山东临沂市兰陵县2026年中考模拟试题（二）九年级英语

九年级听力测试现在开始。注意听力测试分四部分，共二十小题。做题时请先将答案划在试卷上，录音内容结束后将所选答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节听下面5段对话，选择与对话内容相对应的图片，每段对话读两遍。one. Hi lisa, where you wet? I forgot to take my umbrella. IT started raining heavily on my way home. Hi lisa, where are you wet? I forgot to take my umbrella. IT started raining heavily on my way home. Two, what's your favorite sport? Mike. basketball. I play IT with my friends every friday afternoon. What's your favorite sport? Mike, basketball. I play IT with my friends every friday afternoon. Three. excuse me, can I borrow this book? sure. Please show me your library card. Excuse me, can I borrow this book? sure. Please show me your library card. For you played . the piano so well. Lily, how long have you learned? IT, thank you. I've learned IT for five years. You played the piano so well. Lily, how long have you learned? IT. thank you. I've learned IT for five years. Five, how do you go to school every day? Mike. I ride my bike. It's good exercise and saves time. How do you go to school every day? Mike. I ride my bike. It's good exercise and saves time. 第二节听下面两段对话。第一段对话后有两个小题，第二段对话后有三个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，每段对话读两遍，听第一段对话回答六七小题。Excuse me, could you tell me the way to the nearest post office? Sure, go straight along the street for about ten minutes. You'll see a supermarket on your left. The post office is just . behind IT is IT far from here? Not really. It's about a fifteen minute walk. Thank you very much. You're welcome. Excuse me. could you tell me the way to the nearest st. Post office? sure. Go straight along the street for about ten minutes. You'll see a supermarket on your left. The post office is just behind. IT is IT far from here. Not really. It's about a fifteen minute walk. Thank you very much. You're welcome. 听第二段对话，回答8至10小题。What are you going to do this weekend, jack? I'm going to help clean up the city park with my classmates. That sounds meaningful. Are you going with your teacher? Yes, this, they will go with us. We'll started nine AM on saturday. Can I join you? Of . course, everyone is welcome. Remember to wear comfortable . shoes and bring gloves. Okay, see you. then. What are you going to do this weekend? jack? I'm going to help clean up the city park with my classmates. That sounds meaningful. Are you going with your teacher? Yes, mr. Lee will go with us. We'll started nine AM on saturday. Can I join you? Of . course, everyone is welcome. Remember to wear comfortable shoes . and bring gloves. Okay, see you then. 第三节听下面一段独白，独白后有五个判断题，一、正确的用A表示，不正确的用B表示。听独白前你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题，该段独白读两遍。My name is lily. I used to be afraid of speaking in public, but now i'm much more confident. Last month, our school held an english speech contest. My teacher encouraged me to take part in IT. I chose the topic about protecting the environment. I practice the speech every day for two weeks. On the contest day, I was nervous at first, but when I saw my friend smiling at me, I felt Better. Finally, I want the second prize. I learned that if we try our best, we can achieve our goals. My name is the way I used to be afraid of speaking in public, but now i'm much more confident. Last month, our school held an english speech contest. My teacher encouraged me to take part in IT. I chose the topic about protecting the environment. I practice the speech every day for two weeks. On the contest day, I was nervous at first, but when I saw my friends smiling at me, I felt Better. Finally, I want the second prize. I learned that if we try our best, we can achieve our goals. 第四节听下面一段对话，对话后有五个填空题，根据所听内容在空格处填入适当的单词，每空词数不限。听对话前你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题，该段对话读三遍。Hello, tom, I heard you went to the old people's home last sunday. How was IT? IT was great, mary. We did a lot of things for the old people. What did you do? First we clean their rooms and wash their clothes. Then some of us perform shows like singing and dancing. I told funny stories to make them laugh. That's so kind of you. Did you bring any gifts? Yes, we bought some fruit and flowers. The old people were very happy. How often do you go there? We plan to go twice a month from now on. Can I join you . next time? sure. Lets go together. Hello, tom, I heard you went to the old people's home last sunday. How was IT? IT was great. mary. We did a lot of things for the old people. What did you do first? We clean their rooms and wash their clothes. Then some of us perform shows like singing and dancing. I told funny stories to make them laugh. That's so kind of you. Did you bring any gifts? Yes, we bought some fruit and flowers. The old people were very happy. How often do you go there? We plan to go twice a month from now on. Can I join you . next time? sure. Lets go together. Hello, tom. I heard you went to the old people's home last sunday. How was IT? IT was great, mary. We did a lot of things for the old people. What did you do? First, we clean their rooms and wash their clothes. Then some of us perform shows like singing and dancing. I told funny stories to make them laugh. That's so kind of you. Did you bring any gifts? Yes, we bought some fruit and flowers. The old people were very happy. How often do you go there? We plan to go twice a month from now on. Can I join you . next time? Sure, lets go together. 英语试题听力测试部分到此结束，请考生将听力测试答案填涂到答题卡上，然后做其他试题。 2026年中考模拟试题（二） 英语 注意事项： 1．本试卷共10页，满分100分，考试时间120分钟。答卷前，考生务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号填写在答题卡规定的位置。考试结束后，只需将答题卡交回。 2．非选择题答在答题纸上，答在本试卷上不得分。 第一部分 听力测试（共四节，满分20分） 做题时，可先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，必须将答案填涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。 1. _______ 2. _______ 3. _______ 4. _______ 5. _______ 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面2段对话。第一段对话后有2个小题，第二段对话后有3个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，每段对话读两遍。 听第一段对话，回答第6和7小题。 6. Where does the man want to go? A. To a supermarket. B. To a post office. C. To a bank. 7. How long does it take to walk there? A. 10 minutes. B. 12 minutes. C. 15 minutes. 听第二段对话，回答第8至10小题。 8. What is Jack going to do this weekend? A.Visit a museum. B. Clean up the park. C. Play basketball. 9. Who will go with them? A. Mr. Li. B. Jack’s parents. C. No one. 10. What should the girl bring? A. A map. B. Water. C. Gloves. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面1段独白。独白后有5个判断题，正确的用“A”表示，不正确的用“B”表示。 听独白前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。 11. Li Wei used to be afraid of speaking in public. 12. The speech contest was held two months ago. 13. Li Wei’s topic was about school life. 14. Li Wei practiced for two weeks. 15. Li Wei won the first prize. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面1段对话。对话后有5个填空题，根据所听内容在空格处填入适当的单词，每空词数不限。听对话前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对话读三遍。 16. When did Tom go to the old people’s home? Tom went to the old people’s home last _________. 17. What did Tom do there? Tom told _________ to make the old people laugh. 18. What did Tom buy as gifts? They bought some _________ and flowers as gifts. 19. How often does Tom plan to go there? They plan to go to the old people’s home _________ a month. 20. What will Mary do next time? Mary will _________ Tom next time. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Linyi International Calligraphy Culture Festival April 18th-20th, 2026 | Wang Xizhi’s Former Residence (故居), Linyi Activity Time Feature Calligraphy Show 9:00-11:30 Famous artists write “Linyi” in ancient styles Hands-on Workshop 13:30-15:00 Try writing with a brush (ink & paper provided) Lantern Riddles 15:30-17:00 Solve riddles & win Linyi pancake coupons Storytelling Corner 19:00-20:30 Legends of Wang Xizhi and the “Preface to the Orchid Pavilion”《兰亭集序》 Payment: Free for students with school ID. Adults: ¥ 30. Tips: No food inside the exhibition hall. Audio guide available in English/Chinese. (*The festival is held to honor Wang Xizhi, the greatest calligrapher in Chinese history, and to spread traditional culture worldwide.*) 21. Where will the Calligraphy Festival take place? A. Linyi Stadium B. Wang Xizhi’s Former Residence C. Shandong Museum 22. Which activity lasts the longest (most time) according to the schedule? A. Calligraphy Show B. Storytelling Corner C. Hands-on Workshop 23. What can a student get if he/she solves lantern riddles successfully? A. Free brush B. A copy of calligraphy book C. Linyi pancake coupons B The 2026 Spring Festival Gala (晚会), China’s most-watched TV show on Chinese New Year’s Eve, surprised the audience with a special program — the martial arts show WUBOT (武 BOT). In this performance, about 80 young martial (武术的) artists from Henan Tagou Martial Arts School stood side by side with more than twenty human-shaped robots. The robots, developed by Yushu Technology, played the role of “kung fu kids.” They moved together with the human performers, completing difficult moves like backflips (后空翻), jumping, and playing with nunchucks (双节棍). Creating this show was not easy. The greatest challenge was making sure the robots could move quickly and accurately at the same time. To solve this, the technical team built a new control system and spent over a month letting the robots “learn” every inch (英寸) of the 600-square-meter stage through 3D modeling. The young martial artists also played an important part. They acted like teachers, showing their moves again and again and helping to improve the robots’ actions. This creative mix of traditional martial arts and modern technology made WUBOT one of the most impressive shows of the night. The performance not only showed the charm of Chinese kung fu but also highlighted (强调) the rapid development of artificial intelligence in China. 24. What do we know about the martial arts show WUBOT? A. It was performed only by human-shaped robots. B. It required close teamwork between human performers and robots. C. It was a dance show instead of a martial arts show. 25. The underlined word “accurately” in paragraph 2 probably means ______. A. exactly and correctly B. simply and easily C. slowly and carefully. 26. What can we infer (推断) from the second paragraph? A. The robots learned all the moves without any human help. B. Human performers did nothing but watch the robots. C. Making the robots perform well was a big challenge. 27. What is the best title for the passage? A. A Night of Dancing Robots B. The Art of Chinese Kung Fu C. Traditional Martial Arts Meet Modern Technology C Liang Wenfeng, born in 1985 in Guangdong Province, is the founder of DeepSeek, one of China’s most exciting AI companies. Growing up in an ordinary family — both of his parents were primary school teachers — he showed a strong talent for math and science from an early age. At 17, he became the top scorer in his city’s college entrance exam and got into Zhejiang University, where he studied electronic information engineering and later earned a master’s degree in information and communication engineering. After university, Liang first built a successful career in quantitative investment (量化投资) using AI. In 2023, he turned his focus to a bigger dream: creating advanced artificial intelligence (人工智能) that everyone could use. He founded DeepSeek with a small team of just 139 engineers and researchers, while some US AI companies had thousands of employees (雇员). Although the team size isn’t big, DeepSeek quickly achieved remarkable (非凡的) results. In early 2025, DeepSeek released its R1 model for the first time, which performed as well as top international AI models but cost much less to train. This big achievement shocked the global tech world, and the model was called the “mysterious power from the East” by overseas (海外的) users. Liang believes that China should be a contributor (贡献者) to technology, not just a follower. His company also made its AI model open-source, meaning anyone can use and improve it for free. Thanks to Liang’s vision (视野) and hard work, DeepSeek now has millions of users around the world. His story shows that passion and creativity can truly change the world. 28. What do we know about Liang Wenfeng’s childhood? A. He showed great interest in math and science from an early age. B. He grew up in a rich family in a big city. C. His parents often asked him about his exam grades. 29. What does the underlined word “release” in paragraph 3 probably mean? A．回收 B．发布 C．放弃 30. Why was the release of DeepSeek-R1 considered a big achievement? A. Because it was the first AI model ever made in China. B. Because it performed well at a much lower cost than other top models. C. Because it was made by a huge team of thousands of engineers. 31. What is the passage mainly about? A. The development of artificial intelligence in China. B. How to train AI models with very low cost. C. Liang Wenfeng’s growth from a talented student to a successful AI pioneer. D ①Look at the two shapes in the picture. Which one do you think is “kiki” and which one is “bouba”? This is a famous bouba-kiki experiment done in both America and India. ②In the experiment, people saw two drawings. One had a rounded shape, and the other had a star-like shape. People had to name each of them with “bouba” or “kiki”. Both of these words were not real words in any language and had no meaning. However, 95% of people decided the rounded one was “bouba”, and the star-like one was “kiki”. ③Why? It shows our brains seem to connect sounds with shapes. The researchers believe the results have something to do with the mouth shapes we make when we say these words. Pronouncing “bouba” requires the mouth to make a rounded shape. Other examples of “rounded” sounds are oo in “room” and o in “wrote”. An unrounded mouth shape is needed to make the sound of “kiki”. “Unrounded” sounds require the lips to be spread apart, like ee in “peek” or a in “had”. ④Another explanation is that letters such as k or t are thought to have unrounded sounds because of their sharp shapes. Letters like b or g have rounded shapes, so they are considered to have rounded and soft sounds. ⑤Understanding the bouba-kiki effect can lead to its possible use in fields like branding (品牌创建) and communication. For example, a toy brand that wants to show softness may use rounded shapes and sounds (the “bouba” effect). Similarly, a technology company may turn to the “kiki” effect to show it’s sharp and powerful. So next time you want to design a logo for a school event or name a product, consider whether it feels more like “bouba” or “kiki”! 32. How does the writer begin the text? A. By listing numbers. B. By asking a question. C. By giving examples. 33. According to the text, what can you learn about the bouba-kiki experiment? A. It was done in both America and England. B. It shows connections between shapes and sounds. C. Most people connect “bouba” with star-like things. 34. Which brand best shows the “kiki” effect? A. Loops. B. Wubbo. C. Teeki. 35. What is the correct structure (结构) of the passage? A. B. C. 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Do you ever feel like your study habits simply don’t work? Do you wonder what you could be doing to perform better in class and on exams? Then maybe you need to study smarter not harder. 36. _____________ Reading is not studying. Simply reading and re-reading your notes is not the same as truly learning. Real studying means making meaning from the text. It includes connecting new ideas to what you already know, creating your own examples, and actively planning your learning. 37. _____________ When you prepare for a test, organize your materials first, then review each topic actively. It’s helpful to stay focused. In fact, you will achieve more if you study with full attention. Here is a useful study strategy: 38. _____________ Focused study periods can last 30 or 45 minutes and include effective learning methods. This way, you are more likely to concentrate (专注) and remember the information and perform better. Test yourself often. Many students think they know something just because it looks familiar. But familiarity is not understanding. 39. _____________ For example, after reading a chapter, close the book and explain the main ideas in your own words. Or use flashcards to check your memory. This kind of self-testing shows you what you really know and what you still need to review. All in all, by following these smart study tips, you can improve your learning efficiency (效率). 40. ______________ So start changing your study habits today and you’ll see the difference! A. Here are some important tips for you. B. Organization and planning will help you really study for your courses. C. Studying smarter is the key to perform better. D. The best way to know if you’ve learned something is to test yourself. E. Set a timer and study with complete focus for short periods. F. Active learning helps you understand and remember better. 答案：36. _________ 37. _________ 38. _________ 39. _________ 40. _________ 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共6小题；每小题1分，满分6分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 My grandfather is a master of making bamboo kites. When I was young, I thought his craft (手艺) was old-fashioned and 41 . I preferred video games to learning from him. He often said, “A kite without a string (线) is like a person without a home.” Last spring, our school held a “Cultural Heritage (遗产) Day” activity. Each student had to 42 a traditional skill. Remembering Grandpa, I decided to learn kite-making from him. He took me to the bamboo forest to choose materials. Then in his workshop, he showed me how to cut the bamboo into thin pieces, shape the frame, and paint the paper. I didn’t do that very well at first, and I wanted to 43 . But Grandpa guided me and encouraged me patiently. After three weekends, my first kite was completed. When we flew it in the field, it rose into the sky like a bird. 44 it dance with the wind, I understood Grandpa’s words. The string connects the kite to the ground, just as tradition connects us to our roots. That day, I learned that cultural heritage is alive in every 45 we pass down. Now I am the third generation of kite-makers in my family. I will 46 this craft to the next generation, just as Grandpa did for me. 41. A. boring B. exciting C. useful 42. A. avoid B. choose C. invent 43. A. give up B. get up C. grow up 44. A. To watch B. Watch C. Watching 45. A. story B. skill C. problem 46. A. throw away B. hand down C. cut off 第二节（共6小题；每小题1分，满分6分） 阅读下面短文，从方框中的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 A. by accident B. known C. by himself D. so well E. created F. as a master of G. carefully Qi Baishi was one of China’s most famous artists. He was born in 1864 in Hunan Province. When he was young, his family was very poor. He had to work on a farm to help his family. Qi Baishi loved art from an early age. He started studying 47 because he couldn’t go to art school. He worked very hard and learned from nature. He watched flowers, insects, and animals 48 . When he was in his twenties, he began to paint pictures for a living. Later, he met some famous artists and learned much from them. He studied many styles and created his own way of painting. Qi Baishi is 49 for his paintings of shrimps. He painted them 50 that they seemed alive. He once said, “The beauty of painting lies between likeness and unlikeness.” Throughout his life, Qi Baishi 51 thousands of art works. He also taught many students who became artists too. His works are loved by people all over the world. Today, he is remembered 52 Chinese art. 答案：47. _________ 48. _________ 49. _________ 50. _________ 51. _________ 52. _________ 第三节（共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 When Li Ming started Grade 9, he was afraid of 53 (speak) in public. His English teacher, Ms. Wang, encouraged him 54 (join) an English speech contest about “Linyi in My Eyes”. At first, he wanted to refuse. “I can’t even introduce myself without stammering (结巴),” he whispered. However, he 55 (tell) by his teacher, “Courage doesn’t mean you’re never afraid; it means you act even if you’re afraid.” Li Ming chose to talk about the ancient “Langya Ancient City” and the delicious “Linyi Pancake”. He practiced 56 (careful) in front of a mirror, recorded his voice, and corrected pronunciation. To his 57 (surprised), during the contest, although his hands were shaking, he remembered his mother’s smile and finished his speech with a clear voice. He didn’t win the first prize, 58 he won the “Most Improved Confidence” award. After that unforgettable experience, Li Ming became more interested 59 English than before. He realized growth is not about being perfect, but stepping out of comfort zone (舒适区). “Next time, I 60 (tell) more stories of our hometown,” he says with a bright smile. 答案：53. _________ 54. _________ 55. _________ 56. _________ 57. _________ 58. _________ 59. _________ 60. _________ 第四部分 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，按照题目要求用英语回答问题。 Have you ever thought about how much we depend on the earth? Every day, we use water, wood, metals, and oil to live. These are natural resources (资源). However, humans are using them up too fast. Some resources, like coal (煤) and oil, will one day run out. That will be a big problem for our future. The good news is that we can help save the earth. The 57th World Earth Day falls on April 22, 2026. This year, China has chosen an important theme: “Cherish Natural Resources, Protect Our Beautiful China.” The theme reminds us that loving the earth is not a big, far-away job — it starts with small, everyday actions. In many Chinese schools, students are joining the “Green Guard” activity. They sort waste into different bins, turn off lights when leaving empty classrooms, and use both sides of their notebooks. Some schools even have “no-plastic-bag Tuesdays.” These small actions add up and make a real difference. Governments are also taking action. China has built large forests to stop deserts from growing. Many rivers have become much cleaner than before. Factories are now asked to reduce pollution. But the earth still needs everyone’s help. A famous scientist once said, “We do not get the earth from our ancestors; we borrow it from our children.” So, Start today! Turn off the tap while brushing your teeth. Carry a cloth bag when shopping. Plant a tree with your family. Remember, every small step makes our beautiful China greener and our future brighter. 