山东菏泽市牡丹区2026年九年级阶段性学业水平考试检测（二）英语试题

九年级阶段性学业水平考试检测（二） 英语试题 本试卷共8页。满分120分。考试时长120分钟。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。答案写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分30分） 做题时，可先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，必须将答案填涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5个句子。听完每个句子后，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳应答语。听完每个句子后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子读两遍。 1. A. Red. B. Milk. C. Chinese. 2. A. Good luck. B. Help yourself. C. Hold on, please. 3. A. For two days. B. Last week. C. With my family. 4. A. Here you are. B. Glad to hear that. C. It doesn’t matter. 5. A. He is tall. B. He is 32. C. He is running. 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有一个或几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第1段材料，回答以下小题 6. How was the weather then? A. Windy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy. 听第2段材料，回答以下小题 7. When will they leave? A. 9:30. B. 9:50. C. 10:00. 听第3段材料，回答以下小题 8. What will Mary do next? A. Have a rest. B. See a doctor. C. Take some medicine. 听第4段材料，回答以下小题 9. Where did Han Mei go last weekend? A. A museum. B. A temple fair. C. A zoo. 10. Which sugar painting did the artist make for Han Mei? A. B. C. 听第5段材料，回答以下小题。 11. What are they going to do this Sunday? A. Go hiking. B. Watch a movie. C. Visit a museum. 12. How far is the museum? A. About 2 km away. B. About 3 km away. C. About 5 km away. 听第6段材料，回答以下小题。 13. Who bought the phone for Danny? A. His parents. B. His grandma. C. His grandpa. 14. How often can Danny use the mobile phone? A. Twice a day. B. Twice a week. C. Twice a month. 15. How long does Danny usually learn English with the phone each time? A. For 20 minutes. B. For 30 minutes. C. For 50 minutes. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面1段独白。独白后有5个填空题，根据所听内容在空格内填入适当的单词。听独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，你将有1分钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。 A trip to the lake How • We went there by 16 . What to see • The water was blue and clear. • There were green grass and 17 flowers. What to do • We began to walk around the lake 18 , enjoying the beautiful scenery and fresh air. • I 19 a lot of pictures. • We had a picnic under a tree near the lake. • We played 20 in the sun and had a lot of fun. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 A Teen Advice Corner is a place for advice from teens to teens. Dear Advice Corner, I’m a high school student and I feel really tired these days. I have too much homework every day, which often keeps me up late at night, and I also have after-school classes on weekends. I used to enjoy reading interesting storybooks and listening to light music in my free time, but now I have no time for my hobbies at all. I want to balance my study and free time but don’t know how. My parents think after-school classes are good for my grades, so I’m afraid to tell them I’m stressed and exhausted. I even feel tired when talking to my friends, and I really need some help to get out of this situation. Can you help me? — Stressed Student Dear Stressed Student, IMO, you should talk to your parents about your feelings openly and politely. Don’t be afraid to share how tired and stressed you are — most parents care more about their children’s happiness than just grades. Explain to them that proper relaxation can help you study better, and you can work out a practical plan together. For example, you might cut down one after-school class or agree on a fixed time for your hobbies every day. Besides, you can ask your teachers for tips to finish homework more efficiently, which can save you more time to relax. — Linda Dear Stressed Student, I understand your feeling completely — I was in a similar situation last term. My advice is to make a clear time plan every morning or the night before. Write down all your tasks, including homework, after-school classes, and even meal times, then set a specific time for each one. Try your best to finish each task on time, and avoid putting off work. You can also squeeze in 10 to 15 minutes every day for your hobbies, like reading a few pages of a book or listening to a short song. This small break will help you relax and study more effectively later. — David Notes: IMO = in my opinion; BFF = best friend forever 21. Why is Stressed Student afraid to talk to her parents about her stress? A. Her parents are too strict with her. B. Her parents think after-school classes are good for her grades. C. She is afraid her parents will be angry with her. 22. What does David suggest Stressed Student do to save time for hobbies? A. Make a clear time plan and finish tasks on time. B. Ask her teachers to reduce her homework. C. Finish her homework as quickly as possible. 23. What can we learn from Linda’s advice? A. Talking to parents and teachers can help solve the problem. B. Parents care more about grades than their children’s happiness. C. Stressed Student should give up all after-school classes. B The 2026 Spring Festival Gala (春晚) showed us not only the power of technology, but also its warm side, bringing a feast for the eyes to hundreds of millions of viewers. There was an amazing show called “Wu BOT”, where four top Chinese robot companies gathered their latest humanoid (人形的) robots on the stage, each with smooth movements and flexible responses. These robots are no longer distant lab products but are gradually moving from labs into our real life, narrowing the gap between technology and daily life. They could run, flip in the air, swing swords, and even do kungfu with real performers, making it like a science fiction movie coming to life right in front of our eyes. Different from last year’s cute robots that only danced simple dances, this year’s robots were much more amazing and professional. They moved as fast as lightning, acted just like real people, creating a beautiful picture of harmony between humans and machines, which touched every audience. Though humanoid robots are still in the early stages of development and have not been widely used in everyday life yet, the future is full of promise. In the near future, these intelligent robots will help us with daily chores, free up our time, and the dream of getting help from robots is coming true. 24. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The 2026 Spring Festival Gala was a great success. B. The “Wu BOT” show at the 2026 Spring Festival Gala reflects the development and promise of humanoid robots. C. Humanoid robots have been widely used in people’s daily life. 25. Which of the following is NOT a movement of the robots in “Wu BOT”? A. Dancing complex and difficult dances. B. Running and flipping in the air. C. Swinging swords and doing kungfu with real performers. 26. We can infer from the passage that ________. A. last year’s robot show was more amazing than this year’s B. the four robot companies are from different countries C. humanoid robots will play a role in people’s daily life in the near future 27. What makes this year’s robots different from last year’s? A. They are cuter and more popular with audiences. B. They are more amazing, professional and have more flexible movements. C. They can only dance simple and easy dances. C My grandma and I have different opinions about Chinese customs. There is a story about it. Last week, my cousin Amy dropped by for the Mid-Autumn Festival. She is from the US. Grandma got up early to prepare things for meals. She would make a huge traditional dinner with braised pork and dumplings at home. “Eating at home is a symbol of love and respect for family,” she said, wiping her hands on her apron. But I suggested we could order food online, which is quicker and saves time. Grandma looked at me seriously and said, “Some traditions are valuable. They help us remember who we are and where we come from” The next day, I took Amy to a modern tea house in the old town. People were drinking Longjing tea while watching musicians perform on stage. Amy clapped her hands and took photos. “It’s a cool mix of old and new,” she said. I agreed and suddenly thought of grandma’s words. Maybe we could change the forms of some customs to fit modern life without losing their meaning. Later, we sat in the yard admiring the full moon. Amy asked if we still wrote poems for the festival. “Not many young people do,” I answered. “Some think it’s too difficult,” Grandma shook her head and said. “The purpose of writing poems isn’t to have a perfect poem, but to express feelings for family,” she said softly. She added that the true spirit of these customs is supposed to be remembered by us forever. Now I’m thinking: maybe the best way is not to give up old customs fully, but to find new ways to keep their spirit alive. 28. Why did Grandma get up early to cook a big dinner? A. To save time and energy B. To make Amy try American food C. To show love and respect for the family 29. What did the writer want to do about dinner? A. Cook traditional food with Grandma B. Order food online C. Eat out in a restaurant 30. What did Amy think of the modern tea house? A. It was a nice mix of old and new B. It was too old-fashioned C. It was not interesting at all 31. What is the writer’s final opinion? A. Old customs should be given up completely B. We should keep the spirit of old customs in new ways C. Young people must write poems during festivals D If music makes you smart and exercise helps you to think, surely exercising to music can turn you into a person who is better at learning and understanding. A team of scientists from a university did tests on 33 volunteers. They found that people who exercised while listening to Italian musician Antonio Vivaldi’s The Four Seasons did much better in a language ability test than without music. The volunteers said they felt better after exercising with or without the music. But their improvement on the test doubled after listening to the music during exercise. “Exercise seems to cause positive changes in the nervous system (神经系统) and have a direct effect on learning ability,” said the scientist Charles Emery. Scientists have found that music can be good for health and education. It helps reduce stress, sadness and nervousness, encourages relaxation or sleep, wakes up the body and improves memory and thoughts. Scientists have been using Mozart’s music, especially his violin pieces, to help children with speech disabilities. Mozart is often chosen because his music is not over-exciting. A study showed students who often exercise to Mozart’s music get higher marks in tests. With important exams drawing near, your parents will not probably allow you to listen to music. But perhaps now you have good reasons to argue with them. 32. What kind of person can exercising to music turn you into? A. A person who is good at singing songs. B. A person who does well in doing sports. C. A person who is better at learning and understanding. 33. How many great musicians are mentioned in the text? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. 34. What can music be good for according to the text? A. Health and education. B. Only outdoor exercise. C. Only speaking abilities. 35. What does the text mainly talk about? A. Exercising to music is helpful for learning and understanding. B. Mozart’s music is the best music for students’ exams. C. All people should listen to music while doing sports every day. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有一项为多余选项。 The final exam was coming. Lily felt a lot of pressure. She studied hard all night, trying to remember every bit of information. 36 One afternoon, while she was studying in the classroom, a group of classmates began discussing the upcoming exam. Their confident words and relaxed laughter made her nervous. 37 “Why are they all so relaxed?” she thought angrily, “Why am I feeling anxious (焦虑的)?” As the days went by, her anxiety turned into anger. She found herself getting angry with friends and family easily, even though she tried to be calm. Lily realized that she couldn’t be like this anymore. She looked for help from the school psychology (心理学) teacher. 38 She found some good ways to manage her emotions (情绪), too. She discovered that many teenagers were facing similar problems. After that, Lily took up some sports activities. 39 Gradually, she became calmer and controlled her emotions better. 40 Although the pressure didn’t completely disappear, she knew how to deal with it. When she walked out of the exam room, she felt relaxed, knowing that she had overcome her inner fears and become stronger. A. She quickly felt upset. B. She began to spend time with friends. C. She didn’t dare to face the exam results. D. When the exam came, Lily faced them calmly. E. However, no matter how hard she studied, she still felt worried. F. By talking with the teacher, she learned how to deal with stress. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 Before my trip to the Philippines, my friends thought I was 41 . “Dive with sharks?!” They believed sharks were scary killers. That’s possibly true. But my parents and I were 42 . We headed to Malapascua Island, famous for sharks with amazing long tails. We woke up early and dived 15 meters down. The water was calm. I waited 43 , my heart beating fast. Suddenly, two big shadows appeared-sharks! They swam past beautifully and calmly, and I nearly forgot to 44 . Their eyes were round like cartoon eyes. Their skin looked gray far away, but shone bright blue. The most wonderful part was their 45 . They moved so gracefully, waving like a dancing dress in a waltz (华尔兹舞). Though these sharks can be seven meters long, I felt no 46 . I only thought how lovely they were. Later I learned they use tails to catch fish, not teeth. A single tail flick (轻拍) can knock out hundreds of sardines (沙丁鱼). Isn’t that clever? I also saw small fish 47 the sharks’ skin every morning. Sharks often came in pairs, possibly cleaning their bodies together. This experience taught me: what we fear is often gentle and beautiful. I didn’t see a monster, but a friend of the sea. It 48 my ideas on sharks and showed me real ocean beauty. We shouldn’t judge animals by what we 49 in films or from others. Every sea living thing has its beauty and importance. This trip has 50 me to explore the underwater world and protect our oceans. 41. A. crazy B. clever C. nervous 42. A. worried B. excited C. surprised 43. A. slowly B. happily C. nervously 44. A. travel B. breathe C. watch 45. A. eyes B. tails C. teeth 46. A. fun B. hope C. fear 47. A. clean off B. pick up C. look for 48. A. kept B. changed C. showed 49. A. watch B. make C. write 50. A. allowed B. ordered C. encouraged 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文并填空，然后将答案写到答题卡的相应位置（如有提示词，则填入提示词的正确形式；如无提示词，则填入1个适当的单词）。 Every day after school, Ethan would rush home, took his guitar and lose 51 (he) in the music. Playing was his greatest joy. One day, a local talent show 52 (announce). Ethan decided to join, but soon he started to worry. He compared himself with other 53 (music) and began to question his skills. The fear of failure began to weigh on him. Ethan’s grandfather noticed Ethan was troubled. He then 54 (share) a story from when he was young. “I once dreamed of being a painter, but self-doubt held me back,” he said. “I went to see an old artist who told me 55 (paint) a picture in front of a crowd. I was 56 (scary) and didn’t know what to do.” The artist smiled and said, “Don’t worry about what others think. Paint from your heart. True beauty comes from being authentic (真实的), not being perfect.” 57 this advice, Ethan’s grandfather let his feeling guide him. The crowd watched in amazement as a beautiful picture took shape. Inspired by his 58 (grandfather) story, Ethan practiced tirelessly. On the day of the talent show, he walked onto the stage and played like never before. His fingers danced over the strings, creating music that touched listeners’ hearts. Ethan didn’t win the talent show, 59 he felt like a winner. He learned that success isn’t just about 60 (win) a prize — it’s about enjoying what you love to do. The true reward is the journey itself. What we can learn from Ethan’s story is that the best progress comes from loving what we do, not just chasing prizes. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；满分10分） 阅读下面短文，按照题目要求用英语回答问题，并将答案写到答题卡的相应位置。 The world will be very different in 2045. So what’s going to happen then? It’s pretty possible that robots and AI will change the world a lot. Also, self-driving and flying cars will come into our daily life. However, scientists have even bigger ideas. In the video called Forward to the Future, scientists predicted what the world would be like in 2045. Dr. Justin Sanchez believes we’ll be able to control (控制) things simply by using our mind. “Think about a world where you just use your mind to control your environment.” Justin said. Scientists are working hard to have some progress (进展). “The future has more than just that. Many other exciting things could change the buildings and other things around us,” says Stefanie Tompkins. “We’ll be able to build things that are very strong but not heavy,” she predicted. Pam Melroy believes we’re going to find that we have a very different relationship with the machines around us. “I think we’ll be able to control a machine just by only saying some simple words,” she said. For example, right now to land a plane, a pilot may ________________. Then the computer knows the steps it needs to take. Or maybe, a pilot won’t even be necessary. 61. What may change the world a lot in 2045? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 62. What’s the name of the video? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 63. How many scientists gave their predictions in the video? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 64. Who has the prediction about changing the buildings and other things around us? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 65. Complete the sentence in the last paragraph with proper words. ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节（满分20分） 66．近期，关于父母与孩子间冲突的新闻频繁出现在媒体上。针对这一现象，某英文报社就“如何处理父母与孩子之间的矛盾”发起了一个专题征文活动。假设你是李华，请根据内容提示，结合你自己的观点，写一篇英语短文，并向英文报投稿。内容包括： 1．父母与孩子发生冲突的原因（如缺少交流与沟通、过分严格、坏习惯影响孩子等）； 2．解决办法（如加强交流与沟通、建立良好亲子关系、培养良好习惯等）。 写作要求： 1．词数80-100左右，短文的开头已经给出，不计入总词数； 2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3．文中不得出现真实人名、校名等信息。 Recently, news about the conflicts (冲突) between parents and children often appears in the media. Why are the relationships between parents and children becoming so tense? ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $英语试题听力测试部分共分3节，现在是听力试音时间。May I have your attention, please? This is an important message for you. Because of the heavy rain, the basketball match between class two and class five will not be held on our school playground as planned, but you need not feel disappointed for IT will be held at the Johnson sports centre. The schoolbus ses will be leaving at two o'clock this afternoon to take you to the centre. The match will begin at three P. M. You will be returning to school at five fifty teen in time to catch your usual buses home. All of you must be at the front gate of our school at one forty pm. Don't be late. Hope you have a good time. That's all. Thank you. May I have your attention, please? This is an important message for you. Because of the heavy rain, the basketball match between class two and class five will not be held on our school playground as planned, but you need not feel disappointed for IT will be held at the Johnson sports centre. The schoolbus ses will be leaving at two o'clock this afternoon to take you to the centre. The match will begin at three P. M. You will be returning to school at five fifteen in time to catch your usual buses home. All of you must be at the front gate of our school at one forty P. M. Don't be late. Hope you have a good time. That's all. Thank you. 试音到此结束。英语试题听力测试部分现在正式开始，请打开试卷第一页，请看第一部分听力测试第一节。第一节听下面五个句子，听完每个句子后从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳应答语。听完每个句子后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每个句子读两遍。One, Nancy, what's your favorite color? One, Nancy, what's your favorite color? too. Hello, may I speak to Alice? Too, hello, may I speak to Alice? Three、when did you join the school sports meeting? Three、when did you join the school sports meeting? Four, i'm sorry I broke your pencil. Four i'm sorry I broke your pencil. Five、what does your math teacher . look like? Five. what does your math teacher look like? 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有一个或几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。听第一段材料，回答以下小题。Was IT Sunny or rainy when you were on vacation? Tim IT was not Sunny or rainy. IT was windy. Was IT Sunny or rainy when you were on vacation? tim? IT was not Sunny or rainy. IT was windy. 听第二段材料，回答以下小题。Mom, it's half past nine. Shall we go shopping now? Just a moment, dear, let's leave twenty minutes later. Mom, it's half past nine. Shall we go shopping now? Just a moment, dear, let's leave twenty minutes later. 听第三段材料，回答以下小题。Mary, you look so tired. What's the matter? I didn't . go to sleep until two o'clock in the morning. Oh, that's too late. What were you doing? nothing. I was so worried about my math test. Well, take IT easy. You'd Better have a OK. I will. Mary, you look so tired. What's the matter? I didn't . go to sleep until two o clock in the morning. Oh, that's too late. What were you doing? nothing. I was so worried about my math test. Well, take IT easy. You'd Better have a rest. Okay, I will. 听第四段材料，回答以下小题。Hello everyone, my name is on may. Last weekend, my parents took me to a local temple fair for the spring festival. There were so many activities I was most interested in the sugar painting artist. He melted Brown sugar and used a small spoon to draw a mouse on a marble board. The mouse looked so lively. I watched him work for a long time and finally got one as a gift. Hello everyone, my name is on may. Last weekend, my parents took me to a local temple fair for the spring festival. There were so many activities, I was most interested in the sugar painting artist. He melted Brown sugar and used a small spoon to draw a mouse on a marble board. The mouse looked so lively. I watch him work for a long time and finally got one as a gift. 听第五段材料，回答以下小题。Hi Jenny, what are your plans for this sunday? I was . thinking of going hiking, but the weather report says it's going to rain. How about visiting the science . museum instead? Sounds great. I haven't been there for a long time. Is IT far from here? Not really. It's about three kilometers away. We can walk there if the rain stops. perfect. Lets meet at eight o'clock then. Hi Jenny, what are your plans for this sunday? I was . thinking of going hiking, but the weather report says it's going to rain. How about visiting the science museum . instead? Sounds great. I haven't been there for a long time. Is IT far from here? Not really. It's about three kilometers away. We can walk there if the rain stops. perfect. Let's meet at eight o'clock then. 听第六段材料，回答以下小题。Danny, is this your new mobile phone? Yes, I got IT last friday. Did you use your pocket money to buy IT? No, my grandpa bought IT. Is my birthday present? How nice your grandpa is. You're right. His present is really cool. Do your parents allow you to use IT every day? No, I can just use IT on saturday and sunday. Oh, I see. What do you usually do with IT on weekends? I usually use that to learn english for thirty minutes and listen to music for twenty minutes. Danny, is this your new mobile phone? Yes, I got IT last friday. Did you use your pocket money to buy IT? No, my grandpa bought IT. Is my birthday . present? How nice your grandpa is. You are right. His present is really cool. Do your parents allow you to use IT every day? No, I can just use IT on saturday and sunday. Oh, I see. What do you usually do with IT on weekends? I usually use that to learn english for thirty minutes and listen to music for twenty minutes. 第二节到此结束，第三节听下面一段独白。独白后有五个填空题，根据所听内容在空格内填入适当的单词。听独白前你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后你将有一分钟的作答时间，该段独白读两遍。Last sunday, my friends and I went on a trip to a lake near our city. IT was Sunny and warm, so we decided to go there by bike. When we got to the lake, we were amazed at the beauty of the water was blue and clear, and there were Green grass and colorful flowers around IT. We began to walk around the lake, enjoying the beautiful scenery and fresh are. I took a lot of pictures at noon. We had a picnic under a tree near the lake. The food was delicious. Then we played games in the sun and had a lot of fun. Time passed quickly, and soon IT was time for us to go back home. What an unforgettable trip. Last sunday, my friends and I went on a trip to a lake near our city. IT was Sunny and warm, so we decided to go there by bike. When we got to the lake, we were amazed at the beauty of IT. The water was blue and clear, and there were Green grass and colorful flowers around IT. We began to walk around the lake happily, enjoying the beautiful scenery and fresh air. I took a lot of pictures at noon. We had a picnic under a tree near the lake. The food was delicious. Then we played games in the sun and had a lot of fun. Time passed quickly, and soon IT was time for us to go back home. What an unforgettable trip. 第三节到此结束。英语试题。听力测试部分到此结束。请考生将听力试题答案填涂到答题卡上，然后做其他试题。 二模答案 第一部分 听力（共三节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 1-5ACBCA 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 6-10ABABA 11-15 CBCBB 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 16.bike 17.colorful 18.happily 19.took 20.games 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 21. B 22. A 23. A 24.B 25.A 26.C 27.B 28.C 29.B 30.A 31.B 32.C 33.B 34.A 35.A 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 36. E 37. A 38. F 39. B 40. D 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分20分） 第一节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 41.A 42.B 43.C 44.B 45.B 46.C 47.A 48.B 49.A 50.C 第二节（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 51.himself 52.was announced 53.musicians 54.shared 55.to paint 56.scared 57.With 58. grandfather's 59.but 60.winning 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；满分10分） 61. Robots and Al. 62. Forward to the Future. 63. Three 64. Stefanie Tompkins. 65. need to say the words “prepare for landing”. /... 第二节（满分20分） 1、 评分原则： 1.本题满分为20分，分5个档次酌情给分。 2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3.评分时应注意：内容要点的完整性；词汇和语法结构的多样性和准确性；上下文的连贯及语言的得体。 4.评分时，应考虑拼写和标点符号的使用。 5.如书写较差，影响对写作内容的理解，将分数降低一个档次。 二、各档次的给分范围和要求： 第五档（很好）：（17－20分） —覆盖所有要点，内容充实 —语法结构多样，词汇丰富 —语法结构和词汇应用准确，虽有个别错误，但为使用较复杂结构或词汇所致；显示出较强的语言运用能力 —有效运用了连接成分，全文结构紧凑 —达到了预期的写作目的 第四档（好）：（13－16分） —覆盖所有要点，内容较充实 —应用的语法结构和词汇能满足写作的要求 —语法结构和词汇应用基本准确，少许错误主要是因尝试运用较复杂语法结构或词汇所致 —运用了一些语句间的连接成分，全文结构紧凑 —基本达到了预期的写作目的 第三档（一般）：（9－12分） —基本覆盖所有要点，内容基本充实 —应用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足写作的要求 —有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解 —运用了简单的连接成分，全文内容基本连贯 —尚能达到预期的写作目的 第二档（较差）：（5－8分） —未覆盖所有要点，内容不够充实 —语法结构单调，词汇较贫乏 —有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解 —较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性 —未能将信息清楚地传达给读者 第一档（差）：（0－4分） —要点不清晰，内容不充实，或严重离题 —语法结构单调，词汇贫乏，词不达意 —通篇语法或词汇错误，句子支离破碎 —有效信息很少或几乎没有有效信息 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $