浙江嘉兴市海盐县2026年初中毕业生学科素养测试（二）英语试题卷

2026年初中毕业生学科素养测试（二） 英语 试题卷 （2026. 05） 考生须知： 1．全卷共四部分，76小题，满分为120分，考试时间为100分钟。 2．请在答题纸上作答，选择题的答案必须用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题的答案必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔写在答题纸相应位置。 第一部分 听力理解（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分） 听小对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确选项，回答问题。 1. What sport does Lisa like best? A. Baseball. B. Football. C. Volleyball. 2. How was the weather yesterday? A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Snowy. 3. Where is Tina going this afternoon? A. To a hospital. B. To a museum. C. To a gym. 4. When does the library close on weekends? A. At 6:00 p.m. B. At 7:00 p.m. C. At 7:30 p.m. 5. What’s the relationship between the two speakers? A. Waiter and customer. B. Driver and passenger. C. Teacher and student. 第二节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听较长对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确选项，回答问题。 听下面一段较长的对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。 6. Why was the man unhappy? A. The gloves were broken. B. The gloves were too small. C. The gloves were not warm. 7. What did the woman finally do for the man? A. She gave him a new pair. B. She sent him a small gift. C. She returned him the money. 听下面一段较长的对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。 8. Who did Kate go to the countryside with? A. Her parents. B. Her brother. C. Her friend. 9. How did Kate go to the farm? A. By car. B. By bus. C. By train. 10. How did Kate feel about her trip? A. Tired. B. Bored. C. Pleased. 第三节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面一段独白，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确选项，回答问题。 11. When did BeachBot come out? A. In 2024. B. In 2025. C. In 2026. 12. What helps BeachBot work smartly? A. Green plants. B. Electric tools. C. AI technology. 13. What can BeachBot do? A. Deal with dirty waste. B. Care for sea animals. C. Play with beach visitors. 14. What does BeachBot run on? A. Heat energy. B. Solar power. C. Wind energy. 15. What’s the program about? A. The future use of BeachBot. B. The basic information of BeachBot. C. The development history of BeachBot. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 40 分） 第一节 阅读理解（共 15 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 30 分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Today, about 138,000 volunteers help run the U.S. national parks. Here are three volunteers, aged 8 to 88, who have made a difference. Eight-year-old Hannah Murray serves as a Park Keeper at Fort Sumter and Fort Moultrie National Historical Park. Her favorite job is pulling the grass between the bricks (砖) of an old building. “We have to be very careful because the bricks are very old,” said Murray. “So it has to be done by my tiny fingers.” Murray won a prize in 2022 for her efforts in encouraging other children to volunteer in the park. David Titley, 38, is part of the Wildlife Brigade at Grand Teton National Park. With over 30 volunteers, the group tries to keep people and wildlife safe when they meet each other along busy roads. Titley’s tasks include watching animal acts, answering visitors’ questions, and making sure that guests don’t try to touch or feed wild animals. In 1972, Anne Kozak started volunteering at the Wild Gardens of Acadia National Park. About 54 years later, Kozak, 88, is still at the garden almost every day. Although she isn’t able to dig for long, she spends about 600 hours a year managing other volunteers and helping to raise money. “It’s like a job and lasts 12 months of the year,” said Kozak. “What was once a wild land is now a beautiful place for visitors.” 16. Which of the following is David Titley’s job? A. Digging for a long time. B. Helping to raise money. C. Answering visitors’ questions. D. Pulling grass between bricks. 17. What do the three volunteers have in common? A. They are of the same age. B. They work for U.S. national parks. C. They protect wild animals. D. They win prizes for their hard work. 18. In which part of a magazine can we read the text? A. Travel. B. Health. C. Sports. D. Society. B One day in 2024, Tejasvi Manoj’s grandfather received an email from a “relative”. The message asked for $2,000, and since it sounded important, he was ready to send the money. Luckily, he called the relative, who replied, “I never asked you for money.” Tejasvi’s grandfather nearly fell into online cheating (欺骗). Tejasvi, who was 16 at the time, was angry. She couldn’t believe that bad people would cheat those who didn’t know new technology well. The girl began researching how common such matters were. In the U.S. alone, online cheating caused people over 60 to lose about $5 billion in 2024. The real number could be even higher because some people are too shy to report their experiences. Clearly, old people need protection, and Tejasvi decided to provide that protection. She built a website called Shield Seniors. After users post an email or a message, the website checks it for problems. If it finds something wrong, the website guides people on how to report it. One user shared, “Shield Seniors is really helpful and keeps me away from online dangers.” Tejasvi has been known for her efforts to create a safer world for the old. Last year, Time magazine named her “Kid of the Year.” She has also been invited to talk about Internet skills at old people’s homes. “I remember my first speech,” Tejasvi says. “I was really nervous.” She remembers thinking, “What if no one shows up? What if I mess up?” But as it turned out, she had worried too much. The old took notes and came up to her with questions. Now that you’ve read Tejasvi’s story, would you like to follow her lead and build a wall of protection for the old people around you? 19. What happened to Tejasvi’s grandfather one day in 2024? A. He was almost cheated online. B. He learned how to use the Internet. C. He received an email from a relative. D. He was asked to report his experience. 20. How did Tejasvi feel when she knew her grandfather’s experience? A. Sad but hopeful. B. Angry and surprised. C. Worried but patient. D. Calm and uninterested. 21. What does the underlined sentence in Paragraph 4 mean? A. Old people showed great interest in the speech. B. Tejasvi felt nervous about old people’s questions. C. Old people hoped that the speech would end soon. D. Tejasvi knew just a little about old people around her. 22. What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To warn old people not to use the Internet alone. B. To encourage old people to learn modern technology. C. To advise people to build a helpful website for the old. D. To tell people to protect the old against online dangers. C Last month, Rory Barton from Chicago bought a bike with a large box at the front for children. He now uses it to take his two children to school. Brett Thurber, the owner of a bike store in San Francisco, says that family bikes have been popular over the past ten years, and the sales are still climbing. Convenience is driving the growth. Parents who have used bikes often mention avoiding parking problems. “We have friends who won’t go to the beach because of parking,” says Chris Toman, a father in Seattle. That is not a problem on a bike. The nicest bikes can carry many things as well as children. Rising car traffic is another reason why bikes are becoming popular. The number of children driven to school by their parents has risen continuously since the 1960s, according to the result from the National Household Travel Survey. Because there are not enough drivers and money, the old yellow school buses are not used as much as before. In some areas, long waiting lines at school gates can take hours to go away. What bikes are replacing is usually not the family main car, but the second runaround vehicle (代步车). Many of the trips picking up children are between 1.6 to 4.8 kilometers — too far to walk, not easy on buses, but convenient on a bike. “We bike him to soccer practice, swim lessons and the park,” says a mother. Safety remains the most important. Bike roads in many American cities are not good enough. “I don’t think this is a long-lasting problem,” said Howard Carter, a father from Denver. “The government is developing a plan to make bike roads near my house wider.” Sometimes, big changes start with a simple ride on a bike. 23. What do we know about Rory Barton’s new bike? A. It travels really fast. B. It works well in bad weather. C. It has a large box for kids. D. It is used for mountain biking. 24. Why do parents choose family bikes according to the passage? A. To reduce traffic accidents. B. To help protect the environment. C. To follow a popular way of life. D. To avoid traffic and parking problems. 25. What does Howard Carter think about bike roads in America? A. They are very safe for bike riders. B. They will be replaced by modern houses. C. They will be improved with government plans. D. They are wide enough for different kinds of bikes. 26. Which is the best title for the passage? A. Changes of American Family Trips B. Bike Roads: A Big Problem in the US C. Safety Problems of American Bikes D. Family bikes: A New Choice for US Parents D Humans have been using the power of river for centuries. Water wheels turned by rivers were first used to make corn and cloth. Today, hydropower (水力发电) provides about 15% of the world’s electricity. People began to use water to make electricity in the late 19th century. In 1882, the world’s first business hydropower station came into use in America. It has three main parts, including a power station where the electricity is produced, a dam that can be opened or closed to control water, and a pool where water is stored. The stored water behind the dam runs inside and causes the wheels to turn. The turning wheels make machines produce electricity. Once a station has been built, the cost of water is free. It is clean and renewable through rain and snow. Hydropower stations can produce a lot of electricity. They can easily make more or less electricity by controlling water. The pool can hold water, reducing the risk of floods. However, big dams may be bad for river life. They stop fish from swimming up rivers to lay eggs. People build certain paths for fish to cross dams, but they don’t always work well. Sometimes people even carry fish past dams with special trucks. Still, dams often change their ways of living and hurt fish populations. In Columbia, for example, salmon (鲑鱼) have lost about 40% of their homes because of dams. Anyway, some believe that water energy is still much better than burning coal and oil. Scientists are working on ways to reduce its bad influence on nature. For example, they are trying to make dams friendlier to fish. In some places, small water power projects have been developed to make good use of river water. As technology develops, water energy will become much greener in the future. 27. What are the steps of hydropower? A. ④→①→③→② B. ③→②→①→④ C. ①→③→④→② D. ②→①→③→④ 28. What does Paragraph 3 mainly talk about? A. The history of hydropower stations. B. The advantages of using hydropower. C. The future of developing hydropower. D. The ways of controlling floods with hydropower. 29. What does the underlined word “they” in Paragraph 4 refer to? A. Big dams. B. Paths for fish. C. Special trucks. D. Rivers in Columbia. 30. What can we infer from the last paragraph? A. Water energy will soon replace coal and oil. B. Scientists advise us to stop using hydropower. C. We can make water energy more friendly to nature. D. Small water stations will bring more pollution to rivers. 第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读以下材料，从下面方框中所给的 A-E 五个选项中选出正确选项（其中一项是多余选项），将其序号填入第 31~34 小题，并回答第 35 小题。 In 1971, a famous singer John Denver said that sunshine on his shoulders made him happy. Researchers have found that it is true. As you keep enjoying the sun, you’ll find out how much it can cheer you up. 31 Make sunshine a daily habit You should get sunshine at the same time every day. Scientists suggest getting five to ten minutes of morning sunlight before it becomes strong enough to burn your face. 32 It is also helpful on cloudy days, but you need to stay outside a little longer. Avoid light at night Unless you live really far north, sunshine near bedtime isn’t much of a problem. However, late-night man-made light can be harmful. It stops your body from producing enough melatonin (褪黑素), which helps you sleep well. Never use your mobile phone in bed. 33 And if possible, try to avoid turning on lights during the night. 34 Researchers have found that near-infrared light (近红外光) in the morning can improve our health. It works just like natural sunlight, helping you feel more relaxed. So be prepared to use man-made light when the sun doesn’t shine. Sunlight is good for happiness, but it is only one of many ways to improve your health and feelings. It is not the most important one. We shouldn’t give up more valuable parts of life, such as close relationships. A. Take more exercise in the sun. B. It has a bad influence on our sleep. C. Get your morning light even when it’s not sunny. D. This good habit can make you relaxed and happy. E. Here are three useful suggestions while enjoying sunshine. 35. What else can we do to keep happy? (About 15 words) ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分） 第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 On a sunny summer day, my six-year-old daughter Heidi was playing happily in the backyard. Believing her glass box was a small chair, she sat right down on it. 36 , the jar broke into many pieces. Heidi lost her balance (平衡) and 37 . When she stood up, we saw a small but deep cut on her 38 , and blood was running out quickly. We rushed her to the hospital at once and tried our best to calm her down, 39 she kept crying softly all the time. While we were waiting for 40 , Dr. Anderson came over. He was very calm and friendly. To make Heidi 41 , he told her a silly joke while checking. He said the cut on her leg was pretty deep but not too bad. With his comfort, Heidi almost didn’t 42 the treatment, even when the doctor cleaned her cut up and carefully fixed it. After that, Dr. Anderson left for a minute and 43 with a clean rubber glove. He blew it up like a balloon and then drew a chicken face on it. Heidi 44 and reached out. She loved the toy so much that she played with it over the next few days 45 it finally broke. Twenty years later, when we shared 46 at a holiday dinner, I talked about that day: broken glass, blood, long wait... But Heidi looked at me in 47 . She only remembered the kindness and the silly glove — like a pleasant visit to Grandpa Anderson, not a(n) 48 . Maybe children naturally remember the 49 side of things instead of the terrible ones, but most of grown-ups have lost the ability over time. I realized that there’s always something good in life, and that’s what we should pay attention to. Now I try to live the moment and get through the bad quickly. I am also 50 to doctors like Dr. Anderson, whose kindness will stay in children’s hearts forever. 36. A. Luckily B. Suddenly C. Certainly D. Actually 37. A. ran away B. fell down C. showed up D. turned around 38. A. leg B. arm C. face D. foot 39. A. so B. or C. but D. although 40. A. help B. truth C. signs D. decisions 41. A. touched B. relaxed C. satisfied D. interested 42. A. miss B. notice C. accept D. require 43. A. rested B. waited C. stopped D. returned 44. A. nodded B. shouted C. laughed D. recorded 45. A. if B. when C. until D. unless 46. A. plans B. dreams C. secrets D. memories 47. A. pain B. fear C. anger D. surprise 48. A. lesson B. mistake C. accident D. adventure 49. A. warm B. quiet C. simple D. dangerous 50. A. polite B. honest C. friendly D. thankful 第二节 词汇运用（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） A. 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式（每空一词）。 Passwords are everywhere. We use them for doors, apps, and bank accounts (账户). A weak password can bring much 51 (麻烦). So how can we make safe and strong passwords? A strong password should be longer than 8 characters. We can start with a 52 (恰当) mix of uppercase and lowercase (大小写) letters. Pick letters from beautiful songs, interesting stories or 53 (可爱) poems. Then, put all of them into a new 54 (顺序). Add some numbers and symbols, such as a question mark or a dollar sign. A common number like your birth year is a poor choice. You should 55 (拒绝) easy information. You can 56 (安全) use a secret number that only you know. Build different passwords 57 (没有) any help. Tada! Now you have a strong password that is easy to remember but hard for others to 58 (猜测). Create different passwords this way and use them for different places. Remember to change it every three to six months. B. 用方框中所给词的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。 always strange slow down quietly support increase wonder Last month, my friend Lisa came to my house for the first time. She found it was 59 that I talked to my cat like a person. She also 60 why I carefully put its bowl in a certain place. But I know what my cat means to me. My cat offers me more than I can say — not just love, but also 61 . My school keeps me busy every day. I often feel tired after so many classes. My cat teaches me 62 and find the little happiness in life. She is 63 there to greet me at the door when I come home. At night, she lies 64 beside me. A simple touch of her can help me forget my worries. It can calm my mind and 65 my happiness. I think the cat is truly a gift. 第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 Have you ever traveled abroad? Two Frenchmen, Voisot and Humblot, recently did. They traveled 66 their hometown in southeastern France to Shanghai. The trip sounded common, but they became famous because they completed it almost on foot. Their story 67 (share) online by a reporter. The two young 68 (man) started their journey in September 2024. They walked around 45 kilometers a day and rested every five or seven days. After crossing 16 countries, they finally reached the Bund. Tired but happy, they 69 (hug) each other near the Huangpu River. 70 a hard journey it was! “We weren’t sure if we would make it, but we told 71 (we) that we’d try it out.” said Voisot. Voisot and Humblot 72 (know) each other since they were ten years old. One night after work, they asked each other what they would do if they could do anything. “When we talked about adventures, China came up 73 (quick),” said Humblot. “We had the crazy idea of walking to China 74 we didn’t want to take planes.” After reaching Shanghai, they don’t plan to go home right away. They have a much 75 (crazy) plan: take a boat to the US, walk across North America, and return home on foot to finish a full circle around the world. 第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分） 76．假如你是李华，你校即将迎来一批英国交换生，学校计划开展“文化交流体验日”活动。请你给项目负责人Mr. Zhang写一封邮件，从以下两项体验活动中任选其一，介绍活动具体内容并说明推荐理由。 Local Culture Tour 1. visit traditional buildings 2. learn about history 3. ... Daily Life Experience 1. live with a Chinese family 2. make Chinese food 3. ... 注意： （1）邮件需包含所选体验活动至少三点相关信息，可适当发挥； （2）文中不得出现真实姓名、学校等信息； （3）词数80左右；邮件的首尾和第一句已给出，不计入总词数。 Dear Mr. Zhang, I’d like to share my idea for our “Cultural Exchange Day”. ________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $