江苏徐州市六市县区2025-2026学年高一下学期期中考试英语试题

2025~2026学年度第二学期期中考试 高一英语答题纸 姓名 班级 [0][0] [0] 0] [0] 0 0 0 学校 准 [I门 [2] [2] 27 缺 考 [3] 31 31 [4] [4] [4] 41 4] 标 证 [5J [5] C51 「6 [6] 67 6 粘贴条形码处 号 [8] [8] 8 8] [8] [9][9] [9] [9]9][9][9][9][9] [9] [9] [9] 选择题涂卡区 以上填涂准考证号 1 2345678910 11121314151617181920 2122232425 [A][A][A]CA][A][A][A][A]CA]CA] [A][A][A][AJ[A][A][A][A][A][A] [A][A][A][A][A] [B][B][B][B][B][B][B][B][B][B] [B][B][B][B][B][B][B][B][B][B] [B][B][B][B][B] [C][c][c][c][C][c][C][c][c][c] [cJ[C][C][c][c][C][C][cJ[C][C] [C][C][CJ[c][C] [D][D][D][D][D 26272829303132333435 36373839404142434445 4647484950 [A][A][A][A][A][A][A][A][A]LA] [A][A][A][A][A][A][A][A]LA][A] [A][A]A]A][A] CB]CB]CB]CBj CBJ CB]CB]CB]CB]c8]CB]CB]CB]CB]CB]CB][B]CB]CB]CB] [B][B][B]LB][B] [C][c][c][c][cJ[c][c][C][cJ[c][c][c][c][cJ[c][c][c][c][c][c] [C][C][C][C][C] [D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D] [D][D][D][D][D] 51525354555657585960 [E][E][E][E][E] [A][A][AJ[A][A][A][AJ[A][A][A] [F][F][F][F][F] [B][B][B][B][B][B][B][B][B][B] [G][G]G][G][G] [c][c][c][C][c][c][c][c][c][c] [D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D][D] 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 61. 62 63. 64. 65. 66 67. 68. 69 70. 第四部分写作（共两节；满分35分） 第一节应用文写作（满分15分） Hi,Mr.Green!Welcome to our booth. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 1 常州美拓信息技术有限公司设计 I hope you have a wonderful time exploring our English Festival! 第二节读后续写（满分20分） The rescue boat stopped near the window,and a rescuer shouted,"Grab the rope!" 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 ■ 2 常州美拓信息技术有限公司设计 2025 ~ 2026 学年度第二学期期中考试 高一英语试题 （试卷满分 150 分，考试时间 120 分钟） 注意事项： 1．在答题纸的密封线内填写学校、班级、姓名、考号等，密封线内不要答题。 2．请将所有答案均按照题号填涂或填写在答题卡相应的答题处，否则不得分。 第一部分 听力（共两节；满分 30 分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分） 听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. When does the wildlife park open? A. At 9:00. B. At 10:00. C. At 11:00. 2. What does the man think of his new job? A. Stressful. B. Satisfactory. C. Easy. 3. What will the woman do tomorrow? A. Look after a kid. B. Go to the library. C. Join the study group. 4. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Neighbors. B. Workmates. C. Tour guide and tourist. 5. What are the speakers talking about? A. A health problem. B. A medical appointment. C. A missed breakfast. 第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分） 听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，每小题都有 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听第 6 段录音，回答第 6、7 题。 6. Why is the woman making the call? A. To report a loss. B. To place an order. C. To ask for information. 7. What will the woman do next? A. Go to a bank. B. Call the local branch. C. Take a vacation. 听第 7 段录音，回答第 8 至 10 题。 8. How did Ms. Rogers feel last weekend? A. Tired. B. Bored. C. Cheerful 9. What does Mr. Cooper intend to do this Sunday? A. Go for a drive. B. Telephone the farm owner. C. Take his daughter to a farm. 10. What does Ms. Rogers suggest Mr. Cooper do? A. Book in advance. B. Wait until next month. C. Check for more details. 听第8段录音，回答第11至13题。 11. What does Linda offer to do for Matt? A. Introduce Alex to him. B. Give him a tour of Banford. C. Help him move house. 12. Why can’t Matt meet Linda next Tuesday? A. He needs to work late. B. He has to go home early. C. He will be on a train trip. 13. Where will Linda wait for Matt? A. In a cafe. B. In the train station. C. In a museum. 听第9段录音，回答第14至16题。 14. What is special about the cookery workshop? A. It is held once every day. B. It is about making healthy food. C. It is popular with both adults and children. 15. What is the poster workshop held for? A. To enrich community life. B. To bring residents together. C. To teach kids the town’s history. 16. Why is the toy-making workshop just for adults? A. It requires much hard work. B. It could be dangerous for children. C. It is about making large wooden toys. 听第10段录音，回答第17至20题。 17. What made the speaker unhappy at first? A. The bad weather. B. The early meeting time. C. The tiring bus journey. 18. How many students went on the trip? A. 10. B. 30. C. 33. 19. What did the speaker do after lunch? A. She looked for food. B. She made a shelter. C. She collected potatoes. 20. What did the speaker have for supper? A. Leftovers from lunch. B. Food prepared at home. C. Self-made soup. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Disaster Prevention and Management (DPM): A Journal for the People Picture a magazine that examines more than the physical side of disasters — like earthquake strength or rising floodwaters — and instead focuses on the “people” side of events. That’s what Disaster Prevention and Management (DPM) does. As an international journal (杂志), we explore how communities prepare, how governments respond, and how recovery can be fair and effective for everyone. What Guides Us? Two main rules guide our work: justice and equality — ensuring that everyone affected by disasters is heard, especially those who need the most support. We believe the voices and knowledge of local communities matter most, because they are the ones living through these events. Our goal is to build a bridge connecting social scientists, policymakers, and the brave people working on the front lines. What Can You Share? We welcome a wide variety of works: traditional research papers, case studies, opinion pieces, and creative styles such as: Photo essays or comic strips (漫画) Blog posts and short reports Book reviews, often including author interviews If you have a unique idea that does not fit the “usual” model, feel free to talk to our editors — they are always happy to discuss new ways of storytelling. We especially encourage early-stage researchers and those whose first language is not English to share their ideas. Details for Sending Your Work • Word Count: Under 7,000 words. • The Requirement: Your cover letter must explain how your work links back to our basic rules. • The Review: Each paper will be checked by two experts. For case studies, we ensure at least one reviewer truly understands the local situation. Ready to join us? Visit our website to check out our style guide and join our global conversation! 21. What makes DPM different from most other research journals? A. It asks for support from readers. B. It stresses how disasters affect people. C. It encourages policymakers to build bridges. D. It focuses only on the physical aspects of disasters. 22. Which of the following can you send to DPM according to the text? A. An interview going against justice. B. A case study about a local disaster. C. A research paper of ten thousand words. D. A report exploring new ways of telling stories. 23. Who might be interested in the article? A. A student learning to draw comic strips. B. Tourists who plan to visit disaster-hit areas. C. A writer with a story about people in a flood. D. A government official enjoying reading blogs. B The 2025 Nobel Prize in Literature went to László Krasznahorkai, a 71-year-old writer from Hungary. The Nobel Committee praised him for creating powerful stories that show the strength of art even in times of fear. If his name doesn’t ring a bell, you are not alone. His books are not easy to read, but his fans say they are a “workout for the brain” — hard to read but very satisfying. Krasznahorkai was born in a small town in Hungary. As a teenager, he played jazz piano in an adult band. Music taught him rhythm and patience, which later influenced his writing style. Although he first studied law to please his father, he soon changed his major to literature to follow what he really loved. Today, he is seen as one of the most important writers in the world. Before becoming a full-time writer, Krasznahorkai worked many different jobs, such as a miner and a night watchman. These experiences helped him understand the hardships and dignity (尊严) of ordinary people. They also inspired his first famous novel, Satantango, published in 1985. The book describes a dying village and made him famous for his “lava-like” sentences — slow, strong, and unstoppable. Krasznahorkai’s imagination has no borders. He has traveled to many countries, including China. After his first visit in 1991, he became very interested in Chinese culture, especially Li Bai’s poems. In 1998, he even visited ten Chinese cities to follow the poet’s steps. His wife, an expert in Chinese studies, has always been his guide to Asian culture. When he won the prize, Krasznahorkai said that literature has its own value. It can offer hope and show that beauty still exists. His work reminds us that even in the darkest times, art can light a small candle, helping us find beauty in a messy world. 24. What does the underlined phrase “ring a bell” probably mean in the first paragraph? A. Make a loud noise. B. Sound familiar to you. C. Remind you of danger. D. Make you feel excited. 25. What are Krasznahorkai’s works like? A. They are short and easy to follow. B. They focus on stories in villages. C. They show both hardships and hope. D. They are mainly about jazz and law. 26. What is unique about Krasznahorkai’s connection to China? A. He moved to China to live with his wife. B. He wrote his first novel in a Chinese city. C. He is strongly influenced by Chinese culture. D. He became an expert in Chinese studies in 1991. 27. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. Art: A Small Candle in the Darkest Times B. Li Bai: A Great Inspiration for Krasznahorkai C. Difficult Books: A New Trend of the Nobel Prize D. A Writer Who Finds Beauty in Life’s Challenges C On a foggy winter day in early 2025, India’s first “Garbage Cafe” in Ambikapur feels warm and cozy. Inside, people are sitting on wooden benches, enjoying hot meals. However, these hungry customers do not pay with money. Instead, they hand over plastic waste — old bags, wrappers, or bottles. Launched in 2019, the cafe’s slogan is “More the waste, better the taste.” The idea is simple: help low-income residents earn meals while cleaning the streets. For one kilogram of plastic, a person can get a full meal including rice, vegetables, and bread. On average, the cafe feeds more than 20 people every day. This project has brought great changes to the environment. Since 2019, it has collected almost 23 tonnes (吨) of plastic. In the city, annual plastic waste has fallen from 5.4 tonnes in 2019 to just two tonnes in 2024. After being collected, the plastic is sent to local centers to be recycled. These centers also provide jobs for 480 local women, helping them earn a regular income. The successful idea has spread to other parts of India. Siliguri, in West Bengal, started a similar program in 2019, and Mysuru, in Karnataka, allows residents to trade plastic for breakfast or a full meal. Even abroad, in Cambodia, people can exchange plastic waste for rice. These projects show that local solutions can truly make a difference, proving how small, community-driven efforts can have a meaningful impact on both people and the environment. While the plastic waste collection schemes have had an impact, experts note they aren’t able to address problems such as the overproduction of plastic and non-recyclable plastic. They are like a “quick fix” for the surface of the problem, but the root causes — such as too much plastic production and consumption — still need to be solved. “It’s a good beginning,” says researcher Minal Pathak, “but bigger changes are still needed.” 28. How do customers pay for their meals at the Garbage Cafe? A. With money. B. With social support. C. With plastic waste. D. With personal service. 29. Why does the author mention the specific numbers in Paragraph 3? A. To show the research process. B. To care about plastic pollution. C. To explain how to recycle plastic. D. To prove the benefits of the project. 30. What does the author want to tell us by the examples in paragraph 4? A. Global teamwork is successful. B. Programs are similar everywhere. C. Little effort can achieve much. D. The cafes offer people rice as well. 31. What is Minal Pathak’s attitude toward the project? A. Doubtful and worried. B. Satisfied and hopeful C. Supportive but concerned. D. Unclear D April 23 is World Book Day, a global event organized by UNESCO to encourage reading. On this day, people are invited to step away from their busy lives to lose themselves in a story. However, staying focused on a book has become much harder today because of what experts call “digital distraction (干扰).” The problem is not just a lack of free time, but a change in how our brains process information. As smartphones, tablets, and social media take up more attention, many people find it difficult to concentrate on one thing for long. Dr. Maryanne Wolf, a neuroscientist at Tufts University and author of Reader, Come Home, warns that constant digital use may be changing the way we read. While we are becoming better at scanning for quick information, we are losing the ability for “deep reading,” which is necessary for careful thinking and understanding other people’s feelings. Recent studies show some worrying trends. One study found that many teenagers today have smaller vocabularies (词汇量) and weaker reading skills than those from a century ago. In addition, the percentage of young people who read for pleasure has dropped from 37% to just 17%. While heavy schoolwork contributes to this drop, the main reason is the easy fun provided by social media. Many young people now prefer watching short videos or listening to podcasts, missing the unique experience of decoding (解码) a long text and imagining a world in their minds. Despite these challenges, printed books remain a powerful tool for our minds. Literature, in particular, is more than just a collection of stories; it helps us develop “cognitive patience” — the ability to focus and think deeply. The act of reading also guides us into the lives of different characters, helping us understand people who are different from ourselves. In this way, books allow us to see the world through others’ eyes. On World Book Day — or any day — taking time to read quietly is an important choice. Even in a noisy digital world, reading lets us connect with the deep and meaningful voices of human experience. 32. What is the author’s purpose in writing Paragraph 1? A. To explain a rule. B. To introduce an event. C. To present a problem. D. To describe busy lives. 33. What is Dr. Maryanne Wolf’s major concern? A. The lack of free time for daily reading. B. The loss of the ability to think and feel deeply. C. The high cost of owning digital products. D. The slow speed of scanning for quick information. 34. What can we infer from the studies mentioned in Paragraph 3? A. Teenagers read more today. B. Social media affects reading. C. Reading for pleasure is rising. D. Videos help build imagination. 35. What does Paragraph 4 mainly talk about? A. The mental value of books. B. The history of literature. C. The methods of deep reading. D. The power of different characters. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How Should I Use AI Chatbots Like ChatGPT? Some people say that AI (Artificial Intelligence) can be unpredictable and unreliable. I have seen them give wrong answers many times. But I have also seen these AI programs do amazing things that surprised me. 36 Here are some things that AI is especially good at right now: Explaining concepts at different levels I have been using AI as my personal tutor. If I start a new topic, I will ask it to explain the idea at a high school level so that I can understand the basics. 37 Using an infinitely patient tutor to guide me through new subjects feels like a “superpower” which helps me learn faster. Getting help with creative work AI can also be a good tool to help you find new ideas. If you are trying to prepare questions for an interview or write a story, AI can give you some thoughtful suggestions. 38 As a famous professor said, “AI provides a way of giving yourself a push when you are stuck.” Practicing for real-world tasks 39 When I had to have a difficult talk with a friend, I asked an AI program to play a role-playing game with me. “Pretend you are my friend, and react the way you think my friend might react,” I told it. Then I practiced the conversation. It made me feel more confident. Although chatbots cannot replace real human friendship, they can offer us basic advice and feedback without judging us. Summarizing large amounts of text One of the most powerful abilities of AI is to quickly summarize long articles. I have used AI to “read” long articles and difficult papers, after which it tells me the most important points. Usually they can find the main ideas correctly, even if some details are missing. 40 A. However, it often brings us a lot of trouble in our daily life. B. If I am still confused, I will ask it to explain again at a lower level. C. I use AI to practice for tasks that I find difficult or even frightening. D. This helps people overcome difficulties and start hard projects easily. E. It saves me a lot of time when I need to deal with complex information. F. Actually, they can be very helpful if we know how to use them properly. G. Modern technology is changing the way we talk with our family members. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分35分） 第一节（共20小题：每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 As a child, I was terribly shy — so silent that even in a crowded classroom, I felt like I was 41 . To me, the world was a stage where I was the only one 42 words. The thought of being noticed made me feel 43 — a feeling that stayed with me even after I graduated from university. Four years ago, on a very hot summer afternoon, I was at a playground with friends when I 44 something happening. A girl about ten was 45 her younger sister’s arm, shouting, “Stop being silly! Get up!” The little girl lay on the hard ground, crying 46 like a sudden storm. Then the elder girl went away 47 , leaving the little one alone. My friends watched in awkward 48 , not knowing what to do. I 49 wanted to step forward and help her — but my usual 50 stopped me. Then a thought hit: Why wait for permission (允许) to do what’s 51 ? Taking a deep breath, I walked 52 slowly. My voice was very 53 : “Hey, it’s okay.” I 54 my hand to show I was friendly. To my 55 , she ran into my arms and held me so tightly. I could feel how 56 she was. In that short moment, a special connection was formed between us. Soon, the elder girl returned with their father. It 57 to me that he would probably be angry at a stranger hugging his child. My heart beat fast, but I didn’t 58 . To my great relief, the man only gave a small nod. “Come on, honey,” he said gently. The girl wiped away her tears and gave me a warm smile before walking away. That day, I learned that sometimes, the bravest thing you can do is to 59 while you’re still afraid. In helping a stranger, I finally found my own 60 . 41. A. unnoticed B. unfriendly C. comfortable D. popular 42. A. with B. without C. beyond D. besides 43. A. excited B. proud C. nervous D. sad 44. A. heard B. spotted C. felt D. stopped 45. A. raising B. waving C. hurting D. pulling 46. A. softly B. loudly C. silently D. quietly 47. A. happily B. quietly C. angrily D. slowly 48. A. silence B. horror C. excitement D. pain 49. A. hardly B. badly C. hurriedly D. never 50. A. overthinking B. pride C. shyness D. coldness 51. A. right B. possible C. brave D. hard 52. A. out B. back C. away D. forward 53. A. weak B. soft C. clear D. loud 54. A. threw up B. held up C. held out D. shook out 55. A. satisfaction B. amazement C. regret D. disappointment 56. A. scared B. brave C. angry D. patient 57. A. belonged B. happened C. occurred D. turned 58. A. run away B. sit down C. stand up D. go on 59. A. speak B. feel C. act D. think 60. A. secret B. voice C. success D. value 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The Sky Railway The Qinghai-Tibet Railway, known as the “Sky Railway,” connects Xining and Lhasa. Once 61 (consider) “impossible” by many experts, it has become a true wonder of modern engineering (工程). I was among the workers 62 came from all over China to work on this railway. Completed after years of effort, it stands as a record of our 63 (determine) to overcome huge challenges. The top concern during 64 (build) the railway was how to protect the easily damaged ecosystem. 65 (ensure) that wild residents could move freely, thirty-three special passages were built under the railway. In addition, 140,000 square meters of wetland were carefully moved to new areas to keep the environment 66 (balance). The environment was not the only challenge; the high altitude also tested the workers. At Tanggula Station, located over 5,000 meters above sea level, the thin air and strong UV radiation made work 67 (extreme) difficult. To keep us healthy, oxygen-making stations 68 (place) along the way. The Sky Railway is more than a train line; it connects ancient nature 69 modern progress. Passengers from all over the country are now enjoying the magical views — an experience that feels like 70 journey through the clouds, where human dreams meet nature’s wonders. 第四部分 写作（共两节；满分35分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分） 假定你是李华。你校正在举办“校园英语节”，你负责“中国传统节日”展位（booth）的解说工作。外教Mr. Green来到你的展位前，请你向他介绍一个你最喜欢的传统节日。内容包括： 1．节日介绍； 2．节日的意义。 注意： 1．写作词数应为80个左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Hi, Mr. Green! Welcome to our booth. I hope you have a wonderful time exploring our English Festival! 第二节 读后续写（满分20分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写一段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 On a hot, still July afternoon, 17-year-old Kevin was enjoying his holiday at his grandma’s two-story countryside house, the air thick and slow around him. The peaceful day was soon broken by a loud noise of far-off thunder (雷声). Within an hour, light rain turned into a scary rainstorm. The nearby river, usually quiet, rose into a roaring brown beast. Grandma’s face turned pale as a radio announcement reported that the Millstone Dam above the town had broken. “We must move fast, Kevin!” she cried over the loud wind. Icy water began coming through the floor, rising bit by bit, Panic rose in Kevin’s heart, but he forced himself to stay calm. “Upstairs, Grandma — we need higher ground!” Remembering his school safety drills, He grabbed (抓) a backpack and quickly put in bottled water, food, a flashlight, a whistle (口哨), and Grandma’s medicine. They walked through knee-deep water to the second floor. “Try calling for help,” Grandma urged. Kevin took the phone, but the signal was weak. He called 911 many times until a weak voice answered, saying that help was on the way. Night fell. The water reached the second floor, beating against the windowsills (窗台). To stay visible, Kevin flashed the light across the darkness while Grandma blew the whistle. The rain hid everything, but they refused to give up — they’d made contact, and rescue was coming. Suddenly, a light danced across the water. It wasn’t thunder this time, but the roar of an engine. A bright orange rescue boat appeared, with two rescuers searching the darkness for them. 注意： 1．续写词数应为100左右； 2．续写部分为一段，开头语已为你写好。 The rescue boat stopped near the window, and a rescuer shouted, “Grab the rope!” 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025 ～ 2026学年度第二学期期中考试 高一英语试题答案 第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分） 1-5 CBABA 6-10 CACCA 11-15 BBABC 16-20 BABAC 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 21-23 BBC 24-27 BCCD 28-31 CDCC 32-35 CBBA 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 36-40 FBDCE 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分35分） 第一节（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 41-45 ABCBD 46-50 BCABC 51-55 ADB CB 56-60 ACACB 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 61.considered 62. who / that 63. determination 64. building 65. To ensure 66. balanced 67. extremely 68. were placed 69. with / and 70. a 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节（满分15分） [Possible version 1] Hi, Mr. Green! Welcome to our booth. I’m honored to introduce my favorite traditional festival — the Mid-Autumn Festival. Falling on the 15th day of the eighth lunar month, it is a time when the moon is at its fullest and brightest. As you can see from these displays, we celebrate it by enjoying delicious mooncakes and appreciating the moonlight with our families. Beyond the food, the festival carries a deep modern meaning: it symbolizes unity and harmony. In our fast-paced life, it provides a precious chance for family reunions and cultural reflection. I hope you have a wonderful time exploring our English Festival! [Possible version 2] Hi, Mr. Green! Welcome to our booth. I’m delighted to share with you the Spring Festival, the most significant traditional festival in China. It is a time when families reunite. In the days leading up to the festival, we thoroughly clean our homes and hang red decorations to invite good fortune. Please replace lavish: On New Year’s Eve, families gather for a big dinner, and children eagerly receive red packets containing money. For us, the Spring Festival symbolizes new beginnings, hope, and the enduring bond of family. It is not just a celebration, but also a heartfelt expression of love and gratitude. I hope you enjoy exploring our English Festival! 第二节（满分20分） [Possible version 1] The rescue boat stopped beside the window, and a rescuer shouted, “Grab the rope!” Kevin caught the thick line and tied it around Grandma’s waist with trembling but steady hands. “Don’t be afraid. I’m right here,” he whispered to comfort her. With the rescuers’ help, Grandma was pulled safely into the rocking boat. Kevin then grabbed the emergency bag and jumped in. As they moved away through the dark, splashing water, Kevin wrapped a dry blanket around his shivering grandmother. He looked back at the house sinking in the flood and felt a great sense of relief. He was deeply thankful for the rescue team and proud that he could protect his grandmother in the scary storm. [Possible version 2] The rescue boat stopped beside the window, and a rescuer shouted, “Grab the rope!” Kevin caught the thick line, and at the same time, a rescuer handed over a bright yellow life jacket. Kevin quickly helped Grandma put the jacket on and buckled it. Then, he tied the safety rope around her waist to keep her steady. With the rescuers’ help, they were both pulled safely onto the rocking boat. As they moved away through the dark water, Kevin wrapped a dry blanket around his shivering grandmother. When they finally reached the safe center, Grandma held Kevin’s hand tightly. With a proud smile, she whispered, “You were so brave, Kevin. You stayed calm and saved us.” Kevin felt a great sense of relief; he was happy to protect his family in the storm. 录音稿 第一节 听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 现在，你有 5 秒钟的时间阅读第 1 小题的有关内容。 听下面的录音，回答第 1 小题。 (Text 1) W: I’m pretty sure the wildlife park opens at ten o’clock. M: No, I think it opens at nine. W: Maybe we should look at our tickets. M: We were both wrong. It opens an hour later than you thought. 听下面的录音，回答第 2 小题。 (Text 2) W: I hear you have a new job. How’s it going? M: Well, I have a lot to learn, but the people are nice, and there’s not too much pressure. 听下面的录音，回答第 3 小题。 (Text 3) W: Whew, I just finished my last practice of the week. M: Good. That means you can come to our study group tomorrow. Let’s meet outside the library. W: I’m sorry I can’t. I have to watch my brother then. 听下面的录音，回答第 4 小题。 (Text 4) M: Welcome back. How did your trip go? W: It was really nice, and the taxi drivers in New York were all so friendly. M: Good. Well, we’d better go. The sales meeting is about to start. 听下面的录音，回答第 5 小题。 (Text 5) M: Mum, I don’t feel very well. W: Mm, yes, you look very tired. Did you eat any breakfast? M: No, I’ve got a stomachache. W: OK, I’ll phone the doctor to see if I can get you an appointment this morning. 第一节到此结束。 第二节 听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，每小题都有 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听下面的录音，回答第 6 和第 7 小题。现在，你有 10 秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。 (Text 6) M: Hello. You have reached the Western Washington Bank. How may I help you? W: Hi. I’ve lost my ATM card. How can I get a new one? M: You have two choices. I can order a new card for you now, and it will be delivered to your house in a day, or you can go to any branch in person and get a new card immediately. W: In that case, I’ll go to my local branch. I need the card right now since I’m going on vacation soon. 听下面的录音，回答第 8 至第 10 小题。现在，你有 15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 (Text 7) W: Good morning, Mr. Cooper. M: Hello, Ms. Rogers. How was your weekend? W: Well, I went to a strawberry farm with my kids. It was super fun. M: A strawberry farm? Is it near our town? I’d prefer not to drive too far after a tiring week. We’re just looking for something relaxing but not too boring. W: It only took 30 minutes by car. We picked a lot of strawberries. M: Sounds interesting. My daughter loves strawberries. I want to take her there this Sunday. Can you give me the contact number of the farm? W: Okay. Here is the number, but you’d better hurry. I heard the bookings for this month are almost all filled. 听下面的录音，回答第 11 至第 13 小题。现在，你有 15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 (Text 8) M: Hello, Linda. This is Matt Brooks. W: Hi Matt. Alex has talked with me about you. Are you planning to visit Banford soon? M: Yes. My wife and I are both coming next week. We’ve been considering moving here next year. W: I could meet you if you like and show you around. M: We’d really appreciate that. W: Either a Tuesday or Thursday is good for me, after I get off work at 5:30. M: Thursday’s preferable — on Tuesday I need to get home before 6 pm. W: Okay. Let me know which train you’re catching, and I’ll meet you in the cafe outside. You can’t miss it. It’s opposite the station and next to the museum. M: Brilliant. I’ll text you next week then. Thanks so much. W: No problem. I’ll see you next week. 听下面的录音，回答第 14 至第 16 小题。现在，你有 15 秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 (Text 9) M: There are some workshops and other activities during the festival. They’ll all take place at least once every day. W: Good. You don’t happen to have a cookery workshop, do you? M: We certainly do. It’s going to focus on how to make food part of a healthy lifestyle. W: That might be worth going to. We’re trying to encourage our children to cook. M: Another workshop is just for children, and that’s on creating posters to reflect the history of the town. The aim is to make children aware of how the town has changed over the centuries. The results will be shown in the community center. Then the other workshop is on toy-making, and that’s for adults only. W: Oh, why’s that? M: Because participants will be making toys out of wood. There’ll be a lot of sharp tools around, though there won’t be much work. W: It makes sense to keep children away from it. M: Exactly. 听下面的录音，回答第 17 至第 20 小题。现在，你有 20 秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。 (Text 10) W: Let me tell you all about an amazing Survival Weekend trip with my class. When the bus picked us up from the school gate at 6 in the morning, it was raining heavily, which wasn’t great. However, it hadn’t rained in the forest. That was important because we needed dry places for our first survival activity: building shelters. There were three leaders, each responsible for 10 students. After we were divided into three groups, we started collecting broken tree branches and leaves to build our shelters. Then we ate a light breakfast we had prepared at home. After breakfast, we learned how to build a fire safely. For lunch, we had hot dogs and potatoes cooked over the fire. After lunch, we put out the fire and got ready to look for food in the forest. Our leaders showed us which foods were safe. We returned late in the afternoon. Each group made their own campfire and learned to cook soup for supper over the fire with the things we had collected. It was delicious. We all enjoyed the trip. 第二节到此结束。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $这里是2025至2026学年度第二学期高一年级期中检测英语试题听力部分，该部分分为第一第二两节。注意回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面五段录音，每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。听下面的录音，回答第一小题。I'm pretty sure the wildlife park opens at . ten o'clock. No, I think that opens at nine. Maybe we should look at our tickets. We were both wrong. IT opens an hour later than you thought. I'm pretty sure the wildlife park opens . at ten o'clock. No, I think that opens at nine. Maybe we should look at . our tickets. We were both wrong. IT opens an hour later than you thought. 听下面的录音，回答第二小题。I hear you have a new job. How's IT going? Well, I have a lot to learn, but the people are nice and there's not too much pressure. I hear you have a new job. How's IT going? Well, I have a lot to learn, but the people are nice and there's not too much pressure. 听下面的录音，回答第三小题。QI just finished my last practice of the week. good. That means you can come to our study group tomorrow. Let's meet outside the library. I'm sorry, I can't. I have to watch my brother, then, who I just finished my last practice of the week. good. That means you can come to our studying group tomorrow. Let's meet outside the library. I'm sorry, I can't. I have to watch my brother then. 听下面的录音，回答第四小题。Welcome back. How did your trip go? IT was really nice, and the taxi drivers in new york were all so friendly. good. Well, we'd Better go. The sales meeting is about to start. Welcome back. How did your trip go? IT was really nice, and the taxi drivers in new york were all so friendly. good. Well, we'd Better go. The sales meeting is about to start. 听下面的录音，回答第五小题。Um I don't feel very well. Yes, you look very tired. Did you eat any breakfast? No, i've got a stomach cake. Okay, i'll found . the doctor to see if I can get you an appointment this morning. Mom, I . don't feel very well. Yes, you look very tired. Did you eat any breakfast? No, i've got a stomach cake. Okay, i'll found . the doctor to see if I can get you an appointment this morning. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音。播放两遍。听下面的录音，回答第六和第七小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Hello, you have reached the western washington bank. How may I help you? Hi, i've lost my AT. M card. How can I get a new one? You have two choices. I can order a new card for you now, and I will be delivered to your house in a day, or you can go to any branch in person and get a new . car immediately. In that case, i'll go to my local branch. I need the card right now since i'm going on vacation soon. Hello, you have reached the western washington bank. How may I help you? Hi, i've lost my AT. M card. How can I get a new one? You have two choices. I can order a new card for you now, and I will be delivered to your house in a day. Or you can go to any branch in person and get a new car . to immediately. In that case, i'll go to my local branch. I need the card right now since i'm going on vacation soon. 听下面的录音，回答第八至第十小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Good morning, mr. Cooper. Hello, miss Rogers. How was your weekend? Well, I went to a strawberry farm with my kids. IT was super fun. A strawberry farm is IT near our town. I'd prefer not to drive too far after a tiring week. We're just looking for something relaxing. but not too boring. IT only took thirty minutes by car. We picked a lot of strawberries. Sounds interesting. My daughter loves strawberries. I want to take her there this sunday. Can you give me the contact number of the form? Okay, here is the number, but you'd Better hurry. I heard the bookings for this month are almost all failed. Good morning, mr. Cooper. Hello, miss Rogers. How was your weekend? Well, I went to a strawberry farm with my kids. IT was super fun. A strawberry farm is IT near our town. I'd prefer not to drive too far after a tiring week. We're just looking for something relaxing. but not too boring. IT only took thirty minutes by car. We picked a lot of strawberries. Sounds interesting. My daughter loves strawberries. I want to take her there this sunday. Can you give me the contact number of the form? Okay, here is the number, but you'd Better hurry. I heard the bookings for this month are almost all failed. 听下面的录音，回答第十一至第十三小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Hello, Linda, this is mad Brooks. Hi, mad alex has talked with me about you. Are you planning to visit ban ford soon? Yes, my wife and I are both coming next week. We've been considering moving here next year. I could meet you, if you like. and show you around. We'd really appreciate . that either a tuesday or thursday is good for me. After I get off work at . five thirty thursdays, preferable on tuesday, I need to get home before six P. M. Okay, let me know which train you're catching, and i'll meet you in the cafe outside. You can't miss IT. It's opposite the station and next to the museum. brilliant. I'll text you next week then. Thanks so much. No problem. I'll see you next week. Hello, Linda. This is matt Brooks. Hi, mad alex has talked with me about you. Are you planning to visit ban ford soon? Yes, my wife and I are both coming next week. We've been considering moving here next year. I could meet you, if you like. and show you around. We'd really appreciate . that either a tuesday or thursday is good for me after I get off work . at five thirty thursdays, preferable on tuesday, I need to get home before six P. M. Okay, let me know which train you're catching, and i'll meet you in the cafe outside. You can't miss IT, its opposite station and next to the museum. brilliant. I'll text you next week, then thanks so much. No problem, i'll see you next week. 听下面的录音，回答第十四至第十六小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。There are some workshops and other activities during the festival. They'll all take place at least once every day. good. You don't happen to have a cooking workshop. do you? We certainly do. It's going to focus on how to make food part of a healthy lifestyle . that might be worth going to. We're trying to encourage our . children to cook. Another workshop is just for children, and that's on creating posters to reflect the history of the town. The aim is to make children aware of how the town has changed over the centuries. The results will be shown in the community center. Then the other workshop is on toy making, and that's for adults only. Oh, why is that? Because . participants will be making toys out of wood. They'll be a lot of sharp tools around, though there won't be much work. IT makes sense to keep children . away from IT. exactly. There are some workshops and other activities during the festival. They'll all take place at least once every day. good. You don't happen to have a cooker workshop. do you? We certainly do. It's going to focus on how to make food part of a healthy lifestyle . that might be worth going to. We're trying to encourage our children to cook. Another workshop is just for children, and that's on creating posters to reflect the history of the town. The aim is to make children aware of how the town has changed over the centuries. The results will be shown in the community center. Then the other workshop is on toy making, and that's for adults only. Oh. why is that? Because participants . will be making toys out of wood. They'll be a lot of sharp tools around, though there won't be . much work. IT makes sense to keep children . away from IT. exactly. 听下面的录音，回答第十七至第二十小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。Let me tell you all about an amazing survival weekend trip with my class. When the bus picked us up from the school gate at six in the morning, IT was raining heavily, which wasn't great. However, IT hadn't rained in the forest. That was important because we needed dry places for our first survival activity, building shelters. There were three leaders, each responsible for ten students. After we were divided into three groups, we started collecting broken tree branches and leaves to build our shelters. Then we ate a light breakfast we had prepared at home. After breakfast, we learned how to build a fire safely for lunch. We had hot dogs and potatoes cooked over the fire lunch. We put out the fire and got ready to look for food in the forest. Our leaders showed us which foods were safe. We returned late in the afternoon. Each group made their own cm fire and learned to cook soup for supper over the fire with the things we had collected. IT was delicious. We all enjoy the trip. Let me tell you all about an amazing survival weekend trip with my class when the bus picked us up from the school gate at six in the morning, IT was raining heavily, which wasn't great. However, IT hadn't rained in the forest. That was important because we needed dry places for our first survival activity, building shelters. There were three leaders, each responsible for ten students. After we were divided into three groups, we started collecting broken tree branches and leaves to build our shelters. Then we ate a light breakfast we had prepared at home. After breakfast, we learned how to build a fire safely. For lunch, we had hot dogs and potatoes cooked over the fire. After lunch, we put out the fire and got ready to look for food in the forest. Our leaders showed us which foods were safe. We returned late in the afternoon. Each group made their own camp fire and learned to cook soup for supper over the fire with the things we had collected. IT was delicious. We all enjoy the trip. 第二节到此结束，现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。