精品解析：2026届河北保定市莲池区保定市第一中学高三下学期考前模拟测试英语试题

绝密★启用前 英语 满分150分，考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1. 本试卷由四个部分组成，其中，第一、二部分和第三部分的第一节为选择题，第三部分的第二节和第四部分为非选择题。 2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 3. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 4.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5 小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. What is the man doing this year? A. Teaching at school. B. Studying abroad. C. Traveling around the world. 2. When will the speakers go to the beach? A. On Saturday morning. B. On Saturday afternoon. C. On Sunday afternoon. 3. What will the man probably do? A. Attend a meeting. B. Wait in the office. C. Make a phone call. 4. Where is the supermarket? A. On Green Street. B. Opposite a flower store. C. Beside a post office. 5. What is the conversation mainly about? A. Preparing for a picnic. B. Cooking dinner at home. C. Beautiful scenery by the lake. 第二节(共15 小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面 5段录音。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers? A. Doctor and patient. B. Boss and secretary. C. Husband and wife. 7. What does the man advise the woman to do? A. Take a hot shower. B. Do some relaxing exercises. C. Have some warm water with honey. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Why will the man go to Rwanda? A. To visit a friend. B. To go sightseeing. C. To go on a business trip. 9. How will the man probably get to the national park? A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By car. 10. What mainly prevents the woman from travelling abroad? A. Her income. B. Her busy schedule. C. Her physical condition. 听第8段材料，回答第11 至13题。 11. How do the speakers feel about the Toy Fair? A. Bored. B. Confused. C. Enthusiastic. 12. What kind of toys is the man most interested in? A. Stuffed animals. B. Robot toys. C. Magic sets. 3. What will the woman probably do first? A. Eat something. B. Go to the restroom. C. Buy a toy. 听第9段材料，回答第14 至16题。 14. What is the main problem the speakers are discussing? A. The room is too crowded. b They have too much work to finish. C. The strong light is causing discomfort. 15. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. In a classroom. C. In a library. 16. What does the woman suggest they do first? A. Move their desks to another area. B. Turn to the manager for a solution. C. Ski p the meeting and leave early. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What can we learn about Germany's current workforce problem? A. Young Germans prefer working abroad. B. Foreign workers are not welcome anymore. C. Too few young people are entering the workforce. 18. How many foreign workers does Germany need to attract each year? A. 20,000. B. 90,000. C. 288,000. 19. Why does Germany look to India for help? A. India has the world's largest population. B. India has many young people ready to work. C. Indian workers are professionals in car making. 20. What does Aditi Banerjee's words suggest? A. India has more workers than jobs. B. Young Indians are well-educated. C. Germany should train its own workers. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Highland Cow Art Highland cow art has become increasingly popular for its unique combination of rural charm and artistic variety. Artists such as Mark Gemmell, Domonique Brown, and Steven Brown create lively images of these famous Scottish animals through different styles — some realistic, some abstract, and some playful. Their works often show Scotland’s natural scenery and cultural traditions, making each painting a celebration of the region’s beauty. When choosing highland cow art for your home, consider the size and colors of the piece to ensure it fits well with your room. Whether you like detailed realism or striking abstraction, there is a style for everyone, adding special character to any space. Styles and Techniques Highland cow art covers a wide range of styles, from lifelike paintings to creative abstract works. Realistic techniques focus on careful details to show the texture (纹理) and personality of the cattle, while abstract methods use bright colors and imaginative shapes to create emotional effects. This variety not only shows the artists’ skill but also meets different personal tastes. Realistic Painting Approaches Creating lifelike paintings of highland cows requires excellent skills in layering (分层), blending (混合), and careful brushwork to truly capture their textures and expressions. Photorealism, one approach to realistic art, involves copying the animals with extreme precision, using special brush techniques to produce natural-looking textures and depth. To achieve this level of realism, artists must: first, carefully observe the animal’s body structure, colors, and proportions to ensure accuracy; second, apply multiple layers of paint to capture the complex details of fur and expressions; third, smoothly mix colors to create natural transitions and realistic shading. 1. What should be considered when choosing highland cow art for home decoration? A. The artist’s reputation and fame. B. The size and colors of the artwork. C. The historical value of the painting. D. The emotional effects of abstract styles. 2. What do realistic techniques in highland cow art emphasize? A. The emotional effects of the cattle. B. The imaginative shapes of the cattle. C. The texture and personality of the cattle. D. The bright colors of the cattle. 3. What is the first step in creating a photorealistic painting of highland cows? A. Studying the animal’s body structure closely. B. Mixing colors smoothly to create natural shading. C. Applying many layers of paint to capture details. D. Using special brushes to produce depth and texture. B Jill Mather’s retirement didn’t unfold as she had imagined. After spending decades working long hours in the restaurant business, she had looked forward to traveling and relaxing. However, due to a health condition, she couldn’t take long trips. Experiencing a sense of restlessness from the health restrictions, she decided to start taking long daily walks in her San Fernando neighborhood. During her walks, she was saddened to see litter everywhere — cans, bottles, and other trash lying on the streets. Thinking, “As long as I’m out here anyway, I might as well do something about the trash I see,” she began bringing plastic bags to pick up the waste while she walked. Neighbors noticed her efforts and cheered her on. Some neighbors proposed setting up a donation box in the local store to raise funds for her cleaning work, but Jill declined. A few days later, she posted an invitation on a local community app: “I walk and pick up trash every morning. Join me at the coffee shop at 8 AM if you’re interested.” To her surprise, a dozen people showed up the first time. Together, they cleaned a nearby park and then enjoyed coffee together. Everyone asked eagerly when they would do it again. From that day on, Jill and a shifting group of volunteers met each morning to walk and clean. She named the group Volunteers Cleaning Communities. They collected recyclable items from streets, parks, and along a local highway, using the money earned to buy supplies like strong bags and safety vests (背心). As more people heard about the group, it continued to grow. Soon, over 100 people were taking part at least once a week. Besides cleaning, Jill organized regular social events, such as game nights and birthday parties. Strong friendships formed. “In today’s busy world, it’s difficult to meet people who truly understand you,” said Emilie Koster, a member volunteer. “They are like family to me. Doing good feels easier when you’re with people who share your values.” In six years, the volunteers have cleaned up nearly 750,000 pounds of trash — and that doesn’t include larger items they’ve set aside for the city. “We get exercise, make our community cleaner, and build lasting friendships,” Jill says proudly. “It’s a success in every way.” 4. Why did Jill Mather start taking long daily walks in her neighborhood? A. To prepare for a walking race. B. To relieve uneasiness caused by health issues. C. To seek a part-time job locally. D. To investigate the environmental conditions. 5. How did the group Volunteers Cleaning Communities fund its supplies? A. By collecting donations from local communities. B. By charging participants membership fees. C. By selling recyclable items they picked up. D. By hosting meaningful social events. 6. What do Emilie Koster’s words imply in paragraph 5? A. Modern life makes true friendship hard to find. B. Group activities guarantee lasting relationships. C. Volunteering is an effective way to find true friends. D. Shared values facilitate meaningful social bonding. 7. Which of the following best describes Jill Mather? A. Caring and inspirational. B. Creative and demanding. C. Humorous and adventurous. D. Determined and competitive. C Health enthusiasts are no strangers to fitness apps that help them count calories, track steps, monitor heart rate, and more. While their main aim is to encourage people to stay fit by setting targets for workout time, sleep duration, and healthy eating, researchers warn that many of these apps aren’t equipped with “evidence-based or theory-based” approaches to support these healthy changes and can end up setting goals that are “difficult to achieve.” Researchers at University College London (UCL) found that fitness apps can make people feel demotivated to exercise. Paulina Bondaronnek UCL said, “Fitness apps remain some of the most profitable and widely downloaded health tools globally. While they can benefit health, there’s been far less attention to their potential downsides. When health is reduced to calorie counts and step goals, it can leave people feeling ashamed and disconnected from what truly drives lasting wellbeing.” In a study published in the British Journal of Health Psychology, the researchers analyzed 58,881 Xposts using artificial intelligence, investigating the negative impact of the five most profitable commercial fitness apps in March 2022, such as MyFitnessPal: Calorie Counter, Strava, Weight Watchers,Workouts by Muscle Booster, and Fitness Coach & Diet: FitCoach. Some of the negative consequences included stress from quantifying diet and physical activity and the setting of goals that were at times unfeasible and overly simplified by algorithms (算法). Five main themes emerged, showing that calorie tracking, strict goals, and constant errors often led to depression and guilt. Some users felt depressed and stressed by these apps and reported feelings of shame and disappointment, leading them to quit the apps or give up healthy behaviors. It was also noted that algorithms do not fully recognize individual differences or understand real-life complexities. Problems like information not matching across devices, inaccurate calorie counts, or inconsistent data led to stress, anxiety and lack of motivation. Several users, however, also noted that health was a personal responsibility and that the apps couldn't be held responsible for eating disorders. Rather, they can be used in a healthy way. The researchers concluded: “The current study highlights the need for better evaluation of commercial fitness apps, as well as more user-centred and psychologically informed app design that prioritizes well-being and inner motivation over rigid, quantitative (量化的) goals — and, indeed, profit.” 8. What is Paulina Bondaronnek’s attitude towards the current fitness apps? A. Satisfied. B. Dismissive. C. Neutral. D. Critical. 9. What does the underlined word “unfeasible” in paragraph 4 probably mean? A. Unrealistic. B. Unnecessary. C. Unchangeable. D. Unavoidable. 10. Which of the following is a negative impact of fitness apps mentioned in the text? A. They force users to change their eating habits. B. They lead to users’ depression and loss of motivation. C. They cannot help users track their daily steps accurately. D. They make users pay much attention to their appearance. 11. What does the author suggest by quoting the researchers’ conclusion? A. Simplify fitness goals. B. Value health over making money. C. Update algorithms to match devices. D. Blame apps, not users themselves. D A study published in Animal Behavior reports that bull sharks (牛鲨) have friendship dynamics similar to human social groups. “Contrary to commonly held perceptions of sharks, our study shows they have relatively rich and complex social lives,” said the study author and University of Exeter behavioral ecologist Darren Croft. Sharks were historically assumed to be loners. It’s now known that they hang out in groups, but gathering together doesn't necessarily mean socializing. They could just be taking advantage of safety in numbers. The researchers used six years of observational data of 184 individually recognizable bull sharks at the Shark Reef Marine Reserve in Fiji to determine whether they formed social bonds, defined as “joining and remaining in a group on the basis of social attraction to other individuals.” When sharks were seen swimming within one body length of each other, it was counted as an “association.” When they also interacted by parallel (平行) swimming; leading or following; or joining or turning back from another shark, it was counted as “social interactions”. Scientists identified males and females by checking for male reproductive organs. Tools were used to estimate size, while age was calculated from existing data. According to the authors, the sharks formed groups not just because they were in the same place at the same time, but because they actively chose to interact with certain individuals. The results revealed that sex and age influenced how the sharks associated with each other. Both males and females preferred to socialize with females. Adult sharks were responsible for most of the social behavior, and they preferentially associated with other adults. Subadults (亚成体) were much less social within their age class and preferred hanging around with adults. “As humans, we build a range of social relationships — from loose ties to our best friends, but we also actively avoid certain people — and these bull sharks are doing similar things,” explained a lead author Natasha D. Marosi. As for the benefits of bull shark friendships, they could be sharing knowledge, gaining protection from bigger individuals, or looking for future mates. 12. How does Darren Croft view the traditional understanding of sharks? A. It is based on solid and sufficient evidence. B. It correctly identifies them as lonely hunters. C. It is largely inaccurate on their social behavior. D. It overestimates the complexity of their social lives. 13. According to paragraph 3, which behavior is counted as a “social interaction”? A. Swimming in close physical distance. B. Joining a group based on time and space overlap. C. Gathering together to find resources in large groups. D. Engaging in parallel swimming or leading and following. 14. What do the results of the study suggest? A. Bull sharks’ social behavior is purposeful. B. Subadult bull sharks are more social than adults. C. Male bull sharks prefer to socialize with males. D. Age affects bull shark social bonds most. 15. What is mainly talked about in paragraph 5? A. How sharks swim in groups. B. What affects shark social behavior. C. How researchers define social bonds. D. Why female sharks are more popular. 第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Imagine a backyard climbing wall where kids climb, play, and build confidence daily. It boosts strength, focus, and creativity. Ready to transform your backyard? Let’s dive in! Picking the right wall is important for safety and fun. ____16____ Wood is common and strong;plastic is lightweight for younger kids; metal adds durability (耐用性) but may be heavier. Choose weather-resistant and smooth ones. Besides, size depends on available space and children’s skill. Small walls (4-6 feet) work for beginners, while medium walls (6-8 feet) suit older kids. Proper mounting ensures safety and durability. Choose a flat, shaded spot away from pools or hard surfaces, with room for padding (垫子).____17____ DIY saves money but needs skills and time;hiring a specialist costs more but guarantees quality. Anyway, secure it firmly with concrete footings or heavy base plates and ensure all fasteners are tight. ____18____ Colorful holds and themes — like stars and animals — invite imagination. You can also add climbing challenges like balance beams (平衡木), angled walls. Including climbing games likeHold Tag or Color Match makes climbing a joyful social activity. Safety must be the top priority. Soft landing surfaces like rubber padding reduce injury risk. Handholds and footholds must be tightly fixed with rounded edges. Regular inspections are also key: check for unfastened holds, splits and test the wall’s stability.____19____ A backyard climbing wall creates happy memories and healthy habits. It brings kids closer to nature and helps them grow strong and confident.____20____ Give your kids a chance to explore and play outdoors — it’s a great way to support their growth. A. Materials affect the wall’s strength and safety. B. Adding fun features makes playtime more exciting. C. Replace any loose or damaged parts without delay. D. Safety checks should be done once a year to save your time. E. You can either build the wall yourself or hire a professional. F. They learn balance, focus, and problem-solving while having fun. G. Metal walls are the best choice because they never need maintenance. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Seven-year-old Ben O’ Reilly, a first grader at Campton Elementary School in New Hampshire, is deaf and has some special needs. His aide (护理员), Cheryl Ulicny, said he ____21____ to connect with those around him.“He doesn’t have ____22____ with his peers (同学) or teachers, for that matter,” Ulicny explained. “He ____23____ as if he is extremely lonely.” Part of the ____24____ came from the setting itself. New Hampshire is one of the few states without a ____25____ school for deaf students, and Ben is the only deaf child in his entire district. Apart from his aide, he could hardly communicate with anyone around him. Then something remarkable began to ____26____. A few classmates started learning simple signs so they could ____27____ with Ben. Soon, the entire class joined in. Students ____28____ to learning sign language together, and the effort ____29____ throughout the school. Teachers in other grades began taking classes and using sign language regularly, even when Ben was not present. What started as a small friendly act turned into a school-wide ____30____. When Ben’s mother Etta learned the whole school had ____31____ and cared for her son, she was filled with ____32____.“It’s incredible,” Etta said. “I could ____33____ breathe. It was just so touching.” Today, almost every student and staff member has ____34____ the fundamentals of sign language. More significantly, the school has created a warm and ____35____ environment where Ben feels valued, accepted and understood. 21. A. managed B. struggled C. worked D. decided 22. A. differences B. spirits C. relationships D. quarrels 23. A. behaves B. pretends C. waits D. responds 24. A. worry B. secret C. choice D. challenge 25. A. dedicated B. strict C. spacious D. harmonious 26. A. happen B. exist C. change D. leave 27. A. compete B. debate C. argue D. interact 28. A. objected B. committed C. submitted D. admitted 29. A. remained B. appeared C. spread D. fell 30. A. activity B. game C. meeting D. lecture 31. A. invited B. accepted C. received D. admired 32. A. anxiety B. determination C. thought D. emotion 33. A. finally B. nearly C. barely D. rarely 34. A. put up B. picked up C. set up D. gave up 35. A. peaceful B. stable C. equal D. inclusive 第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Pasang Dekyi is a young guardian of Tibetan embroidery (刺绣). She has dedicated ____36____ (she) to sustaining this 600-year-old heritage by integrating tradition into modern life. As ____37____ unique art form, Tibetan embroidery combines folk crafts with painting techniques. Unlike traditional painted thangkas, it creates three-dimensional effects through cutting, piecing, and stacking (层叠) silk and other fabrics. “Every Tibetan embroidery piece has a soul, ____38____ core lies in cutting, stacking, and attaching. Core craftsmanship must never be sacrificed, even for ____39____ (innovate),” PasangDekyi emphasizes. Her connection to the craft began long before she ____40____ (conscious) chose it. Raised in a craft family, she absorbed its rhythms naturally. While at university, she joined the family workshop and decided to devote her life to Tibetan embroidery. She has explored ways to make the art ____41____ (approach) to more people. Her creations range from traditional pieces ____42____ contemporary items, with popular cultural images like Mickey Mouse ____43____ (feature) in some of them.“This is not about breaking tradition, but continuing it in a language appreciated by people today,” she explains. Through the combined efforts of craftsmen like Pasang Dekyi, Tibetan embroidery thangka ____44____ (add) to the national intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) list in 2021. PasangDekyi remains committed to her mission, _____45_____ (ensure) the ancient art evolves while staying rooted in its original spirit. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15 分) 46. 假定你是李华，你的英国朋友 David计划暑期来中国旅游，来信询问该选择传统观光旅游还是生态旅游。请你给他回信，内容包括： 1.你的观点及理由； 2.给出建议。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear David, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 The December air bit through the cracks (缝隙) in Sarah’s windows. Snow had been falling since morning, blanketing the quiet Ohio street in white. Inside, the small apartment felt even colder. Sarah had just lost her job at the diner downtown. Her three-month-old daughter, Lily, had been crying for hours. The last can of formula (奶粉) sat nearly empty on the kitchen table. On that day, she clearly remembered she hadn’t ordered anything, but there it was on her porch (门廊) — a large cardboard box, wrapped in brown shipping tape. The label bore a name she didn’t recognize. She knew she should have returned it, but the box said, “Baby Supplies.” She stared at the box for a long time. With Lily’s crying growing weaker, she made the final decision she herself hated. She opened it. Inside were three large containers of formula, two winter coats, and a soft blue blanket. The receipt showed the total: three hundred dollars. Looking at the supplies, she silently promised that she would definitely pay them back in the future. In the days that followed, Sarah fed Lily with the formula and wrapped her in the soft blue blanket. The baby stopped crying. She slept peacefully on the bed. But Sarah felt restless. Every time she poured the formula into a bottle, guilt washed over her. A week later, a letter arrived. It was handwritten on yellowed paper. “Dear whoever received this package,” it read. “My name is Margaret. I saved to buy those things for my grandson. I don’t know who signed for the package, but please send back whatever you can. Even just the formula. But if you’re a struggling mother with little babies, please tell me.” Holding the letter, Sarah sat crying on the floor. She had already used most of it. The formula was half gone. When Sarah emptied her purse, she found only twenty dollars and some loose change. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 With trembling hands, Sarah picked up a pen and began to write back to Margaret. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Soon another package from Margaret arrived, bringing what Sarah needed. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 绝密★启用前 英语 满分150分，考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1. 本试卷由四个部分组成，其中，第一、二部分和第三部分的第一节为选择题，第三部分的第二节和第四部分为非选择题。 2.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 3. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 4.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5 小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. What is the man doing this year? A. Teaching at school. B. Studying abroad. C. Traveling around the world. 2. When will the speakers go to the beach? A. On Saturday morning. B. On Saturday afternoon. C. On Sunday afternoon. 3. What will the man probably do? A. Attend a meeting. B. Wait in the office. C. Make a phone call. 4. Where is the supermarket? A. On Green Street. B. Opposite a flower store. C. Beside a post office. 5. What is the conversation mainly about? A. Preparing for a picnic. B. Cooking dinner at home. C. Beautiful scenery by the lake. 第二节(共15 小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面 5段录音。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the probable relationship between the two speakers? A. Doctor and patient. B. Boss and secretary. C. Husband and wife. 7. What does the man advise the woman to do? A. Take a hot shower. B. Do some relaxing exercises. C. Have some warm water with honey. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. Why will the man go to Rwanda? A. To visit a friend. B. To go sightseeing. C. To go on a business trip. 9. How will the man probably get to the national park? A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By car. 10. What mainly prevents the woman from travelling abroad? A. Her income. B. Her busy schedule. C. Her physical condition. 听第8段材料，回答第11 至13题。 11. How do the speakers feel about the Toy Fair? A. Bored. B. Confused. C. Enthusiastic. 12. What kind of toys is the man most interested in? A. Stuffed animals. B. Robot toys. C. Magic sets. 3. What will the woman probably do first? A. Eat something. B. Go to the restroom. C. Buy a toy. 听第9段材料，回答第14 至16题。 14. What is the main problem the speakers are discussing? A. The room is too crowded. b They have too much work to finish. C. The strong light is causing discomfort. 15. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. In a classroom. C. In a library. 16. What does the woman suggest they do first? A. Move their desks to another area. B. Turn to the manager for a solution. C. Ski p the meeting and leave early. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What can we learn about Germany's current workforce problem? A. Young Germans prefer working abroad. B. Foreign workers are not welcome anymore. C. Too few young people are entering the workforce. 18. How many foreign workers does Germany need to attract each year? A. 20,000. B. 90,000. C. 288,000. 19. Why does Germany look to India for help? A. India has the world's largest population. B. India has many young people ready to work. C. Indian workers are professionals in car making. 20. What does Aditi Banerjee's words suggest? A. India has more workers than jobs. B. Young Indians are well-educated. C. Germany should train its own workers. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Highland Cow Art Highland cow art has become increasingly popular for its unique combination of rural charm and artistic variety. Artists such as Mark Gemmell, Domonique Brown, and Steven Brown create lively images of these famous Scottish animals through different styles — some realistic, some abstract, and some playful. Their works often show Scotland’s natural scenery and cultural traditions, making each painting a celebration of the region’s beauty. When choosing highland cow art for your home, consider the size and colors of the piece to ensure it fits well with your room. Whether you like detailed realism or striking abstraction, there is a style for everyone, adding special character to any space. Styles and Techniques Highland cow art covers a wide range of styles, from lifelike paintings to creative abstract works. Realistic techniques focus on careful details to show the texture (纹理) and personality of the cattle, while abstract methods use bright colors and imaginative shapes to create emotional effects. This variety not only shows the artists’ skill but also meets different personal tastes. Realistic Painting Approaches Creating lifelike paintings of highland cows requires excellent skills in layering (分层), blending (混合), and careful brushwork to truly capture their textures and expressions. Photorealism, one approach to realistic art, involves copying the animals with extreme precision, using special brush techniques to produce natural-looking textures and depth. To achieve this level of realism, artists must: first, carefully observe the animal’s body structure, colors, and proportions to ensure accuracy; second, apply multiple layers of paint to capture the complex details of fur and expressions; third, smoothly mix colors to create natural transitions and realistic shading. 1. What should be considered when choosing highland cow art for home decoration? A. The artist’s reputation and fame. B. The size and colors of the artwork. C. The historical value of the painting. D. The emotional effects of abstract styles. 2. What do realistic techniques in highland cow art emphasize? A. The emotional effects of the cattle. B. The imaginative shapes of the cattle. C. The texture and personality of the cattle. D. The bright colors of the cattle. 3. What is the first step in creating a photorealistic painting of highland cows? A. Studying the animal’s body structure closely. B. Mixing colors smoothly to create natural shading. C. Applying many layers of paint to capture details. D. Using special brushes to produce depth and texture. 【答案】1. B 2. C 3. A 【解析】 【导语】高地牛艺术兼具乡村魅力与多样风格，含写实和抽象两类。写实注重细节纹理，超写实创作需三步观察上色，可按需选风格装饰家居。 【1题详解】 细节理解题。根据第一段“When choosing highland cow art for your home, consider the size and colors of the piece to ensure it fits well with your room.(在为你的家挑选高地牛图案的装饰品时，请考虑其尺寸和颜色，以确保它能与您的房间风格相匹配)”可知，在选择用于家庭装饰的高地牛艺术品时，应该考虑该艺术品的尺寸和颜色。 【2题详解】 细节理解题。根据第二段“Realistic techniques focus on careful details to show the texture (纹理) and personality of the cattle, while abstract methods use bright colors and imaginative shapes to create emotional effects.(写实手法注重细致入微的描绘，以展现牛的纹理和个性；而抽象手法则运用鲜艳的色彩和富有想象力的形状来营造情感效果)”可知，在高地牛的绘画艺术中，现实主义手法强调的是牛的纹理和个性。 【3题详解】 细节理解题。根据第三段“To achieve this level of realism, artists must: first, carefully observe the animal’s body structure, colors, and proportions to ensure accuracy; second, apply multiple layers of paint to capture the complex details of fur and expressions; third, smoothly mix colors to create natural transitions and realistic shading.(要达到这种高度的写实效果，艺术家们必须：首先，仔细观察动物的身体结构、颜色和比例，以确保准确无误；其次，运用多层颜料来描绘毛发和表情的复杂细节；第三，将颜色均匀混合，以实现自然的过渡和逼真的阴影效果)”可知，绘制一幅逼真的高地牛画像的第一步是仔细研究这种动物的身体结构。 B Jill Mather’s retirement didn’t unfold as she had imagined. After spending decades working long hours in the restaurant business, she had looked forward to traveling and relaxing. However, due to a health condition, she couldn’t take long trips. Experiencing a sense of restlessness from the health restrictions, she decided to start taking long daily walks in her San Fernando neighborhood. During her walks, she was saddened to see litter everywhere — cans, bottles, and other trash lying on the streets. Thinking, “As long as I’m out here anyway, I might as well do something about the trash I see,” she began bringing plastic bags to pick up the waste while she walked. Neighbors noticed her efforts and cheered her on. Some neighbors proposed setting up a donation box in the local store to raise funds for her cleaning work, but Jill declined. A few days later, she posted an invitation on a local community app: “I walk and pick up trash every morning. Join me at the coffee shop at 8 AM if you’re interested.” To her surprise, a dozen people showed up the first time. Together, they cleaned a nearby park and then enjoyed coffee together. Everyone asked eagerly when they would do it again. From that day on, Jill and a shifting group of volunteers met each morning to walk and clean. She named the group Volunteers Cleaning Communities. They collected recyclable items from streets, parks, and along a local highway, using the money earned to buy supplies like strong bags and safety vests (背心). As more people heard about the group, it continued to grow. Soon, over 100 people were taking part at least once a week. Besides cleaning, Jill organized regular social events, such as game nights and birthday parties. Strong friendships formed. “In today’s busy world, it’s difficult to meet people who truly understand you,” said Emilie Koster, a member volunteer. “They are like family to me. Doing good feels easier when you’re with people who share your values.” In six years, the volunteers have cleaned up nearly 750,000 pounds of trash — and that doesn’t include larger items they’ve set aside for the city. “We get exercise, make our community cleaner, and build lasting friendships,” Jill says proudly. “It’s a success in every way.” 4. Why did Jill Mather start taking long daily walks in her neighborhood? A. To prepare for a walking race. B. To relieve uneasiness caused by health issues. C. To seek a part-time job locally. D. To investigate the environmental conditions. 5. How did the group Volunteers Cleaning Communities fund its supplies? A. By collecting donations from local communities. B. By charging participants membership fees. C. By selling recyclable items they picked up. D. By hosting meaningful social events. 6. What do Emilie Koster’s words imply in paragraph 5? A. Modern life makes true friendship hard to find. B. Group activities guarantee lasting relationships. C. Volunteering is an effective way to find true friends. D. Shared values facilitate meaningful social bonding. 7. Which of the following best describes Jill Mather? A. Caring and inspirational. B. Creative and demanding. C. Humorous and adventurous. D. Determined and competitive. 【答案】4. B 5. C 6. D 7. A 【解析】 【导语】文章主要讲述了Jill Mather退休后因健康问题开始在社区捡垃圾，并带动越来越多人加入的故事。 【4题详解】 细节理解题。根据第一段中“However, due to a health condition, she couldn’t take long trips. Experiencing a sense of restlessness from the health restrictions, she decided to start taking long daily walks in her San Fernando neighborhood.(然而，由于健康问题，她无法长途旅行。由于健康限制，她感到不安，于是决定开始在圣费尔南多社区每天长时间散步)”可知，吉尔·马瑟开始在社区里每天长时间散步是为了缓解健康问题引起的不安。 【5题详解】 细节理解题。根据第四段中“They collected recyclable items from streets, parks, and along a local highway, using the money earned to buy supplies like strong bags and safety vests (背心).(他们从街道、公园和当地公路沿线收集可回收物品，用赚来的钱购买结实的袋子和安全背心等用品)”可知，社区清洁志愿者小组通过出售他们捡到的可回收物品来筹集资金购买用品。 【6题详解】 推理判断题。根据第五段中Emilie Koster的话“In today’s busy world, it’s difficult to meet people who truly understand you(在当今这个忙碌的世界里，很难遇到真正理解你的人)”以及“Doing good feels easier when you’re with people who share your values.(当你和与你价值观相同的人在一起时，做好事会更容易)”可知，Emilie Koster的话暗示了共同价值观有助于建立有意义的社会联系。 【7题详解】 推理判断题。 根据文章内容，Jill Mather退休后因健康问题无法旅行，转而开始在社区捡垃圾，并带动越来越多的人加入，成立了社区清洁志愿者小组，还组织社交活动，增进了人与人之间的友谊，由此可推断出Jill Mather是一个有爱心且鼓舞人心的人。 C Health enthusiasts are no strangers to fitness apps that help them count calories, track steps, monitor heart rate, and more. While their main aim is to encourage people to stay fit by setting targets for workout time, sleep duration, and healthy eating, researchers warn that many of these apps aren’t equipped with “evidence-based or theory-based” approaches to support these healthy changes and can end up setting goals that are “difficult to achieve.” Researchers at University College London (UCL) found that fitness apps can make people feel demotivated to exercise. Paulina Bondaronnek UCL said, “Fitness apps remain some of the most profitable and widely downloaded health tools globally. While they can benefit health, there’s been far less attention to their potential downsides. When health is reduced to calorie counts and step goals, it can leave people feeling ashamed and disconnected from what truly drives lasting wellbeing.” In a study published in the British Journal of Health Psychology, the researchers analyzed 58,881 Xposts using artificial intelligence, investigating the negative impact of the five most profitable commercial fitness apps in March 2022, such as MyFitnessPal: Calorie Counter, Strava, Weight Watchers,Workouts by Muscle Booster, and Fitness Coach & Diet: FitCoach. Some of the negative consequences included stress from quantifying diet and physical activity and the setting of goals that were at times unfeasible and overly simplified by algorithms (算法). Five main themes emerged, showing that calorie tracking, strict goals, and constant errors often led to depression and guilt. Some users felt depressed and stressed by these apps and reported feelings of shame and disappointment, leading them to quit the apps or give up healthy behaviors. It was also noted that algorithms do not fully recognize individual differences or understand real-life complexities. Problems like information not matching across devices, inaccurate calorie counts, or inconsistent data led to stress, anxiety and lack of motivation. Several users, however, also noted that health was a personal responsibility and that the apps couldn't be held responsible for eating disorders. Rather, they can be used in a healthy way. The researchers concluded: “The current study highlights the need for better evaluation of commercial fitness apps, as well as more user-centred and psychologically informed app design that prioritizes well-being and inner motivation over rigid, quantitative (量化的) goals — and, indeed, profit.” 8. What is Paulina Bondaronnek’s attitude towards the current fitness apps? A. Satisfied. B. Dismissive. C. Neutral. D. Critical. 9. What does the underlined word “unfeasible” in paragraph 4 probably mean? A. Unrealistic. B. Unnecessary. C. Unchangeable. D. Unavoidable. 10. Which of the following is a negative impact of fitness apps mentioned in the text? A. They force users to change their eating habits. B. They lead to users’ depression and loss of motivation. C. They cannot help users track their daily steps accurately. D. They make users pay much attention to their appearance. 11. What does the author suggest by quoting the researchers’ conclusion? A. Simplify fitness goals. B. Value health over making money. C. Update algorithms to match devices. D. Blame apps, not users themselves. 【答案】8. D 9. A 10. B 11. B 【解析】 【导语】文章主要介绍了研究发现健身应用存在弊端，可能给用户带来压力并削弱运动动力。 【8题详解】 推理判断题。根据第二段中Paulina Bondaronnek所说“While they can benefit health,  there’s been far less attention to their potential downsides. When health is reduced to calorie counts and step goals, it can leave people feeling ashamed and disconnected from what truly drives lasting wellbeing. (虽然它们可以有益于健康，但人们对它们潜在的负面影响的关注要少得多。当健康被简化为卡路里计数和步数目标时，人们会感到羞愧，并与真正推动持久健康的东西脱节。)”可知，Paulina Bondaronnek对当前健身App持批评态度。 【9题详解】 词句猜测题。​根据第四段中“Some of the negative consequences included stress from quantifying diet and physical activity and the setting of goals that were at times unfeasible and overly simplified by algorithms (算法). (一些负面后果包括量化饮食和体育活动带来的压力，以及有时unfeasible且被算法过度简化的目标设定。)”以及后文提到的“Five main themes emerged, showing that calorie tracking, strict goals, and constant errors often led to depression and guilt. (出现了五个主要主题，表明卡路里追踪、严格的目标和不断的错误往往会导致抑郁和内疚。)”可知，算法设定的目标不切实际且过于简化，导致用户抑郁和内疚。所以该单词的意思为“不现实的”。 【10题详解】 细节理解题。​根据第四段中“Some users felt depressed and stressed by these apps and reported feelings of shame and disappointment, leading them to quit the apps or give up healthy behaviors. (一些用户因这些应用感到沮丧和压力，并报告了羞耻感和失望感，导致他们放弃应用或放弃健康行为。)”可知，健身应用的负面影响是导致用户抑郁和失去动力。 【11题详解】 推理判断题。根据最后一段“The researchers concluded: “The current study highlights the need for better evaluation of commercial fitness apps, as well as more user-centred and   psychologically informed app design that prioritizes well-being and inner motivation over rigid, quantitative (量化的) goals — and, indeed, profit.” (研究人员得出结论：“目前的研究强调了对商业健身应用程序进行更好评估的必要性，以及更以用户为中心和心理知情的应用程序设计，这些设计优先考虑幸福感和内在动机，而不是僵化的定量目标，甚至是利润。”)”可知，作者通过引用结论暗示应重视健康而非盈利。 D A study published in Animal Behavior reports that bull sharks (牛鲨) have friendship dynamics similar to human social groups. “Contrary to commonly held perceptions of sharks, our study shows they have relatively rich and complex social lives,” said the study author and University of Exeter behavioral ecologist Darren Croft. Sharks were historically assumed to be loners. It’s now known that they hang out in groups, but gathering together doesn't necessarily mean socializing. They could just be taking advantage of safety in numbers. The researchers used six years of observational data of 184 individually recognizable bull sharks at the Shark Reef Marine Reserve in Fiji to determine whether they formed social bonds, defined as “joining and remaining in a group on the basis of social attraction to other individuals.” When sharks were seen swimming within one body length of each other, it was counted as an “association.” When they also interacted by parallel (平行) swimming; leading or following; or joining or turning back from another shark, it was counted as “social interactions”. Scientists identified males and females by checking for male reproductive organs. Tools were used to estimate size, while age was calculated from existing data. According to the authors, the sharks formed groups not just because they were in the same place at the same time, but because they actively chose to interact with certain individuals. The results revealed that sex and age influenced how the sharks associated with each other. Both males and females preferred to socialize with females. Adult sharks were responsible for most of the social behavior, and they preferentially associated with other adults. Subadults (亚成体) were much less social within their age class and preferred hanging around with adults. “As humans, we build a range of social relationships — from loose ties to our best friends, but we also actively avoid certain people — and these bull sharks are doing similar things,” explained a lead author Natasha D. Marosi. As for the benefits of bull shark friendships, they could be sharing knowledge, gaining protection from bigger individuals, or looking for future mates. 12. How does Darren Croft view the traditional understanding of sharks? A. It is based on solid and sufficient evidence. B. It correctly identifies them as lonely hunters. C. It is largely inaccurate on their social behavior. D. It overestimates the complexity of their social lives. 13. According to paragraph 3, which behavior is counted as a “social interaction”? A. Swimming in close physical distance. B. Joining a group based on time and space overlap. C. Gathering together to find resources in large groups. D. Engaging in parallel swimming or leading and following. 14. What do the results of the study suggest? A. Bull sharks’ social behavior is purposeful. B. Subadult bull sharks are more social than adults. C. Male bull sharks prefer to socialize with males. D. Age affects bull shark social bonds most. 15. What is mainly talked about in paragraph 5? A. How sharks swim in groups. B. What affects shark social behavior. C. How researchers define social bonds. D. Why female sharks are more popular. 【答案】12. C 13. D 14. A 15. B 【解析】 【导语】文章主要讲述了一项研究发现牛鲨拥有类似人类的复杂社交关系和友谊。 【12题详解】 细节理解题。 根据第一段中““Contrary to commonly held perceptions of sharks,   our study shows they have relatively rich and complex social lives,” said the study author and University of Exeter behavioral ecologist Darren Croft. (埃克塞特大学行为生态学家Darren Croft说：“与人们对鲨鱼的普遍看法相反，我们的研究表明，它们的社会生活相对丰富而复杂。”)”可知，传统观点认为鲨鱼是独行侠，这一看法在社交行为方面是不准确的。 【13题详解】 细节理解题。 根据第三段中“When they also interacted by parallel (平行)   swimming; leading or following; or joining or turning back from another shark, it was counted as “social interactions”. (当它们通过平行游泳、领游或跟随、或者加入另一条鲨鱼或从其身边折返来互动时，这被算作“社交互动”。)”可知，平行游泳或领游跟随等行为被视为社交互动。 【14题详解】 推理判断题。​根据第四段中“According to the authors, the sharks formed groups not just because they were in the same place at the same time, but because they actively chose to interact with certain individuals. (据作者称，牛鲨成群结队不仅仅是因为它们在相同的时间和地点，而是因为它们主动选择与特定的个体互动。)”以及第五段中“The results revealed that sex and age influenced how the sharks associated with each other. (研究结果表明，性别和年龄会影响鲨鱼之间的互动方式。)”可知，牛鲨的社交行为是基于性别和年龄等因素的主动选择，具有目的性。 【15题详解】 主旨大意题。​ 根据第五段第一句“The results revealed that sex and age influenced how the sharks associated with each other. (结果显示，性别和年龄影响了鲨鱼之间的交往方式。)”以及后文的具体阐述可知，本段主要讨论了影响鲨鱼社交行为的因素。 第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Imagine a backyard climbing wall where kids climb, play, and build confidence daily. It boosts strength, focus, and creativity. Ready to transform your backyard? Let’s dive in! Picking the right wall is important for safety and fun. ____16____ Wood is common and strong;plastic is lightweight for younger kids; metal adds durability (耐用性) but may be heavier. Choose weather-resistant and smooth ones. Besides, size depends on available space and children’s skill. Small walls (4-6 feet) work for beginners, while medium walls (6-8 feet) suit older kids. Proper mounting ensures safety and durability. Choose a flat, shaded spot away from pools or hard surfaces, with room for padding (垫子).____17____ DIY saves money but needs skills and time;hiring a specialist costs more but guarantees quality. Anyway, secure it firmly with concrete footings or heavy base plates and ensure all fasteners are tight. ____18____ Colorful holds and themes — like stars and animals — invite imagination. You can also add climbing challenges like balance beams (平衡木), angled walls. Including climbing games likeHold Tag or Color Match makes climbing a joyful social activity. Safety must be the top priority. Soft landing surfaces like rubber padding reduce injury risk. Handholds and footholds must be tightly fixed with rounded edges. Regular inspections are also key: check for unfastened holds, splits and test the wall’s stability.____19____ A backyard climbing wall creates happy memories and healthy habits. It brings kids closer to nature and helps them grow strong and confident.____20____ Give your kids a chance to explore and play outdoors — it’s a great way to support their growth. A. Materials affect the wall’s strength and safety. B. Adding fun features makes playtime more exciting. C. Replace any loose or damaged parts without delay. D. Safety checks should be done once a year to save your time. E. You can either build the wall yourself or hire a professional. F. They learn balance, focus, and problem-solving while having fun. G. Metal walls are the best choice because they never need maintenance. 【答案】16. A 17. E 18. B 19. C 20. F 【解析】 【导语】文章主要介绍了如何在后院建造攀爬墙，包括选材、安装、趣味设计及安全注意事项。 【16题详解】 上文“Picking the right wall is important for safety and fun.(选择合适的墙对安全和乐趣很重要)”点明了选择合适墙面的重要性。下文“Wood is common and strong; plastic is lightweight for younger kids; metal adds durability (耐用性) but may be heavier.(木材常见且坚固；塑料对年幼的孩子来说很轻；金属增加了耐用性，但可能更重)”具体列举了不同材料及其特性。 空处承上启下，应引出“材料”这一话题。A项“材料影响墙体的强度和安全性。”符合语境，既承接了上文的“安全与乐趣”，又引出了下文对具体材料的讨论。 【17题详解】 下文“DIY saves money but needs skills and time; hiring a specialist costs more but guarantees quality.(自己动手能省钱但需要技能和时间；聘请专家花费更多但能保证质量)”明确对比了两种安装方式：自己动手和聘请专业人士。 空处应为这一对比的总起句。E项“你可以自己建造墙体，也可以聘请专业人士。”完美概括了下文的内容，与后文的“DIY”和“hiring a specialist”形成直接对应。 【18题详解】 下文“Colorful holds and themes — like stars and animals — invite   imagination. You can   also add climbing challenges like balance beams (平衡木),   angled walls. Including climbing games likeHold Tag or Color Match makes climbing a joyful social activity.(五颜六色的抓手和主题——比如星星和动物——激发了人们的想象力。您还可以添加攀爬挑战，如平衡木、斜墙。包括“保持标签”或“颜色匹配”等攀岩游戏，使攀岩成为一项愉快的社交活动)”列举了一系列增加趣味性的方法。 空处应为本段的主旨句，总述“增添趣味功能”。B项“增添趣味特征让玩耍时间更刺激。”准确概括了下文内容。 【19题详解】 上文“Regular inspections are also key: check for unfastened holds, splits and test the wall’s stability.(定期检查也很关键：检查松动的抓手、裂缝并测试墙体的稳定性)”强调了检查中发现问题的处理方式。 空处应承接上文，说明发现问题后该如何做。C项“立即更换任何松动或损坏的部件。”是对检查发现问题的合理应对措施。 【20题详解】 上文“It brings kids closer to nature and helps them grow strong and confident.(它让孩子们更接近自然，帮助他们变得强壮和自信)”说明了攀爬墙的好处。 下文“Give your kids a chance to explore and play outdoors — it’s a great way to support their growth.(给你的孩子一个探索和户外玩耍的机会——这是支持他们成长的好方法)”进一步呼吁行动。 空处应补充说明攀爬墙对孩子成长的其他具体益处。F项“他们在玩乐中学习平衡、专注和解决问题。”具体阐述了孩子们在攀爬中获得的能力。 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Seven-year-old Ben O’ Reilly, a first grader at Campton Elementary School in New Hampshire, is deaf and has some special needs. His aide (护理员), Cheryl Ulicny, said he ____21____ to connect with those around him.“He doesn’t have ____22____ with his peers (同学) or teachers, for that matter,” Ulicny explained. “He ____23____ as if he is extremely lonely.” Part of the ____24____ came from the setting itself. New Hampshire is one of the few states without a ____25____ school for deaf students, and Ben is the only deaf child in his entire district. Apart from his aide, he could hardly communicate with anyone around him. Then something remarkable began to ____26____. A few classmates started learning simple signs so they could ____27____ with Ben. Soon, the entire class joined in. Students ____28____ to learning sign language together, and the effort ____29____ throughout the school. Teachers in other grades began taking classes and using sign language regularly, even when Ben was not present. What started as a small friendly act turned into a school-wide ____30____. When Ben’s mother Etta learned the whole school had ____31____ and cared for her son, she was filled with ____32____.“It’s incredible,” Etta said. “I could ____33____ breathe. It was just so touching.” Today, almost every student and staff member has ____34____ the fundamentals of sign language. More significantly, the school has created a warm and ____35____ environment where Ben feels valued, accepted and understood. 21. A. managed B. struggled C. worked D. decided 22. A. differences B. spirits C. relationships D. quarrels 23. A. behaves B. pretends C. waits D. responds 24. A. worry B. secret C. choice D. challenge 25. A. dedicated B. strict C. spacious D. harmonious 26. A. happen B. exist C. change D. leave 27. A. compete B. debate C. argue D. interact 28. A. objected B. committed C. submitted D. admitted 29. A. remained B. appeared C. spread D. fell 30. A. activity B. game C. meeting D. lecture 31. A. invited B. accepted C. received D. admired 32. A. anxiety B. determination C. thought D. emotion 33. A. finally B. nearly C. barely D. rarely 34. A. put up B. picked up C. set up D. gave up 35. A. peaceful B. stable C. equal D. inclusive 【答案】21. B 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. B 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. D 【解析】 【导语】文章主要讲述了新罕布什尔州一所小学全体师生为聋哑学生Ben学习手语，营造温暖包容校园环境的感人故事。 【21题详解】 考查动词。句意：他的护理员Cheryl说他很难与周围的人建立联系。A. managed设法做到；B. struggled挣扎、费力；C. worked工作；D. decided决定。根据前文“Seven-year-old Ben O’ Reilly, a first grader at Campton Elementary School in New Hampshire, is deaf and has some special needs.”可知，Ben是个失聪的孩子，所以他与人交流很困难，struggle to do sth.意为“做某事很吃力”。 【22题详解】 考查名词。句意：他与同学或老师之间没有社交关系。A. differences差异；B. spirits精神；C. relationships关系；D. quarrels争吵。根据后文“as if he is extremely lonely”可知，他看起来很孤独，说明他与人没有社交关系。 【23题详解】 考查动词。句意：他的表现好像他极其孤独。A. behaves表现；B. pretends假装；C. waits等待；D. responds回应。根据前文“His aide(护理员), Cheryl Ulicny, said he ________ to connect with those around him.“He doesn’t have ________ with his peers(同学) or teachers, for that matter,” Ulicny explained”可知，Ben很少狠人交流，所以此处描述Ben的行为举止给人的感觉是孤独的。 【24题详解】 考查名词。句意：部分挑战来自环境本身。A. worry担忧；B. secret秘密；C. choice选择；D. challenge挑战。根据后文“New Hampshire is one of the few states without a ________ school for deaf students, and Ben is the only deaf child in his entire district.”可知，Ben无法交流，对他而言这是困难。 【25题详解】 考查形容词。句意：新罕布什尔州是少数几个没有聋哑学生专门学校的州之一。A. dedicated专门的；B. strict严格的；C. spacious宽敞的；D. harmonious和谐的。根据后文“and Ben is the only deaf child in his entire district”可知，Ben是该区唯一的一个失聪的孩子，所以此处指没有专为聋哑学生设立的学校。 【26题详解】 考查动词。句意：然后一些了不起的事情开始改变。A. happen发生；B. exist存在；C. change改变；D. leave离开。根据下文“Soon, the entire class joined in. Students ________ to learning sign language together, and the effort ________ throughout the school.”可知，同学们开始学习手语，说明情况发生了积极的改变。 【27题详解】 考查动词。句意：一些同学开始学习简单手语，以便和本互动交流。A. compete竞争；B. debate辩论；C. argue争吵；D. interact互动、交流。根据上文“A few classmates started learning simple signs”可知，同学们学手语是为了沟通互动。 【28题详解】 考查动词。句意：学生们专心致力于一起学习手语，这一努力在整个学校传播开来。A. objected反对；B. committed致力于；C. submitted提交；D. admitted承认。根据后文“and the effort”可知，此处指学生们为了能和Ben交流，致力于学习手语，固定搭配be/committed to doing “致力于做某事”。 【29题详解】 考查动词。 句意：学生们专心致力于一起学习手语，这一努力在整个学校传播开来。A. remained保持；B. appeared出现；C. spread传播，蔓延；D. fell落下。根据后文“Teachers in other grades began taking classes”可知，手语学习从一个班传播到了全校。 【30题详解】 考查名词。 句意：最初一个小小的友好举动变成了全校性的活动。A. activity活动；B. game游戏；C. meeting会议；D. lecture讲座。根据上文“throughout the school”可知，全校学习手语是一项暖心活动。 【31题详解】 考查动词。 句意：当Ben的母亲Etta得知整个学校都接纳并关爱她的儿子时。A. invited邀请；B. accepted接受，接纳；C. received收到；D. admired钦佩。根据后文“valued, accepted and understood”可知，学校接纳了Ben。 【32题详解】 考查名词。 句意：她内心充满了感动。A. anxiety焦虑；B. determination决心；C. thought想法；D. emotion情感，感动。根据后文“It’s incredible”和“so touching”可知，Ben的母亲深受感动。 【33题详解】 考查副词。 句意：我终于能喘口气了。A. finally终于；B. nearly几乎；C. barely几乎不；D. rarely很少。根据前文“When Ben’s mother Etta learned the whole school had ________ and cared for her son, she was filled with _______ .”母亲之前一直担心儿子，现在全校都关爱Ben，她终于松了一口气。 【34题详解】 考查动词短语。 句意：几乎每个学生和教职员工都学会了手语的基础知识。A. put up张贴，搭建；B. picked up学会；C. set up建立；D. gave up放弃。根据上文“Students ________ to learning sign language together, and the effort _______ throughout the schooTeachers in other grades began taking classes and using sign language regularly, even when Ben was not present.”可知，全校师生为了Ben学习手语交流，所以此处指每个师生都学会了一些手语基础知识。 【35题详解】 考查形容词。 句意：学校创造了一个温暖和包容的环境。A. peaceful和平的；B. stable稳定的；C. equal平等的；D. inclusive包容的。根据后文“where Ben feels valued, accepted and understood”可知，学校接纳特殊孩子，是包容的环境。 第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Pasang Dekyi is a young guardian of Tibetan embroidery (刺绣). She has dedicated ____36____ (she) to sustaining this 600-year-old heritage by integrating tradition into modern life. As ____37____ unique art form, Tibetan embroidery combines folk crafts with painting techniques. Unlike traditional painted thangkas, it creates three-dimensional effects through cutting, piecing, and stacking (层叠) silk and other fabrics. “Every Tibetan embroidery piece has a soul, ____38____ core lies in cutting, stacking, and attaching. Core craftsmanship must never be sacrificed, even for ____39____ (innovate),” PasangDekyi emphasizes. Her connection to the craft began long before she ____40____ (conscious) chose it. Raised in a craft family, she absorbed its rhythms naturally. While at university, she joined the family workshop and decided to devote her life to Tibetan embroidery. She has explored ways to make the art ____41____ (approach) to more people. Her creations range from traditional pieces ____42____ contemporary items, with popular cultural images like Mickey Mouse ____43____ (feature) in some of them.“This is not about breaking tradition, but continuing it in a language appreciated by people today,” she explains. Through the combined efforts of craftsmen like Pasang Dekyi, Tibetan embroidery thangka ____44____ (add) to the national intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) list in 2021. PasangDekyi remains committed to her mission, _____45_____ (ensure) the ancient art evolves while staying rooted in its original spirit. 【答案】36. herself 37. a 38. whose 39. innovation 40. consciously 41. approachable 42. to 43. featured 44. was added 45. ensuring 【解析】 【导语】本文主要介绍了藏族刺绣的年轻守护者帕桑德吉。 【36题详解】 考查反身代词。句意：她致力于通过将传统融入现代生活来传承这项有600年历史的遗产。dedicate oneself to...是固定搭配，意思是“致力于……”，这里主语是She，所以用反身代词“herself”。 【37题详解】 考查冠词。句意：作为一种独特的艺术形式，藏绣将民间工艺与绘画技巧结合在一起。unique art form表示“独特的艺术形式”，此处是泛指“一种”，unique虽然以字母“u”开头，但发音以辅音音素开头，根据不定冠词的使用规则，辅音音素前用a。 【38题详解】 考查定语从句。句意：“每一件藏绣作品都有灵魂，其核心在于裁剪、堆叠和粘贴。即使为了创新，核心工艺也绝不能舍弃，”帕桑德吉强调说。空格处引导非限制性定语从句，用来修饰先行词soul。在这个定语从句中，core与soul存在所属关系，即灵魂的核心，所以用关系代词whose引导，whose在从句中作定语。 【39题详解】 考查名词。句意：“每一件藏绣作品都有灵魂，其核心在于裁剪、堆叠和粘贴。即使为了创新，核心工艺也绝不能舍弃，”帕桑德吉强调说。for是介词，后面需要接名词作宾语，动词innovate的名词形式是innovation，意为“创新”。 【40题详解】 考查副词。句意：早在她有意识地选择这项技艺之前，她就与这门手艺结下了不解之缘。这里需要一个副词来修饰动词chose，形容词conscious的副词形式是consciously，意思是“有意识地”。 【41题详解】 考查形容词。句意：她一直在探索让这种艺术更容易被更多人接触到的方法。“make +宾语+形容词”是一个常见的结构，意为“使……处于某种状态”，这里用形容词approachable作宾语补足语，意思是“可接近的；可接触到的”。 【42题详解】 考查固定搭配。句意：她的创作范围从传统作品到当代物品，其中一些作品中出现了像米老鼠这样的流行文化形象。from...to...是固定搭配，意思是“从……到……”，用来表示范围。 【43题详解】 考查非谓语动词。句意：她的创作范围从传统作品到当代物品，其中一些作品中出现了像米老鼠这样的流行文化形象。空格处构成“with +宾语+宾补”的结构，“popular cultural images(流行文化形象)”与“feature(以……为特色；出现)”之间是被动关系，即流行文化形象在作品中被呈现，所以用过去分词featured作宾补。 【44题详解】 考查动词时态和语态。句意：在像帕桑德吉这样的手工艺人的共同努力下，藏绣唐卡于2021年被列入国家非物质文化遗产名录。根据时间状语“in 2021”可知，事情发生在过去，所以用一般过去时。“Tibetan embroidery thangka(藏绣唐卡)”与“add(添加；列入)”之间是被动关系，即藏绣唐卡被列入名录，所以要用一般过去时的被动语态，其结构为“was/were +过去分词”，主语Tibetan embroidery thangka是单数，所以用was added。 【45题详解】 考查非谓语动词。句意：帕桑德吉仍然致力于她的使命，确保这种古老的艺术在保持其原有精神的同时不断发展。句中已有谓语动词remains，所以这里要用非谓语动词。“ensure(确保)”与其逻辑主语Pasang Dekyi之间是主动关系，所以用现在分词ensuring作状语。 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15 分) 46. 假定你是李华，你的英国朋友 David计划暑期来中国旅游，来信询问该选择传统观光旅游还是生态旅游。请你给他回信，内容包括： 1.你的观点及理由； 2.给出建议。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear David, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 【答案】 Dear David, I’m glad to hear that you’re planning a trip to China this summer. In my opinion, I think ecotourism is a better choice. The reason is that it not only allows you to enjoy natural beauty but also helps protect the environment, which is very important. What’s more, ecotourism can offer you unique experiences that traditional tourism can’t, such as staying with local families and learning about their culture. I suggest you choose destinations like national parks or nature reserves. I’m sure you’ll have an unforgettable time. Yours, Li Hua 【解析】 【导语】题目要求考生以李华的身份给英国朋友David回信，就其暑期来中国旅游应选择传统观光旅游还是生态旅游给出观点、理由及建议。 【详解】1.词汇积累 高兴的：glad → delighted 选择：choice → option 独特的：unique → distinctive 建议：suggest → propose 2.句式拓展 同义句转换 原句：I’m glad to hear that you’re planning a trip to China this summer. 拓展句：Hearing that you’re planning a trip to China this summer, I feel glad. 【点睛】【高分句型1】The reason is that it not only allows you to enjoy natural beauty but also helps protect the environment, which is very important. (运用了that引导的表语从句、which引导的非限制性定语从句) 【高分句型2】What’s more, ecotourism can offer you unique experiences that traditional tourism can’t, such as staying with local families and learning about their culture. (运用了that引导的限制性定语从句) 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 The December air bit through the cracks (缝隙) in Sarah’s windows. Snow had been falling since morning, blanketing the quiet Ohio street in white. Inside, the small apartment felt even colder. Sarah had just lost her job at the diner downtown. Her three-month-old daughter, Lily, had been crying for hours. The last can of formula (奶粉) sat nearly empty on the kitchen table. On that day, she clearly remembered she hadn’t ordered anything, but there it was on her porch (门廊) — a large cardboard box, wrapped in brown shipping tape. The label bore a name she didn’t recognize. She knew she should have returned it, but the box said, “Baby Supplies.” She stared at the box for a long time. With Lily’s crying growing weaker, she made the final decision she herself hated. She opened it. Inside were three large containers of formula, two winter coats, and a soft blue blanket. The receipt showed the total: three hundred dollars. Looking at the supplies, she silently promised that she would definitely pay them back in the future. In the days that followed, Sarah fed Lily with the formula and wrapped her in the soft blue blanket. The baby stopped crying. She slept peacefully on the bed. But Sarah felt restless. Every time she poured the formula into a bottle, guilt washed over her. A week later, a letter arrived. It was handwritten on yellowed paper. “Dear whoever received this package,” it read. “My name is Margaret. I saved to buy those things for my grandson. I don’t know who signed for the package, but please send back whatever you can. Even just the formula. But if you’re a struggling mother with little babies, please tell me.” Holding the letter, Sarah sat crying on the floor. She had already used most of it. The formula was half gone. When Sarah emptied her purse, she found only twenty dollars and some loose change. 注意： 1.续写词数应为150个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 With trembling hands, Sarah picked up a pen and began to write back to Margaret. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Soon another package from Margaret arrived, bringing what Sarah needed. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】 With trembling hands, Sarah picked up a pen and began to write back to Margaret. “Dear Margaret,” she wrote, “I received your package and used most of the formula and the blanket. I’m truly sorry, as I didn’t know it was for your grandson. I’ve lost my job and am struggling to support my three-month-old daughter, Lily. I only have twenty dollars now, but I promise to return the money as soon as I can. Thank you for your kindness, which means the world to us.” Soon another package from Margaret arrived, bringing what Sarah needed. Inside were more containers of formula and a note that read, “Dear Sarah, I understand your situation. Please keep the supplies and don’t worry about returning the money. What matters most is that Lily is healthy and happy. If you need anything else, just let me know.” Sarah was deeply moved by Margaret’s generosity and kindness, which she knew she would never forget. She realized that there were still good people in the world who would help others without expecting anything in return. 【解析】 【导语】本文以Sarah的遭遇为线索展开。Sarah失业后生活困窘，女儿饿得直哭，此时她收到一个匿名婴儿用品包裹。她用后心怀愧疚，后收到寄件人Margaret的信，得知物品本为她孙子准备，而她此时仅剩二十美元。 【详解】1.段落续写 ①由第一段句首可知，第一段可描写Sarah回信表达误拿物品后的愧疚、失业及养女的生活困境，以及诚恳致歉并承诺还钱的内心想法。 ②由第二段句首可知，第二段可描写包裹里的物资、Margaret特暖心留言，Sarah深受感动，最后升华主旨：世间仍有无私善良、不求回报的好心人。 2.续写线索：提笔回信 —— 说明缘由 —— 诉说困境 —— 承诺还钱 —— 再次收到包裹 —— 暖心留言 —— 深受感动 —— 感悟善意 3.词汇激活 行为类 ①理解：understand/comprehend/grasp ②帮助：help/assist/aid 情绪类 ①快乐：happy/joyful/pleased ②善良：kindness/benevolence/goodness 【点睛】【高分句型1】I’m truly sorry, as I didn’t know it was for your grandson. (运用了as引导的原因状语从句) 【高分句型2】What matters most is that Lily is healthy and happy. (运用了What引导的主语从句、that引导的表语从句) 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $