内容正文:
南平市 2025 — 2026 学年第一学期高二期末质量检测
英 语 试 题
全卷共 12 页,满分 150 分。
注意事项:
1.答题前,考生务必在试题卷、答题纸规定的地方填写自己的准考证号、姓名。考生要认真核对答题纸上粘贴的条形码的“准考证号、姓名”与考生本人准考证号、姓名是否一致。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题纸上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题纸上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束,将本试卷和答题纸一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What does John want to be?
A. A doctor. B. A lawyer. C. A scientist.
2. What caused the power failure?
A. The line problem. B. The terrible weather. C. The fire accident.
3. Where should the man put used envelopes?
A. In the big box. B. In the medium-sized box. C. In the small box.
4. What is the woman considering doing?
A. Continuing her work. B. Having a break. C. Finding a new job.
5. What are the speakers talking about?
A. A hat. B. A scarf. C. A sweater.
第二节(共15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6、7 题。
6. Why was Peter angry with Tom?
A. Tom lied to him again.
B. Tom misunderstood him.
C. Tom didn’t accept his apology.
7. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Brother and sister. B. Teacher and student. C. Mother and son.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. When does the conversation take place?
A. In April. B. In May. C. In June.
9. What does the man have to pay for?
A. The delivery cost. B. The cost of parts. C. The repair cost.
10. How does the man feel about the after-sales service?
A. Content. B. Confused. C. Disappointed.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. What produces all the energy in BedZED?
A. The power plant. B. The special boards. C. The roofs of the buildings.
12. What contributes to the energy-saving BedZED?
A. The back gardens. B. The shared work stations. C. The natural environment.
13. How will Molly go home today?
A. By car. B. By bike. C. By underground.
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题。
14. What interests the woman most about the job?
A. The training. B. The high pay. C. The work experience.
15. What did the woman major in?
A. Journalism. B. German. C. Writing.
16. How many languages can the woman speak?
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
17. What does the woman do to relax?
A. Go swimming. B. Climb mountains. C. Listen to light music.
听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。
18. What caused trouble to the senior people?
A. The cold weather. B. The flooded river. C. The fallen leaves.
19. Who called on volunteers to help the senior people?
A. Jay Garrett. B. Barry. C. Wally West.
20. How did the senior people express their thanks?
A. They held a party for the students.
B. They reported the story to the school.
C. They paid the students for their work.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Join us at Royal National Park these school holidays to become a Junior Ranger! Designed for kids aged 6-12, our program combines outdoor fun with meaningful learning. Through hands-on activities in nature, you’ll make new friends, discover how to protect the environment, and develop skills to become tomorrow’s environmental leaders.
Choose Your Adventure
● Creativity in Nature
In our Creativity in Nature program, you’ll gain new skills and learn about sustainability in the Australian bush. This creative and engaging experience will leave you feeling deeply connected to the environment as you play nature games, experience the sounds of nature, and create works of art with natural materials.
● Ranger Skills
In our Ranger Skills program, we’ll have fun learning what it takes to find the way and survive in our beautiful national park. You’ll develop new skills using our specialised equipment and discover specialty ranger roles including fire-fighting, animal and plant research, and wildlife rescue.
2026 Schedule (11:00 am-12:30 pm, Wednesdays & Thursdays)
Program
February
April
July
October
Creativity in Nature
4, 11, 18, 25
15, 22
8, 15
7, 14
Ranger Skills
5, 12, 19, 26
16, 23
9, 16
8, 15
What You Need to Know
● Where to Meet: Ironbark Flat Picnic Area
● Program Cost: $15 per child (Adults must accompany all children. Adults free.)
● What to Bring: drinking water, hat, sunscreen, sturdy shoes, suitable clothing
● Bookings: Bookings required. Phone 1300 072 757 or book online.
We can’t wait to welcome you to our Junior Rangers program and help you discover the amazing work of our Park Rangers while having fun in nature!
21. What will participants do in the Creativity in Nature program?
A. Design games. B. Study wildlife. C. Record sounds. D. Produce artworks.
22. When can a child join the Ranger Skills program?
A. On February 11. B. On April 22. C. On July 15. D. On October 8.
23. Which of the following is required for participation?
A. Packing a lunch. B. Buying an adult ticket.
C. Booking in advance. D. Paying the parking fee.
B
In a corner of Ontario, Canada, a cardboard box with a handwritten note recently caught the attention of passers-by. It wasn’t a case of animal abandonment (遗弃). Indeed, the truth was more inspiring.
The tale began when a car mechanic discovered a nest inside a vehicle for repair. It belonged to a red squirrel (松鼠) who had recently given birth to seven babies. Unfortunately, when the car was moved, the mother was frightened away, leaving her newborns behind.
The mechanic contacted the Guelph Humane Society. Animal Services Officer Brooke responded to the call. Knowing the best thing for the baby squirrels was to reunite them with their mother, Brooke didn’t take them to a wildlife shelter. Instead, she placed them inside that cardboard box and returned it to the original place where the car had been parked in hopes that the mother squirrel was still nearby. To prevent people from disturbing the scene, Brooke taped a note explaining the situation, “Please don’t move me. I’m waiting for my mom!”
Unfortunately, that evening, the mother squirrel did not return. Determined not to give up, Brooke took the baby squirrels home to care overnight. The next morning, she brought them back for a second attempt. This time, the mother squirrel returned, recognized her babies and relocated them to a new nest.
For Brooke, moments like these are deeply rewarding. “It is a main reason I chose this career. Nothing is better than when a mom recognizes her young and takes full control. Nature is so beautiful — I am so lucky to be witness.”
This story may seem like a small event, but it highlights a growing awareness in wildlife care. When possible, allow animals to remain in their natural environment with their families.
24. Why did the mother squirrel separate from her babies?
A. She was injured. B. She lost the way.
C. She was scared off. D. She abandoned them.
25. What was the function of the note attached to the box?
A. To attract tourists. B. To avoid intervention.
C. To call for donations. D. To inform the car owner.
26. What can we learn about Brooke from the text?
A. She finds much value in her career.
B. She considers the job daily routine.
C. She is committed to animal adoption.
D. She depends on community support.
27. What does the reunion of the squirrel family imply?
A. Home is where the heart is. B. Let nature take its course.
C. Think twice before you act. D. Many hands make light work.
C
Farming has traditionally been viewed as a physically demanding job which often passed down from one generation to the next. However, this long-held stereotype is now being overturned. Today, when you ask who the next generation of farmers will be, the answer is no longer automatically “the current farmer’s son or daughter”.
This shift is most visible in agricultural education. Britain’s agricultural colleges and universities, once limited to sons of the landowners, military officers and government officials, now welcome students from all walks of life. Today, young men and women are learning how to raise farm animals, grow crops and manage the land, but also taking modern courses as diverse as food security, environmental science, wildlife protection, water management, business, etc. The range of agricultural learning has never been broader.
Beyond education, the definition (定义) of “farm” job has expanded dramatically – driven by global demand that the world population is predicted to grow by another two billion before 2050. Agricultural technology and innovation now covers everything from drone mechanics, robotic harvesters and intelligent software. Even tech-focused students who may never get dirt under their fingernails play a crucial role in boosting food production.
Technology itself is speeding up this change: AI, for example, is already changing the farming industry. It is gathering data about soil conditions, crop health and weather systems at lightning speed to help reduce the use of chemicals, save water and predict the harvest, among many other things.
In short, modern farming is no longer bound (束缚) by tradition. Whether one’s interest is in animal care, environmental science, tech or business, there’s a job in modern farming to satisfy it. As one expert noted, “The business of growing is growing.”
28. What does the underlined word “stereotype” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. Fixed idea. B. Job requirement.
C. Relaxing job. D. Family ambition.
29. Which can best describe present agricultural education?
A. Various and broad. B. Specific and limited.
C. Traditional and practical. D. Popular and affordable.
30. How does AI promote farming?
A. By predicting the weather. B. By collecting and applying data.
C. By replacing farmers entirely. D. By growing crops automatically.
31. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. AI: A Tool for Higher Crop Production
B. Traditional Farming: Root of Agriculture
C. Agricultural Education: Open to All Students
D. Modern Farming: Beyond the Old Stereotype
D
The most extensive research into the make-up of a supercentenarian, someone who is older than 110 years old, has shown that people can reach extremely advanced years without health issues if they have a particular set of biological (生物的) factors.
A group of international scientists investigated the bio-data of Maria Branyas, the oldest person in the world when she died aged 117 last year. Born in San Francisco in 1907, Branyas survived two world wars and both the Spanish flu and Covid-19 pandemics. Notably, she was infected with Covid at 113 and made a full recovery. Dr. Manel Esteller, the study’s major investigator, said, “The common rule is that as we age we become sicker but she was an exception... For the first time, we’ve been able to separate being old from being sick.”
The team collected blood, saliva, urine and stool samples (样本) a year before Branyas’s death to build her bio-data and then investigated her genes (基因). They found that she had a particular set of biological factors that protected her from the signs of ageing she developed. “These factors are critical because they’re closely linked to fighting the diseases that are typical in older people and kill them at the end.” Esteller explained. “Maria’s parents gave her very good genes but we cannot choose our parents.”
“She also lived a healthy lifestyle. She was not overweight and had a good social life.” Esteller added. The researchers are keen to study whether her twice-daily yoghurt habit might also have played a critical role. She favored a local brand which contains high amounts of healthy bacteria.
This research offers a fresh look at human ageing biology, suggesting biological factors for healthy ageing, and potential strategies to increase life expectancy.
32. Why did Dr Esteller consider Branyas an exception?
A. She survived major wars.
B. She was less likely to fall ill.
C. She was the oldest person.
D. She reached old age healthily.
33. How did the scientists conduct the research about Branyas?
A. By analyzing her genes. B. By monitoring her weight.
C. By testing bacteria in her diet. D. By comparing her parents’ health.
34. What is the key to Branyas’s advanced age?
A. Her average figure. B. Her biological factors.
C. Her active social life. D. Her daily yoghurt habit.
35. What is the purpose of the research?
A. To provide guidance for lifestyle.
B. To offer advice on physical health.
C. To find vital diseases in old people.
D. To reveal secrets to a healthy long life.
第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Even though we live in an increasingly online world, social skills are still important. 36 What if you feel awkward or uncomfortable in these social situations? Here’s how to improve social skills to help you connect with colleagues, friends and strangers.
● 37
When someone tells you about their life, ask them a genuine follow-up question. They’ll be thrilled and would love to talk more about themselves.
● Be direct.
To build honest and open relationships, aim to be more direct. 38 It simply involves being clear, and making sure people understand exactly what you’re trying to say.
● Honor your personality type.
It’s easy to ignore our own personality in everyday life. When you don’t recharge in the correct way, though, you may find your social skills start suffering. For example, introverts (内向的人) may find themselves quiet at social events when their socializing batteries have run low. 39
● Set yourself small goals.
It’s easy to stay in your comfort zone, but that’s not where your social skills get better. 40 Set yourself goals, force yourself to practice in social situations and start building your confidence. Make sure these social goals are SMART: Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound.
Practice the tips above on small interactions that don’t have too much weight in your life. Then, when you’re in an interview or on an important occasion, you’ll have the skills and confidence to communicate better.
A. Get yourself out of it.
B. Try open-ended questions.
C. But it doesn’t mean being rude.
D. Set yourself bigger goals over the long term.
E. So get the social balance right for your own nature.
F. The more you practice your social skills, the more confident you’ll feel.
G. We need them for work such as managing a team, or giving a presentation.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
In an art class my friend Mareya and I took, we had to look at art made by different artists and then try 41 our own. “Today you’ll each get one of these art kits and paint a picture of your friend”, said Ms. Williams. “Every kit contains a set of 42 and two foam brushes. You can paint in any 43 you choose.”
Mareya and I 44 the art kits and headed to her house. “I think I’ll paint you in Leonardo da Vinci’s style,” I said. “Are you ready to 45 like the Mona Lisa?” “Don’t you mean the Mareya Lisa?” She was 46 , crossing her arms in a funny way.
After enjoying some desserts, we went to 47 our art kits by the front door. 48 , we found a big surprise-Mareya’s naughty dog had 49 our art kits! “Oh no! Our foam brushes!” I was sad, “I hope Ms. Williams will 50 why we couldn’t do our painting assignment.”
“We’re 51 to paint in any style. Let’s just use 52 paint brushes.” said Mareya. She picked up two sticks and said, “How about these?” We 53 having a great time and had our masterpieces of that year.
Hearing our story, Ms. Williams smiled. “Art is a lot like life. It almost never turns out the way we 54 . Sometimes going in entirely different 55 is the very thing that makes it amazing.”
41. A. creating B. repairing C. evaluating D. revising
42. A. books B. toys C. paints D. dishes
43. A. size B. style C. shape D. color
44. A. threw B. cleaned C. stored D. bagged
45. A. speak B. pose C. draw D. walk
46. A. puzzled B. amused C. relieved D. shocked
47. A. pick up B. put away C. drop off D. look after
48. A. Unexpectedly B. Fortunately C. Interestingly D. Undoubtedly
49. A. checked B. discovered C. guarded D. destroyed
50. A. investigate B. realize C. understand D. suspect
51. A. required B. advised C. ordered D. allowed
52. A. expensive B. old C. different D. soft
53. A. gave up B. ended up C. hurried up D. kept up
54. A. plan B. enjoy C. stress D. quit
55. A. intentions B. fields C. directions D. places
第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
A
The future home will use integrated sensors to tell when you leave home, and then go into an energy-efficient mode all by 56 (it). You will no longer have to think about turning 57 (switch) on and off yourself. Your lights will come on the instant you enter the door, and you will find your dinner already 58 (prepare) for you. If you want to change your routine, you just say aloud 59 you want and the home system will obey. The smart technology is not 60 fantasy. Many of the innovations are already available.
B
Last year, 19-year-old Chinese girl Xie Lei boarded a plane for London to study business. It was the first time that she 61 (leave) China to learn business on a year-long exchange programme. She chose to live with a host family, who could help with her adaptation 62 the new culture. 63 (write) essays was really challenging to her at first, but now she is able to express ideas well. She feels much 64 (comfortable) in the UK and acts as a cultural messenger, 65 builds bridges between China and the UK.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 40 分)
第一节 (满分 15 分)
最近,你校英文报正在举办主题为“预制菜之我见”的征文活动。请你写一篇短文投稿,内容包括:
(1)你的观点;
(2)陈述理由。
注意:
(1)写作词数应为 80 个左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
My Views on Pre-made Food
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was the New Year’s Eve. John was driving to his grandparents’ home in Missouri when the snow started falling, thick and fast. Soon the unexpected snowstorm coated central Missouri in inches of snow. Suddenly his car slid off an icy road and into a ditch (沟渠).
John tried to stay calm, taking deep long breaths. He was safe, unharmed. But his car was another story – it had died. What’s worse, his mobile phone was out of power. He figured it would be dangerous to stay in the car as the snow continued to settle. John glanced around, and found that on the opposite side of the road there was a light up on a hill.
John started up the hill, hoping the light indicated the owner of the home was inside. John got closer and knocked on the door, but no one answered. John turned the door knob. It opened. The door was unlocked. John entered the house, calling out “hello,” only to be greeted with silence. There was clearly no one home.
He realized the roads were unsafe, so he made up his mind: He was going to stay in the farmhouse for the night. He felt slightly guilty about this decision – he was breaking and entering, but he meant no harm. He wrote a note explaining who he was and why he was there, just in case he fell asleep on the sofa before the owners returned. He fished out some cash and placed it next to the note on the kitchen table, as a thank you.
He had just finished writing the note when he heard someone’s voices. Then the door opened, and in came a couple. For a moment, they were all in shock.
注意:
(1)续写词数应为150个左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
John gathered his courage to speak.
The next morning, the couple accompanied John to his car.
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南平市 2025-2026 学年第一学期高二期末质量检测
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力(每小题 1.5 分,满分30分)
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C
11. B 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. A
第二部分 阅读(每小题 2.5 分,满分50 分)
21. D 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. B
31. D 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. G 37. B 38. C 39. E 40. A
第三部分 语言运用(满分 30 分)
第一节(每小题 1 分,满分15 分)
41. A 42. C 43. B 44. D 45. B 46. B 47. A 48. A 49. D 50. C
51. D 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. C
第二节(每小题 1.5 分,满分15 分)
56. itself 57. switches 58. prepared 59. what 60. a
61. had left 62. to 63. Writing 64. more comfortable 65. who
第四部分 写作(满分 40 分)
第一节(满分 15 分)
作答示例
My Views on Pre-made Food
Pre-made food has stirred heated debates recently. While some doubt its nutritional value, I believe it is a beneficial innovation when consumed wisely.
First of all, it greatly saves time and energy for busy students and workers. Additionally, modern production techniques ensure the same food quality and taste. More importantly, it can reduce food waste and cooking failures.
In conclusion, pre-made food serves as a practical and efficient modern diet solution for us. The key is to balance convenience with healthy eating habits.
第二节 (满分25分)
作答示例
John gathered up his courage to speak. “I’m John — so sorry for breaking in uninvited!” he stammered, gesturing to the note and cash on the table. “My car slid into the ditch in the snowstorm, phone died, and I had nowhere else to go.” The couple’s shock melted into smiles as they read the note. “Don’t worry about it – you did the right thing to stay safe,” the husband said warmly. John felt relieved and grateful for their kindness. Before long, the couple offered a hearty dinner, insisting John was absolutely welcome to stay overnight.
The next morning, the couple accompanied John to his car. They attached ropes to the car and pulled together. With their joint effort, they slowly pulled the car out of the mud and ice. To John’s relief, the car started successfully after the rescue. John insisted on doubling the cash as a thank-you, but the couple refused and said “Just pass on the kindness someday.” John carried the memory of their generosity with him as he joined his grandparents for New Year lunch, grateful for coming across such understanding people.
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