广东揭阳第一中学等校2025-2026学年度高二级(2027届)第二学期期中考试英语学科试题

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2026-05-23
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学段 高中
学科 英语
教材版本 高中英语人教版选择性必修第三册
年级 高二
章节 -
类型 试卷
知识点 -
使用场景 同步教学-期中
学年 2026-2027
地区(省份) 广东省
地区(市) 汕头市,潮州市,揭阳市
地区(区县) -
文件格式 ZIP
文件大小 314 KB
发布时间 2026-05-23
更新时间 2026-05-23
作者 匿名
品牌系列 -
审核时间 2026-05-23
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来源 学科网

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2025—2026学年度高二级(2027届)第二学期期中考试 英语学科试题 卷面分:120分 时长:120分钟 第一部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳答案。 A Park Ranger Intern (实习生) Volunteer Dates 5/4/2026-5/31/2026 Required Days Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, Sunday Hours Available 40 hours per week Description Applicants need to be currently in a college or university working towards an undergraduate or graduate degree. Majors can include but are not limited to History, Education, Environmental Sciences, Parks and Recreation, Social Sciences, or Biology. We are looking for outgoing students who enjoy working and talking with adults and children. Experience working in an environmental setting and presenting education programs is helpful but not required. The position is in the Division of Interpretation. Duties include: ·Staffing river access sites ·Presenting river safety talks and providing area information to river users ·Performing river patrols (巡逻) ·Developing and presenting educational programs to park visitors, local community groups, and summer youth camps All interns will be provided with training that includes orientation to the park, education program development, First Aid and CPR certification, and canoe and white-water rescue training. Interns must know how to swim to be considered for this position. For interns that are coming from outside the commuting area which is defined as over 50 miles from Lackawaxen, PA housing is provided and $ 30.00 is given for each day worked. Applications will be reviewed on a rolling basis. Early applicants will be given first consideration. For more information about the Internship Program, contact Ingrid Peterec, 570-493-1020, email: ingrid_peterec@nps.gov. 1. How many days are required altogether for the program? A. 5 days. B. 40 days. C. 28 days. D. 20 days. 2. Which of the following is a duty of the intern volunteers? A. Cleaning up the river. B. Educating river users about river safety. C. Guiding visitors around the park. D. Attending educational programs. 3. What is required to apply for the position? A. First aid skills. B. A university degree. C. The ability to swim. D. Relevant experience. B Maya Martinez, a high school senior living in a fog-covered coastal village in North California, noticed that the community garden was gradually drying up during the driest summer on record. While the villagers remained helpless, Maya chose to spend her afternoons carefully observing the thick mist that rolled in from the sea. Maya had already identified a critical fault in traditional fog-collecting mesh nets (网状网): they frequently became blocked by the very water drops they caught, which severely reduced their effectiveness. Digging deeper into solutions, Maya found a novel device designed by two scientists — the “Fog Harp (竖琴)”. Maya decided to use the handy materials to create her own “Fog Harp”. At first, neighbors watched the process with doubt as she strung hundreds of thin, upright wires across a solid wooden frame. To them, the setup looked no more than “a giant musical instrument” that only produced useless sounds in the cold coastal wind. Little did they know this simple-looking setup would soon prove surprisingly effective. The remarkable efficiency of Maya’s Fog Harp lies in its clever use of gravity. In a traditional mesh net, tiny water drops get easily trapped within the small square gaps, which stop further collection. This occurs because the surface tension — the invisible, stretchy “skin” of liquid water — is too strong for the small drops to overcome. In Maya’s Fog Harp, by contrast, water drops hit the wires and slowly combine into larger drops. Most importantly, with no cross wires to hold these larger drops in place, gravity easily overcomes surface tension, allowing the water to slide effortlessly down the wires and collect in a tank below. Of course, the project faced its share of setbacks. During one severe coastal storm, the extreme wind tore through the wooden frame. Yet, instead of giving in to despair, she immediately set out to fix the problem by reinforcing the entire structure with durable steel wires. By the time autumn arrived, Maya’s “Fog Harps” were reliably producing plenty of fresh water every day, partly meeting the daily water needs of the village. 4. Why did Maya observe the thick mist in her afternoons? A. To predict the weather conditions. B. To work out a solution to water shortage. C. To check the efficiency of the mesh nets. D. To clarify the reasons for drought. 5. What can we know about Maya’s “Fog Harp”? A. It was a musical instrument. B. It featured a solid metal frame. C. It presented an inborn fault. D. It invited villagers’ acid words. 6. What is the key for Maya’s Fog Harp to function well? A. Its upright-wire design. B. Its mesh-net structure. C. Its weak surface tension. D. Its resistance to gravity. 7. What can we learn from Maya’s story? A. Look before you leap. B. Better late than never. C. Think outside the box. D. Time waits for no man. C As a sustainable and eco-friendly alternative of renewable energy, wind power is witnessing a striking upward trend across the United States. In 2020, turbines (风力涡轮) generated about 8 percent of the country’s electricity — more than 80 times the share of wind-generated electricity in 2000 — according to the U.S. Energy Information Department. While the growth is a positive step toward curbing climate change, researchers have pointed out that this booming industry may pose severe threats to birds. An estimated 140,000 to 500,000 birds die each year due to turbine crashes. Bird deaths could rise to 1.4 million per year if the U.S. Department of Energy achieves its goal of expanding wind energy to 20 percent of the country’s total electricity generation by 2030. To prevent avoidable deaths, some scientists are supporting the use of citizen science data when deciding where to construct wind farms. Unlike conventional survey statistics, which cover limited time periods or geographical zones, the citizen science data stretch over the entire United States and reflect the entire year. The wind energy industry could use such information to get a more all-round picture and minimize harm to birds. Citizen science has already proven its value in bridging critical informational shortages in ecological research. From 2007 to 2018, more than 180,000 birders uploaded observations about bald eagles to the eBird database. Using that treasure house of data, conservation scientist Viviana Ruiz-Gutierrez, of the Cornell Lab of Ornithology, and her work fellows estimated where in the United States the birds would be most plentiful throughout the year and face the highest risk of colliding with wind turbines. “Citizen science data should inform decisions about where to build wind turbines,” Viviana argues. “What we’re able to do is really drawing on the strength that only citizen science has.” The U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service has recommended using the team’s bald eagle maps to identify low-risk crash areas suitable for building wind turbines. 8. What does the underlined word “curbing” in paragraph 1 mean? A. monitoring B. addressing C. documenting D. strengthening 9. What makes citizen science data more advantageous than traditional survey data? A. They cover a wider range. B. They have fewer usage limits. C. They are more accessible. D. They cost less to collect. 10. Why does the author use eBird data in Paragraph 4? A. To define a key term. B. To present a practical solution. C. To support the argument with an example. D. To draw a final conclusion. 11. Which is the most suitable title for the text? A. Wind Energy Grows Fast in the United States B. Citizen Science Helps Protect Birds from Turbines C. Wind Turbines Bring Threats to Wild Birds D. New Ways to Choose Locations for Wind Farms D Inspiration for Zeynep Demirbas’ research struck during a chat with a friend. That friend, a psychologist, said some health insurance companies were pushing the use of artificial intelligence, such as ChatGPT, for mental health. The idea: AI might be less costly and easier to access than human therapists (治疗专家). That worried Zeynep, 14. She knew that ChatGPT often gave wrong answers or agreed with incorrect statements. Could this type of AI, known as a large language model — or LLM — really be trusted with our mental health? To find out, she tested whether several LLMs could detect stress in human text. She gave the models a dataset of more than 3,500 posts. Human raters (人工评分员) had been asked to label each one as containing stress or not. Then Zeynep asked the models to identify which posts showed stress. To judge how well the models did, Zeynep calculated something called an F1-score for each one. This score considers how many stress-containing posts the models accurately spotted. It also accounts for how often the models missed cases of stress and how often they mislabeled posts as showing stress. An LLM specifically designed for mental health did the best. It scored about 82 percent. ChatGPT scored only about 74 percent. ChatGPT performing badly was “really surprising”, Zeynep says. It did even worse than the “random-forest” model, which is “supposed to be a very simple and old technique. So I just put it in as a baseline,” Zeynep says. “That was very interesting — how something so small and simple was able to beat an LLM like ChatGPT that used millions of parameters (参数) and had so much coding go into it.” “We should be mindful with AI,” Zeynep says. “That doesn’t mean that LLMs are bad, because they’re for general use. They’re not necessarily meant for mental health.” Her data led her to conclude that LLMs should not be replacing human therapists. Instead, these models might help identify people who are struggling and refer them to a mental health professional. 12. What worried Zeynep when chatting with a friend? A. AI is applied to mental health. B. Human therapists charge high fees. C. AI is developing at an alarming rate. D. Health insurance companies face challenges. 13. Why were the human raters asked to label the posts? A. To assess the reliability of the posts. B. To figure out the F1-scores of different LLMs. C. To assess human raters’ accuracy in detecting stress. D. To provide a reference standard for LLM testing. 14. Why does Zeynep mention the random-forest model? A. To erase doubts about old models. B. To compare simple and complex models. C. To show the poor performance of LLMs in the test. D. To illustrate the urgent need for more parameters. 15. What does Zeynep mean in the last paragraph? A. LLMs are generally useless in most fields. B. Humans are responsible for improving AI. C. LLMs need more training in identifying mental struggles. D. Humans still play a dominant role in addressing mental issues. 第二节(共5小题,每题2.5分,满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 It is said that the most important relationship you have is with yourself. Your thoughts and actions have a powerful impact on your inner emotional state and how you experience life itself. While putting yourself first should be the priority, that isn’t always what happens in reality. 16 This can lead to weak boundaries, frustration, and dissatisfaction. However, through simple steps, you can learn to be your own best friend. You can start by prioritizing your health. Without health, you won’t be able to show up for your own life or for your loved ones. 17 Find ways to balance all of these so you feel safe, secure, and stable in your body, home, and community. Another positive step you can take is listening to your needs and desires. 18 Remember this is the key to finding proper partners, careers, and lifestyles — because your values and desires matter. So stay true to yourself and have faith in discovering people and opportunities that meet your needs. 19 So work toward a passion project that lights you up, rather than mindlessly browsing social media. Think about how you would want to spend your time if you had more of it, and create moments to do just that. You have the power to fill your own life by choosing how you invest your time. Your connection to yourself is foundational. How you speak to yourself and whether you meet your needs is the base of any other relationship you have in your life. So make sure to check in with your thoughts and feelings, treat yourself with kindness, and carve out time for self-care. 20 A. Respecting your time is equally essential. B. Through these steps, you can be your own best friend. C. Make sure to also surround yourself with positive people. D. Independence helps you learn to trust and rely on yourself. E. You may easily forget your needs while attempting to fit in with others. F. By valuing your needs, you provide yourself with your own recognition. G. Remember that it includes your mental, physical and emotional well-being. 第二部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 I moved to Portland last spring, knowing no one. To relieve the 21 that filled my quiet apartment, I did what many newcomers do: I searched online for a local 22 group. “Forest & Friends” promised weekly activities in the Columbia River Gorge. It sounded like a perfect 23 . On our first group 24 — a moderate trail (小径) to a waterfall viewpoint — my enthusiasm outweighed my caution. Halfway up, I 25 on a loose rock and hurt my ankle. A sharp pain shot through me, and I 26 to the ground, embarrassed and frustrated. What happened next was far from what I had expected. The group’s leader, a woman named Sam, 27 the hike immediately. But more 28 , not a single person turned back toward the trailhead. Instead, the dozen 29 I had met only an hour earlier gathered around. Someone 30 a medical bandage. Another offered water and snacks. As we waited for help, we sat on the forest floor. We shared 31 — not just about hiking but about our reasons for moving here, our jobs, our hopes. Laughter 32 under the tree, my aching ankle momentarily forgotten. I had joined the group 33 beautiful scenery and perhaps a polite acquaintance or two. I left that day with something far more 34 . The physical trail was steep, but the human impulse (冲动) to connect, to stay beside someone in difficulty, was a powerful, leveling force. It was a vivid 35 that we are never truly alone, even on the most difficult paths life sets before us. 21. A. panic B. sadness C. loneliness D. anxiety 22. A. hiking B. climbing C. jumping D. running 23. A. solution B. situation C. invitation D. explanation 24. A. picnic B. outing C. camp D. journey 25. A. handed B. slept C. swung D. stepped 26. A. bent B. jumped C. lay D. sank 27. A. put off B. called off C. ran into D. looked into 28. A. naturally B. quietly C. horribly D. strikingly 29. A. visitors B. assistants C. strangers D. organizers 30. A. bought B. produced C. borrowed D. carried 31. A. stories B. goals C. secrets D. joys 32. A. paused B. faded C. resounded D. dropped 33. A. seeking B. developing C. painting D. making 34. A. promising B. necessary C. valuable D. popular 35. A. memory B. symbol C. sign D. reminder 第二节语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 London’s food scene has witnessed an inrush not only of traditional Cantonese (广东的) restaurants but also a diverse range of regional Chinese cuisines. For decades, London’s Chinatown has been closely associated with classic dishes 36 (root) in Guangdong province, while London’s Chinese food has expanded far beyond that, reflecting a much 37 (broad) cultural shift. While Cantonese-centric offerings have laid the foundation of familiarity with Chinese culinary (烹饪的) culture, the increasing variety makes it 38 big challenge for restaurants to meet local British tastes. To adapt to the trend, they manage to introduce new dishes and enhance existing ones 39 (continuous) for bettering the menu. Additionally, larger culinary schools commit to teaching authentic Chinese cooking, 40 (strengthen) greater appreciation and mastery of the cuisine. Hotpot, a typical Chinese dish, has taken centre stage in London, described as an “adventure” 41 locals could enjoy genuine Sichuan cuisine and unfamiliar cultural experiences. Meanwhile, hearty hand-pulled noodles of Xi’an are also making waves, driven by the growing 42 (present) of Chinese customers and Londoners’ appetite for authentic regional flavors. Chen Xin, the chief organizer of the 2024 London Chinese Cuisine International Development Convention, 43 (emphasize) that London was becoming a true global centre of Chinese cuisine, staying true 44 one single mission — providing Chinese customers with a taste of home and showcasing the depth of Chinese culinary culture to international 45 (diner). 第三部分 写作(共两节,满分40分) 第一节应用文写作(满分15分) 假定你是高中生李华,上周日参与了市博物馆的VR(虚拟现实)体验活动“壁画那边是唐朝”(Beyond the Mural-The Tang Awaits)。请你为校英文报写一篇报道,内容包括: 1.活动内容(赏壁画等,活动至少两项); 2.你的收获。 注意: 1.写作词数应为80个左右; 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 A VR Journey to the Tang Dynasty ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节读后续写(满分25分) 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。 I was in Philadelphia for a conference when I saw an ad in the hotel. A nearby theater was showing a documentary (纪录片) about several local animal shelters that were helping to save abandoned dogs across the country. I love animals, and I felt an urge to go to this fundraising event. However, none of my co-workers would go with me, and I was worried about walking on the street alone at night. I resigned myself to spending the evening in my hotel room, but as soon as I got back to my room I felt restless and bored. The theater where the event was taking place was only about five blocks from the hotel, and the area around the hotel didn’t seem particularly dangerous. So, I decided to brave it. I gathered up my wallet and room key and set off. It was already getting dark and the streets were nearly deserted. I managed to find the street the theater was on, but when I turned the corner, I stopped in shock. In front of the theater were a group of bikers — very big, tough-looking bikers. I’ve known lots of motorcycle enthusiasts and most are nice people. However, in this case, I was a woman all alone, in a strange neighborhood, at night, and there were twenty or so very large men — all wearing insignia (徽章) that indicated they were in some sort of club — standing before me. Warning bells began to sound in my head, and my heart was pounding. Was I at the right theater? Had I misread the date of the event? A sign outside the theater told me that I was in the right place on the right evening. Nevertheless, I wondered if I should rush back to my hotel instead of walking through that crowd of bikers. I finally decided that I would be safer inside the theater. Hopefully, the bikers would have gone away by the time the film was over. 注意: (1)续写词数应为150个左右; (2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 I hurried into the theater, only to find there were even more bikers inside.___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ When the film began, I realized that the bikers were an animal rescue group._________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年度高二级(2027届)第二学期高二5月月考 英语学科试题答案 第一部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 1-3 DBC 4-7 BDAC 8-11.BACB 12-15.ADCD 第二节 (共5小题;每题2.5分,满分12.5分) 16-20 EGFAB 第二部分 语言运用 (共两节,满分30分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分) 21-25. CAABD 26-30. DBDCB 31-35. ACACD 第二节 语法填空 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分) 36.rooted 37.broader 38.a 39.continuously 40.strengthening 41.where 42.presence 43.emphasized 44.to 45.diners 第三部分 写作 (共两节,满分40分) 第一节 应用文写作(满分15分) 参考范文: A VR Journey to the Tang Dynasty To promote the profound traditional culture of Tang Dynasty, the city museum launched a special VR experience last Sunday, whose theme is Beyond the Mural-The Tang Awaits. Equipped with advanced VR devices, I was fully immersed in the splendid world of the Tang Dynasty. Not only did I admire delicate ancient murals featuring local customs, but I also practiced writing Tang poems with a virtual brush and witnessed the thriving trade along the ancient Silk Road. Every vivid scene brought the distant Tang civilization vividly back to life. This amazing trip taught me more than any textbook. History became touchable.It helped me better understand Tang history and civilization and inspired me to protect and inherit our splendid traditional culture. 第二节 读后续写 (满分25分) 参考范文: I hurried into the theater, only to find there were even more bikers inside. They were chatting loudly and seemed to fill every corner of the place. My heart sank even further. I quickly found an empty seat in the back row, trying to make myself as inconspicuous as possible. I clutched my bag tightly, constantly glancing around, praying that nothing bad would happen. Every now and then, I peeked at the bikers, wondering what they were doing here. Were they going to cause trouble? The tension in the air was palpable, and I regretted my decision to come alone. When the film began, I realized that the bikers were an animal rescue group. They had come to support the fundraiser for the local animal shelters. As the documentary unfolded, showing the plight of the abandoned dogs, I saw many of the bikers wiping away tears. They were as moved as I was by the heartwarming and heartbreaking stories. During the intermission, some of them even came over to me, smiling kindly and asking if I was enjoying the film. Their tough exteriors hid big, soft hearts. I felt ashamed of my initial fear and was truly grateful that I had decided to come. We spent the rest of the evening sharing our love for animals and discussing ways to help. 答案详解 【A篇导语】本文是一篇应用文,主要介绍的是一个公园护林员实习生志愿者项目。 1. D 细节理解题。根据Dates部分”5/4/2026 - 5/31/2026(2026年5月4日—2026年5月31日)”和Required Days部分”Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, Sunday(星期三、星期四、星期五、星期六、星期日)”可知,项目持续四周,每周需要五天,因此总共需要的时间是20天,故选D。 2. B 细节理解题。根据Description部分的The position is in the Division of Interpretation. Duties include:中的”Presenting river safety talks and providing area information to river users(开展河流安全知识宣讲,并向河流使用者提供区域信息。)”可知,向河流使用者宣传河流安全知识是实习志愿者的职责。故选B。 3. C 细节理解题。根据倒数第三段”Interns must know how to swim to be considered for this position.(要获得这个职位的资格,实习生必须会游泳。)”可知,申请该职位需要会游泳。故选C。 【B篇导语】本文讲述了主人公利用自己的智慧,发明了“雾琴”,成功地解决村庄的缺水问题。 4. B 细节理解题。根据第一段”the community garden was gradually drying up... Maya chose to spend her afternoons carefully observing the thick mist... Digging deeper into solutions”可知村庄缺水、花园干枯,玛雅观察雾是为了寻找解决缺水问题的办法,对应B选项。 A(预测天气)、D(查明干旱原因)、C(检查网效率)均非直接目的。 5. D 推理判断题。第三段”At first, neighbors watched the process with doubt... To them, the setup looked no more than... only produced useless sounds”。根据邻居最初质疑、嘲讽,认为装置没用,对应D选项(招致村民的负面评价)。A(是乐器)错误,只是看起来像;B(金属框架)错误,是木框后加固钢丝; C(有先天缺陷)错误,缺陷是传统网的。 6. A 细节理解题。第四段”The remarkable efficiency... lies in its clever use of gravity... by contrast, water drops hit the wires and slowly combine... with no cross wires”。核心是直立细线设计(无横向线)+利用重力,让水滴顺利汇集滑落,对应A选项。 B(网状结构)是传统网的缺点;C、D与原文原理相反。 7. C 概括大意题。玛雅跳出传统捕雾网的思维局限,创新设计“雾琴”解决缺水问题,体现打破常规、创新思考(Think outside the box)。 A(三思而后行)、B(迟做总比不做好)、D(岁月不待人)均不符合主旨。 【C篇导语】本文重点介绍公众科学数据在平衡风力发电发展与鸟类保护中的重要作用。 8. B 词义猜测题。第一段最后一句“While the growth is a positive step toward curbing climate change, researchers have pointed out that this booming industry may pose severe threats to birds.“ curb 表示“控制、遏制、应对”,与 B.addressing(应对、处理) 同义。A. Monitoring 监测:只观察不解决问题; C. Documenting 记录:与语境无关;D. Strengthening 加强:与文意相反。 9. A 细节理解题。第三段第二句:Unlike conventional survey statistics, which cover limited time periods or geographical zones, the citizen science data stretch over the entire United States and reflect the entire year. 传统数据覆盖有限,公众科学数据覆盖全国、 全年,即 cover a wider range。B. 使用限制更少:文中未提及。C. 更容易获取;无依据。D. 收集成本更低;无信息 10. C 写作目的题。第四段第一句提出论点:公众科学可以填补关键信息缺口。第四段第二句 From 2007 to 2018, more than 180,000 birders uploaded observations about bald eagles to the eBird database. 第2句及后文的 eBird 数据研究是具体事例,用来证明前面的论点。因 此作者使用 eBird data 的目的是:用例子支撑论点,对应C选项To support the argument with an example。 11. B 主旨大意题 梳理全文主线:风电发展威胁鸟类→传统数据不足→公众科学提供全面数据→ 用于科学选址风电场→保护鸟类。B项最全面概括核心内容。A项仅背景; C 仅问题;D项太宽泛。 【D篇导语】本文是一篇说明文,主要讲的是14岁的Zeynep Demirbas针对大型语言模型(LLMs)在心理健康领域应用展开的研究。 12.A 细节理解题。根据第一段”That friend, a psychologist, said some health insurance companies were pushing the use of artificial intelligence, such as ChatGPT, for mental health. The idea: AI might be less costly and easier to access than human therapists (治疗专家).(这位朋友是位心理学家,他说一些健康保险公司正在推广使用人工智能技术,比如 ChatGPT,来辅助心理健康治疗。其想法是:与人类治疗师相比,人工智能可能成本更低、更容易获取。)”和第二段”That worried Zeynep, 14.(这让 14 岁的Zeynep感到担忧。)”可知,Zeynep在与朋友聊天时担心的是人工智能被应用于心理健康领域。故选A。 13.D 推理判断题。根据第三段”Human raters had been asked to label each one as containing stress or not. Then Zeynep asked the models to identify which posts showed stress.(此前,人类评估者已被要求给每条帖子标注是否包含压力。然后,Zeynep让这些模型识别哪些帖子显示出压力。)”可知,Zeynep给模型提供包含3500多个帖子的数据集,让人类评估者标记每个帖子是否包含压力,然后让模型识别哪些帖子显示压力,因此人类评估者的标记是为模型测试提供了参考标准,故选D。 14.C 推理判断题。根据倒数第二段”It did even worse than the “random-forest” model, which is “supposed to be a very simple and old technique. So I just put it in as a baseline,” Zeynep says. “That was very interesting — how something so small and simple was able to beat an LLM like ChatGPT that used millions of parameters (参数) and had so much coding go into it.”(它的表现甚至还不如”随机森林”模型,”随机森林模型本应是一种非常简单且古老的技术,所以我只是把它作为基准”,Zeynep说,”这非常有趣——一个如此小巧简单的模型,居然能够击败像ChatGPT这种使用了数百万个参数、投入了大量代码编写的大型语言模型。”)”可知,Zeynep提及随机森林模型是为了展示大型语言模型在测试中的表现不佳。故选C。 15. D 推理判断题。根据最后一段”Her data led her to conclude that LLMs should not be replacing human therapists. Instead, these models might help identify people who are struggling and refer them to a mental health professional.(她的数据让她得出结论:大型语言模型不应取代人类治疗师。相反,这些模型或许可以帮助识别出那些正陷入困境的人,并将他们转介给心理健康专业人士。)”可知,Zeynep根据数据得出LLMs不应取代人类治疗师,而是可辅助识别有困扰的人并转介给专业人士,说明人类在解决心理问题方面仍占主导地位,故选D。 【七选五导语】本文为说明文。文章阐述了如何通过优先关注自身健康、善待自己和尊重个人时间来改善与自我的关系, 成为自己最好的朋友。 16. E 根据空前 While putting …, that isn’t always what happens in reality 可知,空后this 需指代前文的”现实中不能优先自己和个人需求”的具体表现。E项 You may easily forget your needs while attempting to fit in with others, 既呼应了”现实中难以优先自己和个人需求”,又能通过”忘记需求”引出后文”边界薄弱、挫败感”的结果逻辑连贯。 17. G本段讲的方法是要”把健康放在第一位”。G项中的it指代上文的”health”,下文的”all of these”指代G项中的”your mental,physical and emotional well-being”,强调了健康的重要性。 18. F本段的建议是:倾听你的需求和愿望。F项承接上文,表述这样做的好处——通过重视你的需求,你为自己提供了认可,并引出下文这是”寻找合适的伴侣、事业和生活方式”的关键。 19. A 空后内容围绕”如何利用时间”展开,核心是”尊重时间”。A项 Respecting your time is equally essential 作为段落主旨句,用 equally essential 呼应前文”优先健康、倾听需求”等做法,起到承上启下的作用。 20. B 根据前文可知,空处需总结前文做法的结果。B项Through these steps,you can be your own best friend 中Through these steps 指代前文”善待自己、自我关怀”的一系列做法,且与文章开头 you can learn to be your own best friend 呼应。 【完形填空导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了作者去年春天搬到波特兰后加入了一个徒步旅行团,在一次徒步活动中意外受伤,却得到了团友们的热心帮助,从而深刻体会到人与人之间的联系和互助的重要性。 21.C 考查名词词义辨析。句意:为了缓解充满我安静公寓的孤独感,我做了许多新来者都会做的事:我在网上搜索当地的徒步旅行团。A. panic恐慌;B. sadness悲伤;C. loneliness孤独;D. anxiety焦虑。根据上文”I moved to Portland last spring, knowing no one.”可知,作者谁也不认识,因此会感到孤独。故选C。 22.A 考查动词词义辨析。句意:为了缓解充满我安静公寓的孤独感,我做了许多新来者都会做的事:我在网上搜索当地的徒步旅行团。A. hiking徒步旅行;B. climbing攀爬;C. jumping跳跃;D. running跑步。根据下文”On our first group ________ a moderate trail (小径) to a waterfall viewpoint”可知,作者加入的是徒步旅行团。故选A。 23.A 考查名词词义辨析。句意:这听起来是一个完美的解决方案。A. solution解决方案;B. situation情况;C. invitation邀请;D. explanation解释。根据上文”To relieve the1oneliness that filled my quiet apartment, I did what many newcomers do: I searched online for a local ________ group.” 以及 “‘Forest & Friends’ promised weekly activities in the Columbia River Gorge.” 可知,作者想要缓解孤独,并且”Forest & Friends”承诺每周都进行活动,因此加入徒步旅行团听起来是一个完美的解决方案。故选A。 24.B 考查名词词义辨析。句意:在我们第一次集体出游时 —— 一条通往瀑布观景台的中等难度小径 —— 我的热情超过了我的谨慎。A. picnic野餐;B. outing出游;C. camp露营;D. journey旅行。根据下文”a moderate trail (小径) to a waterfall viewpoint”可知,这是一次集体出游。故选B。 25.D 考查动词词义辨析。句意:走到一半时,我踩在一块松动的岩石上,扭伤了脚踝。A. handed递;B. slept睡觉;C. swung摇摆;D. stepped踩。根据下文”on a loose rock and hurt my ankle”可知,作者踩在一块松动的岩石上扭伤了脚踝。故选D。 26.D 考查动词词义辨析。句意:一阵剧痛袭来,我倒在地上,既尴尬又沮丧。A. bent弯曲;B. jumped跳跃;C. lay躺;D. sank倒下;下沉。根据上文”A sharp pain shot through me”可知,作者扭伤了脚踝,剧痛袭来,因此倒在地上。故选D。 27.B 考查动词短语辨析。句意:团队的领队,一个叫萨姆的女人,立即取消了徒步旅行。A. put off推迟;B. called off取消;C. ran into撞上;D. looked into调查。根据上文”I ________on a loose rock and hurt my ankle.”可知,作者扭伤了脚踝,因此领队取消了徒步旅行。故选B。 28.D 考查副词词义辨析。句意:但更引人注目的是,没有一个人转身往回走。A. naturally自然地;B. quietly安静地;C. horribly可怕地;D. strikingly引人注目地。根据上文”What happened next was far from what I had expected.” 和下文”not a single person turned back toward the trailhead”可知,没有一个人转身往回走,这是令人惊讶、引人注目的。故选D。 29.C 考查名词词义辨析。句意:相反,我一个小时前才认识的十几个陌生人围了过来。A. visitors游客;B. assistants助手;C. strangers陌生人;D. organizers组织者。根据下文”I had met only an hour earlier”可知,作者一个小时前才认识这些人,因此他们是陌生人。故选C。 30.B 考查动词词义辨析。句意:有人拿出了医用绷带。A. bought买;B. produced拿出;生产;C. borrowed借;D. carried携带。根据下文”Another offered water and snacks. “可知,有人拿出了医用绷带。故选B。 31.A 考查名词词义辨析。句意:我们分享故事 —— 不仅仅是关于徒步旅行的故事,还有我们搬到这里的原因、我们的工作、我们的希望。A. stories故事;B. goals目标;C. secrets秘密;D. joys快乐。根据下文”not just about hiking, but about our reasons for moving here, our jobs, our hopes”可知,他们分享了故事。故选A。 32.C 考查动词词义辨析。句意:笑声在树下回荡,我疼痛的脚踝暂时被遗忘了。A. paused暂停;B. faded褪色;C. resounded回荡;D. dropped掉落。根据上文”Laughter”和下文”under the tree”可知,笑声在树下回荡。故选C。 33.A 考查动词词义辨析。句意:我加入这个团体是为了寻找美丽的风景,也许还能结识一两个有礼貌的熟人。A. seeking寻找;B. developing发展;C. chasing追逐;D. making制作。根据下文”beautiful scenery and perhaps a polite acquaintance or two”可知,作者加入这个团体是为了寻找美丽的风景和结识熟人。故选A。 34.C 考查形容词词义辨析。句意:那天我离开时带着更有价值的东西。A. promising有希望的;B. necessary必要的;C. valuable有价值的;D. popular受欢迎的。根据上文”The physical trail was steep, but the human impulse (冲动) to connect, to stay beside someone in difficulty, was a powerful, leveling force.”可知,作者认为人与人之间的联系和互助是更有价值的东西。故选C。 35.D考查名词词义辨析。句意:这是一个生动的提醒,即使在我们人生中最艰难的道路上,我们也从不孤单。A. memory记忆;B. symbol象征;C. sign标志;D. reminder提醒。根据下文”that we are never truly alone, even on the most difficult paths life sets before us”可知,这是一个生动的提醒。故选D。 【语法填空导语】本文是一篇说明文,主要讲述了伦敦的中国餐饮文化发展,特别是从传统的广东菜扩展到更多样化的中国地方菜系,以及如何适应本地口味和推广中国烹饪文化。 36.考查非谓语。句意:几十年来,伦敦的唐人街一直与植根于广东的经典菜肴密切相关,而伦敦的中国菜则远远不止于此,反映了更广泛的文化转变。be rooted in”根植于”,为固定短语,classic dishes与root之间为被动关系,用过去分词作后置定语。故填rooted。 37.考查形容词比较级。句意:几十年来,伦敦的唐人街一直与植根于广东的经典菜肴密切相关,而伦敦的中国菜则远远不止于此,反映了更广泛的文化转变。根据句意和much可知,形容词比较级broader”更广泛的”作定语,修饰名词短语cultural shift。故填broader。 38.考查冠词。句意:虽然以广东菜为中心的菜肴为熟悉中国烹饪文化奠定了基础,但品种越来越多,这对餐馆来说是一个巨大的挑战,以满足英国当地的口味。泛指”一个巨大的挑战”用不定冠词,且big首字母的发音为辅音音素。故填a。 39.考查副词。句意:为了适应这一趋势,他们不断引入新菜品并改进现有菜品以优化菜单。副词continuously作状语修饰动词introduce以及enhance。故填continuously。 40.考查非谓语动词。句意:此外,更大的烹饪学校致力于教授地道的中国烹饪,加强对这种烹饪的欣赏和掌握。句子谓语动词是commit to,设空处用非谓语动词,表示自然而然的结果,用现在分词作结果状语。故填strengthening。 41.考查关系副词。句意:火锅,一道典型的中国菜,在伦敦占据了中心舞台,被描述为当地人可以享受正宗四川菜和陌生文化体验的”冒险”。空格处引导定语从句,修饰先行词adventure,且在定语从句中作地点状语,用关系副词where引导该从句。故填where。 42.考查名词。句意:同时,西安的扎实手拉面也引起了轰动,这得益于中国顾客的日益增多和伦敦人对正宗地方风味的胃口。设空处需要名词作介词by的宾语,根据括号内单词present的提示,应使用其名词形式presence”出席”作宾语。故填presence。 43.考查动词。句意:陈新,2024年伦敦中国菜国际发展大会的首席组织者,强调伦敦正在成为真正的中国菜全球中心,始终忠于一个使命——为中国顾客提供家乡的味道,并向国际食客展示中国烹饪文化的深度。陈述过去的动作,用一般过去时,设空处需要动词的过去式作谓语。故填emphasized。 44.考查介词。句意:陈新,2024年伦敦中国菜国际发展大会的首席组织者,强调伦敦正在成为真正的中国菜全球中心,始终忠于一个使命——为中国顾客提供家乡的味道,并向国际食客展示中国烹饪文化的深度。固定短语stay true to表示”忠于”。故填to。 45.考查名词的复数形式。句意:陈新,2024年伦敦中国菜国际发展大会的首席组织者,强调伦敦正在成为真正的中国菜全球中心,始终忠于一个使命——为中国顾客提供家乡的味道,并向国际食客展示中国烹饪文化的深度。diner表示”食客”,表示多个”食客”,用复数名词diners作宾语。故填diners。 【应用文解题思路】活动报道是以事实为依据,对人的经历、举办的活动或发生的事件给予明确的、实事求是的报道。一般由标题,导语,主体及结语四个部分组成。本篇应用文要点拆解: 开头:新闻导语,点明活动背景(时间、地点、主题、目的) 主体:描述活动内容(赏壁画、写唐诗等,用细节体现 VR 体验的沉浸感) 结尾:分享个人收获(知识层面+情感/价值观层面,升华主题) 语料:沉浸于……be fully immersed in 欣赏精美的壁画 admire delicate ancient murals 用虚拟的毛笔练习写唐诗 practice writing Tang poems with a virtual brush 通过VR与古人互动交流 interect with ancient poets through VR 使生动起来 bring…to life 【读后续写导语】本文以人物为线索展开,讲述了作者在费城参加会议期间,看到酒店附近剧院有一场关于动物救助站救助流浪狗的纪录片放映及筹款活动,作者因喜爱动物想去参加,却在剧院外看到一群看起来凶巴巴的摩托骑手,犹豫后还是进入剧院,希望电影结束时骑手们已离开。 1. 段落续写: ①由第一段首句 “我匆匆走进剧院,却发现里面有更多的骑手。” 可知,第一段可描写作者进入剧院后,面对更多骑手时内心的忐忑、不安,以及所采取的试图让自己安全、不引人注意的行动,比如找角落座位、紧紧抓包、频繁观察骑手等,展现当时紧张氛围。 ②由第二段首句”电影开始时,我意识到这些骑手是一个动物救援组织。” 可知,第二段可描写电影播放过程中作者看到骑手们被纪录片触动的表现,以及中场休息时骑手们与作者友好互动的情景,体现出骑手们外表与内心的反差,突显温暖主题。 2. 续写线索:进入剧院,遇到更多骑手——内心恐惧找座躲避——电影开场,知晓骑手身份——观影中骑手真情流露——中场休息友好交流 3. 词汇激活: 行为类: ①紧握:clutch/grab/grasp/seize ②偷看:peek at/steal a look at/glance at ③支持:support/back/uphold/advocate 情绪类: ①感动:moved/touched/affected ②羞愧:ashamed/embarrassed 【点睛】【高分句型1】Every now and then, I peeked at the bikers, wondering what they were doing here. (运用了现在分词短语作状语和what引导的宾语从句) 【高分句型2】As the documentary unfolded, showing the plight of the abandoned dogs, I saw many of the bikers wiping away tears. (运用了as引导的时间状语从句和现在分词短语作状语和宾语补足语) 应用文评分细则 1. 第五档(13-15分) 内容:完全覆盖所有内容要点,表述清楚、合理,能有效传达写作目的。 语言:使用多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,可能有个别小错,但不影响理解。 连贯性:有效运用语句间衔接手段,全文结构清晰,意义连贯。 2. 第四档(10-12分) 内容:覆盖所有主要内容要点,虽可能漏掉一两个次重点,但整体内容完整。 语言:使用比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,可能有少量错误,但不影响理解。 连贯性:比较有效地使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯。 3. 第三档(7-9分) 内容:覆盖大部分内容要点,个别地方表述不够清楚或合理。 语言:使用简单词汇和语法结构,有一些错误或不恰当之处,但基本不影响理解。 连贯性:基本有效使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。 4. 第二档(4-6分) 内容:遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点,或部分内容与写作目的不相关。 语言:词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误较多,影响理解。 连贯性:几乎不能有效使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不够清晰,意义不够连贯。 5. 第一档(1-3分) 内容:遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点,或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。 语言:词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误很多,严重影响理解。 连贯性:几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯。 其他注意事项: · 词数少于60或多于100的,从总分中减去2分。 · 单词拼写和标点符号错误,视其对交际的影响程度扣分。 · 书写较差以致影响交际的,分数可能降低一个档次。 读后续写评分标准总分为25分,按五个档次进行评分,具体标准如下: 1. 第五档(21-25分) 内容:与所给短文融洽度高,与段落开头语衔接合理,内容新颖、丰富、逻辑性强,续写完整。 语言:使用多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,语言错误极少,不影响意义表达。 篇章结构:自然有效地使用语句间连接成分,全文结构清晰,前后呼应,意义连贯。 2. 第四档(16-20分) 内容:与短文融洽度较高,与开头语衔接较为合理,内容比较丰富,逻辑性较强,续写比较完整。 语言:词汇和语法结构较为丰富、准确,表达比较流畅,可能有少量错误,但不影响理解。 篇章结构:比较有效地使用语句间连接成分,全文结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯。 3. 第三档(11-15分) 内容:与短文关系较为密切,与开头语有一定衔接,内容基本合理,但部分情节逻辑性不强,续写基本完整。 语言:使用简单词汇和语法结构,有少量错误,基本不影响理解,个别部分可能影响意义表达。 篇章结构:使用简单语句间连接成分,全文结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。 4. 第二档(6-10分) 内容:与短文有一定关系,与开头语有一定衔接,但内容和逻辑存在重大问题,续写不够完整,与原文情境脱节。 语言:词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误较多,影响意义表达。 篇章结构:较少使用语句间连接成分,全文结构不够清晰,意义欠连贯。 5. 第一档(1-5分) 内容:与短文和开头语衔接较差,内容逻辑混乱,续写不完整,或部分内容抄自原文,与原文情境基本脱节。 语言:词汇非常有限,语法结构单调,错误极多,严重影响理解。 篇章结构:几乎没有使用语句间连接成分,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯。 其他注意事项: · 词数少于120的,酌情扣分; · 书写较差以致影响交际的,酌情扣分; · 单词拼写和标点符号错误,视对交际的影响程度扣分,英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 4 — 4 — 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $

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广东揭阳第一中学等校2025-2026学年度高二级(2027届)第二学期期中考试英语学科试题
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广东揭阳第一中学等校2025-2026学年度高二级(2027届)第二学期期中考试英语学科试题
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广东揭阳第一中学等校2025-2026学年度高二级(2027届)第二学期期中考试英语学科试题
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