose twelve animals,like the smart Rat,brave Tiger,and gentle Rabbit,to stand for different years.I was born in the Year of the Horse,and it is said that means being hard-working and friendly! 31 They are the first complete set of Chinese zodiac stamps.My grandfather started collecting them when he was young,and now he has given them to me.The first one was the"Golden Monkey"stamp for 1980.Looking at them is like walking into a beautiful art world. 32 Artists used styles from traditional Chinese painting and paper-cutting.For example,the Dragon looks powerful,and the Rabbit looks quiet and kind.Every stamp is not just for mailing letters;it is a small piece of culture full of good wishes. These stamps are more than just a collection.33 They connect our life today with stories and traditions from long ago.When I look at the Rooster stamp,I think of my grandfather telling me about being confident.When I see the Dog stamp,I remember stories about loyalty(). 34 It is a fun way to talk about who we are and understand each other better.The zodiac and its beautiful stamps make our culture alive,warm,and full of meaning.Would you like to know your Chinese zodiac animal?Write back and tell me! Yours, Chen Jie A. What makes these stamps so-beautiful is their art style. B.Today,my friends and I still talk about our zodiac signs. C.They help carry on family stories and traditional values. D.Many people buy these stamps because they're valuable. E.But the most special way I learn about it is through stamps. 35.Do you really like the Chinese zodiac stamps?And why or why not?(不超过l5词) 第三部分语言运用（共三节，满分40分)》 第一节完形填空（共15小题.每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、CD四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Last year.I taught ninth-grade writing.My students'works always 36 me.In their stories,there was a brave cowboy who saved his small town,a 37 father who wanted his son to get straight A's,and a modern Juliet who felt deep heartbreak after her parents refused her true love.I often wondered how they could understand these 38 so well and describe them with such rich details(细节). Their first composition,39 let me down.The topic was"Why is writing important?"Most compositions were less than one page long,and very few had a clear main idea.I was 40 because I knew my students could write a lot about computers or other popular things.It soon hit me that the problem wasn't the students-it was the 41 itself. Writing.in their eyes,just didn't seem as important as other things. I decided to make a(n)42.When a new unit started,I asked each student to write a meaningful composition on a health topic they chose themselves.To my joy,they 43 this task.Later,we moved on to personal stories and a creative writing workshop.I only set two simple 44:follow the style's requirements and include a clear main idea. The results were far better than I 45.Students picked all kinds of different topics and handed in stories that were 10 to 20 pages long.Their characters were real and 46,and their words made me see the world in new ways.Some stories talked about family love,47 others shared personal dreams-each piece was full of sincerity(真诚). Writing is 48 just a way to communicate.It helps us understand others,connects hearts across differences,and teaches us 49 it means to be truly human.This is the 50 lesson my students gave me. 36.A.troubled B.surprised C.disappointed D.moved 37.A.loving B.brave C.honest D.strict 38.A.characters B.parents C.spirits D.feelings 39.A.instead B.besides C.still D.however 40.A.encouraged B.excited C.shocked D.bored 41.A.focus B.topic C.skill D.value 42.A.change B.effort C.project D.prediction 43.A.paid attention to B.took care of C.showed interest in D.took pride in 44.A.rules B.steps C.warnings D.requests 45.A.practiced B.expected C.doubted D.questioned 46.A.touching B.worrying C.interesting D.boring 47.A.though B.unless C.after D.while 48.A.no longer B.more than C.not simply D.less than 49.A.how B.when C.who D.what 50.A.comfortable B.believable C.valuable D.reasonable 第二节词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A.将方框中所给词语的适当形式填人短文中，每词仅用一次。 kecp properly effect event danger from now on Public order is the base of a peaceful daily life for everyone.Even small rude acts in public can have a(n)51 on people around us,and even cause unexpected trouble.For example,running in crowded areas is 52,and it may also make little kids get separated and lost.We should always mind our behavior 53 public places in good order. When we take part in public activities,including charity 54,we need to follow the rules strictly.We should line up 55,avoid receiving extra gifts that are not prepared for us,and care for the elderly and kids around.If everyone can take these small steps 56,our public spaces will become warmer and more harmonious(for all. B.阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。 Last autumn,I learned an important lesson about the value of life from a young man around me.He was a close neighbor of 57 ()who had just graduated from junior high and made lots of fun plans for his long summer holiday. Unluckily,he suddenly got an 58 (that forced him to stay in hospital for over a month.He could do nothing but lie in bed every day,even unable to walk59(自由；随意). When my parents and I went to visit him in the hospital,he looked_60_(疲劳；a疲倦)and pale.When we talked about his old daily life.he 61 (his head slowly and told us his mistakes.He used to have a bad habit of staying up late to play computer games.and never spent time outdoors breathing fresh air.He said he never cared about 62 (his body before,and always thought he was young and strong enough for anything.He felt so regretful for what he had done to his health. This story has had a deep influence on me and many of my classmates.It tells all the 63 (that life is the most valuable gift we have,and that it never comes back 64 (-we lose it.We should stay 65 (from bad lifestyles.Only when we care for our life can we have the chance to follow our dreams and enjoy the beauty of the world. 第三节语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 A new and interesting job is becoming popular around the world.People can now make videos of their daily housework at home.These videos are used to teach humanoid()robots 66 to live and help in a family. This work started a few years ago.A report in 2026 first described this new kind of work.Back then,a tech company needed real-life data to train its robots.The company came 67 with a plan to ask people for help.Workers in countries like Nigeria and the Philippines 68 (invite)to join.For them,it was a good chance 69 (get)a better job.: Now,these workers wear small cameras.They record simple things,such as 70 (wash)dishes or making the bed.The videos are very useful.First,a computer program checks them.Then,people watch 71 (careful)and write notes about every action. Scientists explain how robots learn 72 these real-life videos.This real data is much 73 (important)than computer tests.It helps robots understand our daily life. However,some people have questions.They worry about their private life and ask who can see these home videos. Even with these 74 (worry),the report says the videos are very important for the future.In the end,this simple job shows 75 new way to build smart robots,and it gives more people a chance to make money. 第四部分书面表达（共1小题，满分20分) 76.假如你是李华，为切实减轻学生作业负担、提高学习效率，你班将举办一场以“Should we use extra practice books bought by our parents(我们应该使用家长购买的额外练习册吗)？”为主题的辩论赛。根据以下辩论稿结构和亲身经历， 请用英语从正方(For)或反方(Against)中选择一方撰写一篇辩论稿。 ④ Debate Speech Structure: ·Opening:Greet..Clearly state(陈述)your position(FOR/AGAINST). ·Body: Give your first reason,Share your personal experience to support it. Give your second reason. ·Closing:Summarize(总结)your opinion.State your position again. 注意： (1)辩论稿内容要求完整，可适当发挥，使文章连贯； (2)辩论稿中不得出现真实的人名和校名； (3)词数80左右，开头已给出，不计人总词数。 Should we use extra practice books bought by our parents? Hello,everyone.I'm Li Hua.I think we should机密★启用前 浙江省2026年初中学业水平考试 英语听力材料、参考答案及评分标准 I.参考答案 第一部分听力理解 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）》 1.B 2.A 3.C 4.A 5.B 第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 6.C 7.A 8.B 9.C 10.A 第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 11.A 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.B 第二部分阅读理解 第一节阅读理解（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分） 16.D 17.B 18.A 19.A 20.D 21.B 22.C 23.B 24.D 25.B 26.A 27.D 28.B 29.A 30.C 第二节任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 31.E 32.A 33.C 34.B 35.Yes,I do.Because they are beautiful artworks carrying culture and family stories. Or:No,Idon't.Because I prefer learning about culture through modern ways like videos.(答案合情合理即可) 第三部分 语言运用 第一节完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 36.B 37.D 38.A 39.D 40.C 41.B 42.A 43.C 44.A 45.B 46.A 47.D 48.B 49.D 50.C 第二节词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A.51.effect 52.dangerous 53.to keep 54.events 55.properly 56.from now on B.57.mine 58.illness 59.freely 60.tired 61.shook 62.protecting 63.children/kids 64.once 65.away 第三节语法填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分） 66.how 67.up 68.were invited 69.to get 70.washing 71.carefully 72.from 73.more important 74.worries 75.a 第四部分 书面表达 76.(共1小题，满分20分) Possible version 1: Should we use extra practice books bought by our parents? Hello,everyone.I'm Li Hua.I think we should refuse to use extra practice books from our parents. First,they often waste our time.For example,my mom bought me a maths book last month.The problems in it were too hard and different from our schoolwork.I spent a lot of time on it but learned little.I felt very tired.Second,we are already busy with homework.More books mean less time to play sports,read books,or just rest.This is not good for us. 1 In conclusion,I believe doing our schoolwork carefully is the best way to learn.We do not need those extra books. Thank you. (102 words) Possible version 2: Should we use extra practice books bought by our parents? Hello,everyone.I'm Li Hua.I think we should use extra practice books from our parents sometimes. First,they can give us more chances to practice.For example,I was weak in English reading.My father bought me a book with many short stories.After reading it every day,I learned many new words and my reading got much better. Second,when we don't understand something in class,a different book might explain it in another way.This can help us understand more clearly. To sum up,if we choose the right book and use it in the right way,it can help us improve.Thank you. (98 words) Ⅱ.评分标准 ●第1~5小题，每小题1分；选错答案（包括多选或不选）一律不给分。 ●第6~15小题，每小题1.5分：选错答案（包括多选或不选）一律不给分。 ●第16~30小题，每小题2分；选错答案（包括多选或不选）一律不给分。 ●第31~34小题，每小题2分：选错答案（包括多选或不选）一律不给分。 ●第35小题，2分： 2分：正确回答两个问题，言之有理，且不超过15词；若超过15词，酌情扣分： 1分：只正确回答其中一个问题： 0分：不作答，或回答不相关。 ●第36~50小题，每小题1分；选错答案（包括多选或不选）一律不给分。 ●第51~65小题，每小题1分：写错答案一律不给分；首字母大小写错误不扣分。 ●第66~75小题，每小题1分；写错答案一律不给分；首字母大小写错误不扣分。 ●第76小题为20分，按下列表格要求给分。 一、采分点 采分点 满分 可给分值 6一7分描述了所有要点，内容合理、丰富 1.内容充实，覆盖要点（内 3-5分 描述了大部分要点，内容比较合理 7 容、要点) 1一2分 描述了部分要点，内容不合理 0分 没有作答或作答内容与要点无关 6一7分 用词贴切，句型变化多样且有效，完全或基本没有语言错误 2.用词贴切，语法正确，句型 3一5分用词基本贴切，句型较为单一，有少量语言错误但不影响理解 多样（词汇、语法、句型） 1一2分 有较多语言错误，一定程度上影响理解 0分 有大量语言错误，影响理解 3.结构紧凑，意义连贯（语 3一4分行文连贯，连接词使用恰当，指代清晰 1一2分行文不够连贯，连接词使用不够恰当，指代不够清晰 意、连词、指代) 0分 没有连贯的意识 2分大小写、标点正确，词数达标，书写规范整洁 4.书写规范，词数适宜（标点 2 1分 符号、大小写、词数) 大小写、标点有部分错误，词数达标，书写尚可辨认 0分大小写、标点错误较多，语言运用不规范，词数严重不足，书写难以辨认 二、评分细则 1.本题总分20分，按5个档次给分 2.根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整。 3.词数少于60，适度扣分。 4.应注意的主要内容：内容要点、词汇、语法结构及上下文的连贯性与逻辑性。 5.如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。 2 三、档次划分 包含所有要点，完全完成了试题规定的任务：有清晰文本框架，较多的语法结构和词汇：有效地使用了语句间 第五档1820分 的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑，行文连贯，表达清楚；语言基本无误。 基本包含所有要点，遗漏少量要点，较全面地完成了试题规定的任务：有较清晰的文本框架，比较多样的语法 第四档14~17分 结构和词汇；行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚：语言有少量错误。 第三档 10~13分 包含大多数要点，基本完成了试题规定的任务：少许语句不通顺，语言错误较多，但不影响整体理解」 只包含少数要点，未恰当完成试题规定的任务：多数语句不完整，语法结构单调，词汇项目有限，语言有较多错 第二档 69分 误，影响理解。 1~5分 只包含个别要点，未完成试题规定的任务：多数语句不完整或意思不明，内容不连贯，错误很多。 第一档 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息，写的内容均与所要求的内容无关或所写内容无法看清 Ⅲ.听力材料 考试说明 1.该部分分为第一、第二、第三节。 2.回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。 3.听力部分结束前，将有1分钟时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。 听力试音 W:Hello,my name is Jennifer.I'll be taking you on your tour today.Nice to meet you both.So,do you have any questions before we start? M:Yes,are we the only people on this trip? W:Actually,you are.Yesterday,there were 17 people,so you're getting a private tour today. M:Great!So,what are we going to do? W:Well,in a few minutes,we're going to start our walk up to the mountain.And we hope to get there before the sun rises.Then,we'll come back down for a short breakfast,and after that,the car will pick us up. M:So,what do we need to bring?We both have our towels,hiking shoes,and swimming suits. W:Well,do you have swimming glasses?Yeah,good.And for our lunch,our driver will prepare sandwiches for us. After the quick lunch,the car will take us to a national park.And then we will go to the seaside in the late afternoon. We have prepared all that you need to swim. 试音到此结束。钱塘甬真集·浙真组合·钱塘甬真卷1号作品·明州英语听力部分正式开始： 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位 置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1.W:Hi,Tom!What are you going to do after school today? M:Hello,Lily!I'm going to join the English club with my deskmate in the classroom building. 2.W:Where will you go to do volunteer work this Saturday morning,Eric? M:Well,I'll go to the old people's home to read newspapers for the elderly. 3.W:David,why do you always use a cloth bag when shopping? M:That's a good question,Lucy.It can help cut down white pollution and care for our environment. 4.W:John,how should we keep safe when an earthquake comes? M:We should stay under a strong desk and not take the lift. 5.W:Mike,who helps you do housework at home on weekends? M:My elder sister often helps me clean the living room,Emma. W:It's nice!Working with family makes our home warm and happy. 第二节 听下面2段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相 应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话 读两遍。 3 听下面一段较长对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 (现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读第6至7两小题) (停顿00'10") M:Hi,Malee!Are you free this weekend?There is a space show in our city. W:Hi,Steve!Yes,I am.I'm really interested in space and stars. M:Great!Which space object do you like most,the moon,Mars or stars? W:I like Mars best.It's really cool to learn about the red planet. M:Me too!The show has many pictures and models about it. W:Sounds wonderful!When will the space show start? M:It will start at nine o'clock on Saturday morning. W:OK!I'll go there with you and enjoy the space show together. (停顿2秒后，朗读第二遍)》 (停顿00'10") 听下面一段较长对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 (现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读第8至10三小题) (停顿00'15") M:Hi,Kelly.What did you do last weekend? W:Oh.I helped in our school garden,James.We have a small vegetable garden now. M:Really?What did you do there? W:I planted some beans and carrots with my classmates.It was fun. M:That sounds interesting.Do you often go there? W:Yes,we go there every Tuesday afternoon.We water the plants and watch them grow. M:Why do you like gardening? W:Because it's relaxing.And I enjoy doing things with my hands. M:I like hands-on activities too.Last month,I made a small bird house. W:Wow,that's cool!Where did you put it? M:I put it in the tree beside my house.Now some birds come every day. W:That's wonderful!I hope our vegetables will grow big and healthy soon. (停顿2秒后，朗读第二遍) (停顿00'15") 第三节 听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听 独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。独白读两遍。 听下面一段独白，回答第11至第15五个小题。 (现在，你有25秒钟的时间阅读第11至15五小题) (停顿00'25") W/M:Attention,everyone!Here is a school notice about our two-day study trip.All Grade 9 students will take part in it.We will have the trip this Friday and Saturday.Please meet at the school gate at 7:00 on Friday morning.We will go to two places by school bus. Please take your schoolbag,water cup,lunch box,notebook and pen.You must wear school uniforms and comfortable sports shoes.You can also take a light jacket. On the first day,we will visit the City Science Museum.We will make small creative things and learn new ideas.On the second day,we will go to Green Farm.We will grow plants and learn about nature. Please follow your teachers.Don't run around.Be on time for each activity.Ask your head teacher if you have questions.Wish you a happy and meaningful trip! (停顿2秒后，朗读第二遍) (停顿00'25) 结束提示 现在你有1分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。 4