61. What natural resources are mentioned that humans depend on every day? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 62. What actions do students take in the “Green Guard” activity? List at least three actions. ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 63. How are governments taking action to protect natural resources? Give two examples. ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 64. Can small everyday actions really make a difference to the earth? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 65. What can you do in your daily life to save natural resources? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 第五部分 补全对话（共4小题；第67小题2分，其余每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，在每个空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话完整，合乎情境。 A: Hey, Amy, have you watched the 315 Gala (晚会) on TV? B: 66. _____________________________. I was busy preparing for my P.E test. What’s it about? A: It tells that our favourite snacks, chicken feet don’t meet food safety standard. B: That’s terrible. What are we supposed to do then? A: 67. _____________________________. B: You are right. By the way, 68. _____________________________? A: Sounds like a good idea. But I don’t think our parents will allow us to watch a movie before we finish our homework. B: But it’s Friday today. We can finish our homework on Saturday. A: You are right. Let’s go to Sunshine Cinema. It’s not far. We can get there by bike. B: 69. _____________________________? A: About 10 minutes. B: OK. See you then. 第六部分 书面表达（满分15分） 现在，人工智能AI工具（如DeepSeek、ChatGPT、豆包等）越来越流行。有些同学用它来帮助学习，也有些同学担心它会让人变懒。请你以“AI in Students’ Life”为题，写一篇短文，谈谈你的看法。 写作要点： 1．简述人工智能在学习中的积极用途（如查资料、解答难题、练习英语等）； 2．指出可能存在的风险（如依赖AI而不思考、抄袭作业等）； 3．提出你的建议：如何合理使用AI辅助学习。 要求： 1．词数不少于80词； 2．观点明确，语句通顺，书写规范、卷面整洁； 3．文中不得使用真实姓名、校名，否则以零分计。 提示词：AI tool, search for information, depend on, think by yourself, properly AI in Students’ Life ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年中考模拟试题（二） 九年级英语参考答案及评分标准 第一部分 听力 （共四节，满分20分） （一）参考答案： 1-5 DAEBC 　　6-10 BCBAC 11-15 ABBAB 16. Sunday 17. funny stories 18. fruit 19. twice 20. join （二）评分说明： 1．本大题共20分，每小题1分。 2．凡与答案不符者不得分。 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分30分） （一）参考答案： 21-23 BAC 24-27 BACC 28-31 ABBC 32-35 BBCA 36-40 ABEDC （二）评分说明： 1．本大题共20小题；每小题1.5分，计30分。 2．凡与答案不符者不得分。 第三部分 语言运用 （共三节，满分20分） （一）参考答案： A 41-46 ABACBB B 47-52 CGBDEF 　　　　　 C 53. speaking 54. to join 55. was told 56. carefully 57. surprise 58. but 59. in 60. will tell （二）评分说明： 1．本大题共2O小题；每小题1分，计20分。 2．凡与答案不符者不得分。 第四部分 阅读表达 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分) （一）参考答案： 61．Water, wood, metals, and oil. 62．① Sort waste into different bins; ② Turn off lights when leaving empty classrooms; ③ Use both sides of their notebooks. (④ "no-plastic-bag Tuesdays" ) 63．(1) China has built large forests to stop deserts from growing. (2) Factories are asked to reduce pollution. 64．Yes, they can./Yes. 65．I can bring my own reusable water bottle to school instead of buying plastic bottles. / I can remind my family to turn of the lights when not in use. /...(答案合理即可) （二）评分说明： 1．本大题共5小题；每小题2分，计10分。 2．有与答案不符者，只要符合本题要求，句意和语法正确，即可得分；有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误，可酌情扣分；所写的句子虽无语法错误，意思通顺，但与题意不符者，不得分。 第五部分 补全对话 （共4小题；第（67）小题2分，其余每小题1分，满分5分） （一）参考答案： 66．No, I haven't. 67．We are supposed to say no to unhealthy food. / We should buy healthy food. / ... （言之有理即可） 68．What about watching a movie together? / Why not watch a movie together?/ 69．How long does it take? / How long does it take to get there? （二）评分说明： 1．本大题共4小题；计5分， 67题2分，其余1分。 2．有与答案不符者，只要符合本题要求，句意和语法正确，即可得分；有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误，可酌情扣分；所写的句子虽无语法错误，意思通顺，但与题意不符者，不得分。 第六部分 书面表达 (满分15分) （一）参考答案(略) （二）评分说明：本大题共15分, 请按以下四档标准进行评分。 第一档：(15分)符合题意要求，表达完整，条理清晰，语句通顺，语言正确无误。 第二档：(11—14分)符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言基本无误。 第三档：(6—10分)基本符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言有部分错误。 第四档：(0—5分)不符合题意要求，表达不够清楚，逻辑关系混乱，语言错误很多。 若书写潦草，可在以上基础上酌情扣除1-3分。 (注意：短文中不得出现考生的姓名、学校及其他相关信息，否则不予评分。) 补充说明： 1.照抄试卷中的 阅读材料或题中要点提示句的一律判0分。 2.拼写与标点符号是语言准确的一个方向，应视其对语言表达的影响程度予以考虑，如 书写较差以致影响表达，将分数降低一个档次。 3.词数应在80-90词左右，如不足80词，只能最高按二档计分，超过80词，不扣分。 4.对完成了试题规定的任务，语言地道，准确的书面表达，可给予满分。 4 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $