山东省临沂市兰陵县2025—2026学年度下学期阶段质量调研（三）八年级英语

2025—2026学年度下学期阶段质量调研（三） 八年级英语 注意事项： 1．本试卷共10页，满分100分，考试时间120分钟。答卷前，考生务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号填写在答题卡规定的位置。考试结束后，只须将答题卡交回。 2．非选择题答在答题纸上，答在本试卷上不得分。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分20分） 做题时，可先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，必须将答案填涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面5段对话。选择与对话内容相对应的图片。每段对话读两遍。 A B C D E F 1.________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________ 第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面2段对话。第一段对话后有2个小题，第二段对话后有3个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。每段对话读两遍。 听第一段对话，回答第6和第7小题。 6. What’s Linda’s hobby? A. Skiing. B. Playing the guitar. C. Doing calligraphy. 7. Who does Linda learn skiing from? A. Her mother. B. Her father. C. Her brother. 听第二段对话，回答第8至10小题。 8. How often does Anna go hiking with her family? A. Every day. B. Twice a year. C. Once a month. 9. Which place are they talking about? A. The Dead sea. B. Nile River. C. Angel Falls. 10. How low is the place they are talking about? A. 614 meters. B. 164 meters. C. 416 meters. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面1段独白。独白后有5个判断题，正确的用“A”表示，不正确的用“B”表示。听独白前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段独白读两遍。 11. Ella thought the Yellow River is the longest. 12. Yaming said the Yangtze River gets its name because of brown and yellow earth. 13. Yaming likes Nile river the best. 14. Both the Nile and the Yellow River are very important today. 15. We call the Yangtze River our “mother river”. 第四节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 听下面1段对话。对话后有5个填空题，根据所听内容在空格处填入适当的单词，每空词数不限。听对话前，你将有30秒钟的时间阅读各个小题。该段对话读三遍。 16. What’s wrong with Lisa? She has a sore ________. 17. What should Lisa do in Tom’s opinion? In Tom’s opinion, Lisa should see a doctor at ________. 18. What other advice does Tom give? Try to stay ________. The doctor will help her feel better. 19. Why should Lisa avoid hot things? Lisa should avoid hot things for now as they could make the ________worse. 20. What will Lisa do from now on? She’ll take ________ of herself and be more careful. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。 A You need to read the instructions before taking medicine. Here are the instructions for a cold and flu medicine. Usage: This medicine is used to treat the common cold and flu, including symptoms (症状) such as headaches, fevers, runny noses and coughs. Dosage (剂量): . Adults: Take 2 pills each time,3 times a day. . Children aged 13—18: Take 1—2 pills each time, 3 times a day. . Children aged 6—12: Take 1 pill each time, 3 times a day. Do not take more than that. 21. What symptom can this medicine help with? A. Sleepiness. B. A headache. C. A toothache. 22. How many pills can a 10-year-old child take a day? A. 1 pill. B. 2 pills. C. 3 pills. 23. What is the correct dosage for a teenager taking this medicine? A. 1-2 pills each time,3 times a day. B. 1 pill each time,2 times a day. C. 2 pills each time,2 times a day. B ①The Amazon River (亚马孙河) is very famous in the world. It is not only a great river but also a home to many animals. It plays an important role in nature. ②The Amazon is one of the world’s longest rivers, second only to the Nile in Africa. The river is usually about one to six miles wide. During the rainy season, it can be as much as 20 miles wide in some areas. It is also one of the deepest rivers, reaching 300 feet deep in many areas. ③The river is also important because it runs through the Amazon rain forest. Home to some of the planet’s most amazing and unusual birds, fish, insects, and animals, the Amazon rain forest has the most plant and animal types in the world. Brightly colored parrots, monkeys, and frogs live here. In the water, you’ll find pink dolphins (海豚). Some of the plants and trees in the rain forest have been used as medicines for thousands of years. ④The river became known as the Amazon during the mid-1500s. A Spanish (西班牙) man saw some women fighters along its lower banks and named the river after them. In Greek mythology (希腊神话), the Amazons meant women fighters. 24. How wide is the Amazon River in rainy season? A. One to six miles. B. 20 miles. C. 300 miles. 25. Why is the Amazon River important? A. It has very few plant and animals. B. Because it runs through the Amazon rain forest. C. There are no pink dolphins in the river. 26. What does “Amazon” mean according to paragraph 4? A. A Spanish man. B. A woman fighter. C. A rain forest. 27. What is the best structure of the passage? (①= Paragraph 1) A. B. C. C On a sunny afternoon, Danny came back from work. A bird came and landed on the apple tree in the yard. Danny’s dad, Kevin, asked, “Did you see that? What is that?” “Nothing. It’s a bird.” Danny replied. Five minutes later, Kevin asked again. Danny looked up and said, “Dad, I told you. It’s a bird.” Another five minutes passed, Kevin asked a third time. This time Danny became angry and shouted, “It’s a BIRD! Why do you ask me over and over again?” Kevin didn’t say anything. He stood up and took out a diary. Danny was still angry. However, he began to read the diary out of respect. “It’s a nice day. My three-year-old boy Danny was sitting with me in the yard. We saw a bird landing on the apple tree. Danny asked me what it was. I smiled and told him it was a bird and embraced (拥抱) him. A few minutes later, Danny asked me a second time and I did the same. Just like that, little Danny asked me the same question 25 times. And I replied to him with the same answer and embraced him each time.” Danny’s heart was touched by something warm and his face turned red. He turned around and gave Kevin a deep embrace. “I’m sorry, Dad. I shouldn’t say those words.” This story tells us: our parents give us much love in their life, so we should treat them with more love and patience. 28. How many times did Kevin ask his son the same question? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 29. What did Danny do when his father asked the question for the third time? A. He smiled and answered. B. He became angry and shouted. C. He took out a diary. 30. What does the underlined word “that” in paragraph 3 refer to? A. Reading a diary. B. Asking the same question. C. Sitting in the yard. 31. What can we learn from the story? A. We should not ask questions repeatedly. B. We should treat our parents with more love. C. We should keep a diary to record memories. D From 15 August to 17 August 2025, Beijing held the world’s first Humanoid Robot Games (人形机器人运动会). The games were at the National Speed Skating Oval. People also call it the Ice Ribbon. Over 500 robots from 16 countries formed about 280 teams. They took part in sports, dances, and daily tasks during the three-day event. The opening ceremony (开幕式) amazed humans with robots dancing, doing kung fu and playing instruments like drums. In a fashion show about the future, robots wore clothes with humans, though one fell and needed help. The games included (包含) three types: -Games: Running races, standing long jump, and football-even a 5v5 game where robots make decisions alone. -Shows: Group dances and kung fu, such as 60 mini robots in Chinese opera costumes (戏服). -Real-world challenges: Tasks like sorting hospital medicines in 20 minutes or cleaning hotel rooms. Teams from top universities and companies (公司) joined in the international event. A Chinese official said every robot was “making history”. Though robots sometimes made mistakes, the events wanted to improve technology through practice. The Games show China’s progress in AI robotics and give us a look at a future where humans and machines work together. 32. When was the world’s first Humanoid Robot Games held? A. 15 August 2025. B. 17 August 2025. C. From 15 August to 17 August 2025. 33. How many types did the games include? A. 2 types. B. 3 types. C. 1 type. 34. What is the real-world challenge? A. Robots playing the drums for 20 minutes. B. Robots sorting hospital medicines quickly. C. Robots dancing in Chinese opera costumes. 35. What is the main purpose of holding the Humanoid Robot Games? A. To give pleasure to humans by robot shows. B. To help robots win more games all over the world. C. To improve robotics technology through practice. 第二节（共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。 Bullying is a common problem for many children. If you are being bullied, here’s a list of things you can do. 36. ________ Many bullied teens do not tell adults (成年人) because they feel scared, and they believe they should be able to deal with the problem alone. 37. ________ Talk to a trusted adult who can help you develop a plan to end the bullying. If the first adult you talk to is not helpful, find another one who will support and help you. Never blame (责怪) yourself for a bully’s actions. 38. ________ If bullies know they are getting to you, they are likely to hurt you more. If possible, try to stay as calm as you can when you face the bully directly in the moment. 39. ________ Be confident. Hold your head up, stand up straight, look at their eyes, and walk confidently. 40. ________ Remember: No matter what a bully says or does, they are always wrong! A. But adults can make a real difference. B. Talk to your parents or an adult you can trust. C. Try to argue with the bully to show you are right. D. Do not let the bully see how much he or she affected you. E. When you show you are strong, a bully won’t pick on you. F. Speak clearly and use short words, or don’t say anything, just walk away. 答案：36. ________ 37. ________ 38. ________ 39. ________ 40. ________ 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分20分） 第一节（共6小题；每小题1分，满分6分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 In our daily life, health is very important. We should know how to keep 41 healthy and we should also be able to solve some common problems when they happen. One day, my friend Tom suddenly had a strong feeling of 42 in his tooth. He was worried, but he didn’t know what to do. I told him that he should go to see a 43 quickly. Later, I went to the hospital with him. When we arrived, there were many people 44 . It seemed that many of them were in great pain. One old man was pressing his jaw (下巴) hard because he had a serious 45 as well. While waiting, Tom told me that he would learn more about how to 46 his teeth and try his best to help others. ( ) 41. A. myself B. himself C. ourselves ( ) 42. A. harm B. fear C. ache ( ) 43. A. dentist B. teacher C. farmer ( ) 44. A. sleeping B. eating C. waiting ( ) 45. A. backache B. toothache C. stomachache ( ) 46. A. make B. protect C. keep 第二节（共6小题；每小题1分，满分6分） 阅读下面短文，从方框中的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有一项为多余选项。 A. programmers B. Italian C. reduce stress D. hobbies E. a sense of F. decided G. keep fit When work or school is over, we usually spend time on our 47 to pass the time. Reading or listening to music can help us calm down. Playing tennis or doing yoga can help us to 48 . Painting pictures is creative. It can help us to remember a beautiful landscape or object, or help us 49 . Tom, an 50 teenager, likes to be creative. He finds it fun to make mobile phone apps. After reading about famous businessmen who started out as 51 , he started programming. His latest app allows people around the world to find study partners for learning Italian. It gives Tom such 52 achievement to see people using the app. Useful hobbies make life meaningful. 答案：47. ________ 48. ________ 49. ________ 50. ________ 51. ________ 52. ________ 第三节（共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Last weekend, I went on a mountain hike with my best friends. 53. ________ it was hard and tiring, we encouraged each other to keep going. At first, we talked loudly, but as we climbed higher, we slowed down to avoid 54. ________ (make) too much noise, so we could enjoy nature. My friend Lily pointed to a special bird, and I could see it 55. ________ (clear) through my camera. What 56. ________unusual sight! When we reached the 57. ________ (deep) part of the forest, the sunlight shone through the trees, and the 58. ________ (bright) of the leaves made everything look beautiful. We realized that we could achieve more than we thought by 59. ________ (work) together and helping each other. We didn’t just climb a mountain — we challenged 60. ________ (we), and that’s what made the trip special. 答案：53. ________ 54. ________ 55. ________ 56. ________ 57. ________ 58. ________ 59. ________ 60. ________ 第四部分 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，按照题目要求用英语回答问题。 It’s time to think about how we can be happy. Here are some habits of happy people. They are always very friendly. When people are kind to each other, it can make everyone happier. Being kind to others can help people work together better. They are hardly angry with others. They think making mistakes is a part of life. It can help them learn a lot from others’ lives. It can truly help them move on from bad things too. They are curious. A few studies say that curious people have better relationships with others. People like to make friends with them. Why? Because they are often interested in many things. They are thankful. Studies show that being thankful can make people happier. It can also make them sleep better. So, it’s nice to say “thank you”. They like giving and sharing. One study shows that the more people give to others, the happier they will be. Scientists also say that giving and sharing are good for health and make people feel happy. They are patient. Scientists find that patient people can make their dreams come true easily. They also feel happier when getting what they want. And they feel less worried when meeting problems. So they can enjoy their lives better. 61. How many habits are mentioned in the passage? __________________________________________________________________________________________ 62. What do happy people think of making mistakes? __________________________________________________________________________________________ 63. Why do people like to make friends with happy people? __________________________________________________________________________________________ 64. How do giving and sharing help people according to scientists? __________________________________________________________________________________________ 65. According to your ideas, how can we keep happy? __________________________________________________________________________________________ 第五部分 补全对话（共4小题；第67小题2分，其余每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，在每个空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话完整，合乎情境。 A: Hello, Ann. 66. ________________________? B: I like to play football in my free time. A: Why do you do it? B: 67. ________________________. A: You don’t look well. 68. ________________________ ? B: I hurt my left leg when I was playing football yesterday. A: I’m sorry to hear that. 69. ________________________ ? B: Yes. I went to see the doctor. My friends took me to the hospital. A: Accidents often happen in sports. If you need help, I can help you. 第六部分 书面表达（满分15分） 身心健康对每个人都很重要，我们应该学会如何保持健康，请以“How to keep healthy”为题写一篇英语短文，向学校校刊投稿。要求： 1. 文章必须包含以下表格中的至少4个要点信息，可适当发挥； 2. 不得出现真实的地名，校名和人名等信息； 3. 词数80词左右，文章开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。 Should Shouldn’t do sports every day take up positive hobbies to reduce stress keep healthy eating habits have enough sleep learn to share problems … always sit or lie for too long play computer games a lot have junk food stay up too late keep everything to yourself … How to Keep Healthy Nowadays, people pay more attention to health. It is necessary for everyone to learn some ways to keep healthy. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ All in all, if we follow these ways, each of us will be pretty healthy. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025—2026学年度下学期质量检测（三） 八年级英语参考答案及评分标准 一、听力测试 （一）参考答案： 1-5 FEDBA 　　6-10 ACBAC 11-15 ABBAB 16. throat 17. once 18. relaxed 19．ache 　 20．care （二）评分说明： 1．本大题共20分，每小题1分。 2．凡与答案不符者不得分。 二、阅读理解 （一）参考答案： 21-23 BCA 24-27 BBBA 28-31 CBBB 32-35 CBBC 36-40 BADFE （二）评分说明： 1．本大题共20小题；每小题1.5分，计30分。 2．凡与答案不符者不得分。 三、语言运用 （一）参考答案： A 41-46 CCACBB B 47-52 DGCBAE 　　　　　 C 53. Although/Though 54. making 55. clearly 56. an 57. deepest 58. brightness 59. working 60. ourselves （二）评分说明： 1．本大题共2O小题；每小题1分，计20分。 2．凡与答案不符者不得分。 五、阅读表达(共5小题，计10分) （一）参考答案： 61．Six\6. There are six\6. 62．They think making mistakes is a part of life. 63．Because they are often interested in many things. 64．They are good for health and make people feel happy. 65． ....(答案不唯一) （二）评分说明： 1．本大题共5小题；每小题2分，计10分。 2．有与答案不符者，只要符合本题要求，句意和语法正确，即可得分；有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误，可酌情扣分；所写的句子虽无语法错误，意思通顺，但与题意不符者，不得分。 六、补全对话（计5分） （一）参考答案： 66．What do you like to do in your free time?/ What do you do in your free time?/ What do you usually do in your free time? 67．I do it to relax./I do it to exercise./Because it can make me relaxed... 68．What's wrong？/What's the matter?... 69．Did you go to the doctor?/Did you see the doctor? （二）评分说明： 1．本大题共4小题；计5分， 67题2分，其余1分。 2．有与答案不符者，只要符合本题要求，句意和语法正确，即可得分；有大小写错误、拼写错误或语法错误，可酌情扣分；所写的句子虽无语法错误，意思通顺，但与题意不符者，不得分。 七、书面表达（计15分） （一）参考答案(略) （二）评分说明：本大题共15分, 请按以下四档标准进行评分。 第一档：(15分)符合题意要求，表达完整，条理清晰，语句通顺，语言正确无误。 第二档：(11—14分)符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言基本无误。 第三档：(6—10分)基本符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清晰，语句较通顺，语言有部分错误。 第四档：(0—5分)不符合题意要求，表达不够清楚，逻辑关系混乱，语言错误很多。 若书写潦草，可在以上基础上酌情扣除1-3分。 (注意：短文中不得出现考生的姓名、学校及其他相关信息，否则不予评分。) 补充说明： 1.照抄试卷中的 阅读材料或题中要点提示句的一律判0分。 2.拼写与标点符号是语言准确的一个方向，应视其对语言表达的影响程度予以考虑，如 书写较差以致影响表达，将分数降低一个档次。 3.词数应在80词左右，如不足80词，只能最高按二档计分，超过80词，不扣分。 4.对完成了试题规定的任务，语言地道，准确的书面表达，可给予满分。 4 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $