安徽省滁州市凤阳县官塘中学2024-2025学年八年级下学期5月月考英语试题

八年级英语（人教版） （试题卷） 注意事项： 1.本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2.全卷包括“试题卷”（8页）和“答题卷”（2页）两部分。 3.请务必在“答题卷”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。 4.考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. Which character is the boy drawing? A. B. C. 2. What has the boy just had? A. B. C. 3. Where was Nick when he heard the news? A. On the playground. B. In the school. C. At his home. 4. What does the boy ask the girl to do? A. To call him. B. To drive him. C. To take the notebook. 5. Why doesn’t Mike go shopping with Linda? A. Because he is ill. B. Because he is busy. C. Because he is tired. Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7小题。 6. Who will Jack go to the zoo with? A. His sister. B. His cousin. C. His friend. 7. What will Jack do at the zoo? A. Take some photos. B. Do some cleaning. C. Work as a guide. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。 8. How many pandas were at the Panda House? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 9. How old was the baby panda? A. Two months old. B. Four months old. C. Six months old. 10. What was the baby panda doing in the photo? A. Sleeping. B. Eating. C. Playing. Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. Where did the king and the queen live? A. In a forest. B. In a park. C. On a beach. 12. What was wrong with their daughter? A. She never smiled. B. She was ill. C. She couldn’t fall asleep. 13. What would they give if someone could make their daughter smile? A. Their house. B. Some horses. C. Lots of money. 14. Who cheered the daughter up at last? A. A musician. B. A singer. C. A cleaner. 15. How did he make it? A. He brought the daughter a dog. B. He sang songs to the daughter. C. He cleaned the king’s house. Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 Linda—a rising star Reason for her love Music could cheer her up when she felt 16 . Education ★She started to 17 singing when she was seven. ★She took 18 lessons on weekends. Achievements She sings beautifully and her songs have 19 many people. Wish Give her first 20 at the age of thirty-five. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） V. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21.—I will go to Mount Huang on holiday. —Then you should read this article. The writer describes the ________ of Mount Huang in it. A. treasure B. work C. beauty D. pressure 22.—Laura, what does your uncle look like? —He is a tall man with two big eyes and a ________ mouth. A. deep B. wide C. high D. short 23. Mom said goodbye to me with a smile, but her eyes couldn’t ________ her sadness. A. lose B. catch C. bring D. hide 24.—What do you think of the TV show Six Sisters? —________my opinion, it is wonderful. A. In B. To C. On D. For 25.—Did you call Jack last night? —No, I didn’t. I wrote him a letter ________. A. instead B. also C. even D. either 26.—I hope to be a volunteer on weekends. —You could help to the city parks. A. cheer up B. make up C. take up D. clean up 27.—When will Jenny get to the bus station? —I’m not sure, but she will call you as soon as she ________. A. arrives B. arrived C. was arriving D. will arrive 28.—Where was your dad at this time last night? —He was talking with my uncle ________ I was looking for some information on the Internet. A. since B. while C. after D. until 29. Frank hurt his leg when playing soccer, ________, he will have to be away from school for several days. A. On time B. At least C. As a result D. For example 30.—Could you please feed the bird for me? —________. A. Here you are B. You’ re right C. You’ re welcome D. Sure, no problem Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A Franz Kafka (1883-1924) was a famous writer. He never 31 and had no children. One day, he met a little girl in the park. She was crying 32 she lost her favorite doll （玩偶）. Kafka helped her 33 the doll, but they couldn’t find it. The next day, Kafka found the girl and gave her a 34 from the doll. It said, “I’m on a trip. I’ll write to you about my adventures （冒险）.” So a story began and 35 until the end of Kafka’s life. Whenever they met, Kafka would read aloud the doll’s letters and the girl found them interesting and 36 . One day, the doll “said” it finally 37 to the city. Then, Kafka gave the girl a new doll. “This looks different,” she said. “The trips 38 the doll,” Kafka replied. The girl was glad and took the doll home 39 . A year later, Kafka died. Years later, the grown-up girl found a letter from Kafka inside the doll. It said, “Things you love may get lost, but in the end, love will return in a 40 way.” 31. A. slept B. married C. laughed D. wrote 32. A. until B. so C. because D. though 33. A. dress up B. wake up C. care for D. look for 34. A. letter B. book C. report D. story 35. A. rose B. turned C. pointed D. continued 36. A. exciting B. important C. silly D. strange 37. A. led B. returned C. followed D. invited 38. A. changed B. shot C. covered D. cheated 39. A. easily B. clearly C. simply D. happily 40. A. difficult B. traditional C. different D. necessary B Roxy is an animal lover and she built Wild is Life to save animals. A few years ago, Roxy and her team welcomed one of their 41 animal friends—a 3-day-old elephant. When people found him near a river, the elephant was 42 drowned （淹死的）. Then they quickly 43 him to Wild is Life in the hope that he could get well. The baby elephant got hurt so badly that he was 44 everything. In order to make him trust her, Roxy spent a lot of time with him. She named him Moyo and tried her best to 45 him. The result is that now Moyo follows Roxy everywhere. What is it like to live with an elephant? In a word, it’s a 46 for Roxy. Moyo is interested in everything and he always uses his trunk （象鼻） to 47 things, which usually end up in pieces. Moyo likes to sit on the sofa when Roxy is there. Of course, Moyo doesn’t know that he is not a 48 anymore. Moyo is much different now. He is healthy and 49 . Roxy wants him to go back to the wild. 50 Moyo doesn’t want to go because he enjoys the life with Roxy. 41. A. shortest B. cleanest C. funniest D. youngest 42. A. almost B. already C. probably D. hardly 43. A. ordered B. sent C. threw D. paid 44. A. interested in B. happy with C. afraid of D. busy with 45. A. look after B. look at C. look for D. look like 46. A. dream B. program C. waste D. problem 47. A. paint B. hurry C. touch D. build 48. A. student B. baby C. pet D. friend 49. A. wild B. weak C. young D. strong 50. A. However B. Luckily C. But D. Also Ⅲ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Have you ever read the novel （小说） Jane Eyre? B: 8: 51 A: How sorry! It’s a wonderful book, you know. B: Well, I’ve been wanting to read it for a long time, but I can’t get a copy. The library has only three copies. 52 A: Well, 53 If you like, I’ll lend it to you. B: Thank you. 54 By the way, when can I get it? A: 55 Will you please come to my house after school? B: OK. I’ll go as soon as school is over. A. That’s very kind of you. B. I forgot where I put it. C. You really should read it. D. And they are all out. E. I’m afraid I haven’t. F. I haven’t had it with me. G. I have a copy of my own. 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。 A Do you want to make our city a better place? Join our volunteer club “Clean & Green”. Collecting （收集） rubbish You can hang out with your friends in the park and clean our city at the same time! We are going to collect rubbish at City Park from 8 a. m. to 10 a. m. next Saturday. To add some fun, there will be a gift for the person who collects the most rubbish! Planting trees Planting trees is a great way to make the air clean. In fact, trees can slowly filter （过滤） the pollutants （污染物） in the air. So come and help us to plant more trees in Xiaoyaojin Park at 3 p. m. next Sunday. Repainting the walls Some people like to paint graffiti （涂鸦） on the walls. The buildings covered with graffiti are terrible. On this Saturday, we are going to repaint the walls and make them clean again. You don’t have to bring any tools. Just remember to wear some old clothes! 56. People who want to collect rubbish should meet ________ at City Park. A. at 2 p.m. on Saturday B. at 3 p.m. on Sunday C. at 8 a.m. next Saturday D. at 10 a.m. next Sunday 57. If we’ re going to repaint the walls, we need to ________. A. know how to draw pictures B. wear some old clothes C. bring our brushes and paint D. give out some money 58. According to the passage, we can know that ________. A. we can plant trees to improve the environment B. graffiti makes buildings look beautiful C. anyone who collects rubbish can get a gift D. we can draw beautiful pictures on the walls B About four years ago, I made a decision: I would read 30 new books every year. I did it and learned a lot from the books. But I couldn’t remember anything after one or two months. So I decided to stop doing that recently. I found the problem because of one of my friends. She was worrying a lot about life at that time. I wanted to help her stop worrying. The book How to Stop Worrying and Start Living by Dale Carnegie was one of my favourite books. I learned a lot from it. When I wanted to share something from the book with my friend, I found that I didn’t remember anything. So I decided to reread （重读） it. After that, I felt I learned more from the book. When I reread the book, I also realized that we often forget knowledge （知识） over time. If we want to remember it and use it, we must review （复习） it from time to time. Then I decided to reread all the books. Thanks to my rereading of the books, the knowledge has come back to me. And I have also learned some new things. As time goes by, I may forget the knowledge again. But I have no worries. I will just read the book again then. 59. Why did the writer stop reading 30 new books a year? A. Because she didn’t have enough time. B. Because she forgot what she read later. C. Because she thought the books were boring. D. Because she wanted to read fewer books. 60. Why did the writer want to share something from the book with her friend? A. To help her friend. B. To make money. C. To find a new job. D. To start a club. 61. The underlined word “it” in Paragraph 3 refers to （指） “________”. A. the decision B. the book C. the knowledge D. the problem 62. What did the writer find after rereading the book? A. She didn’t like the book at all. B. She should read more new books. C. It was a waste of time to reread books. D. She must review knowledge from time to time. C Do you often talk with others online? If yes, you should have good etiquette. Netiquette means Internet manners （礼仪）. To make everyone have a friendly Internet environment, there are a few online rules for you to follow. First of all, treat （对待） others as you wish to be treated. You’ re communicating with real people, so try not to hurt their feelings. If others treat you badly and you don’t know what to do, ask your teachers or parents for help. Next, act in the same way as you usually do in real life. If you don’t do something in real life, don’t do it online, either! For example, never ask others about their personal information. Also, don’t share yours with others. It’s important to keep yourself and others safe on the Internet. Finally, use your writing skills properly. You may often see abbreviations （缩写词） like “lol” (laugh out loud) or “brb” (be right back) online. Well, it’s OK to shorten these words when talking with friends. But if you write an email, you’d better not use them. These are just a few of the rules of netiquette. As long as you remember them, you’ll do fine on the Internet! 63. What should you do if someone isn’t friendly to you online? A. Treat them the same way. B. Send them some messages. C. Ask teachers or parents for help. D. Keep silent and do nothing. 64. Why should we follow the rules of Internet manners? A. To make more friends online. B. To show off our good manners. C. To build a friendly Internet environment. D. To become popular on the Internet. 65. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. Good netiquette makes us friendlier in our real life. B. Abbreviations are the most popular among the young. C. We shouldn’t use abbreviations when we communicate with others. D. We shouldn’t share personal information with others online. D One Sunday morning, I was unhappy. Two of my friends went to the movies the day before, but they didn’t invite me. I was in my room thinking of ways to make them sorry when my father came in and asked, “Want to go for a ride today, Judy?” “No! Leave me alone!” Those were the last words I said to him that morning. My friends invited me to go swimming with them a few hours later. I forgot to be angry with them and went. When I came back home, I saw a note （便条）, “Dad has an accident. Go to Highland Park Hospital. Mom.” As soon as I reached the hospital, my mother held my hand and said, “Luckily, your dad was able to tell others to leave him alone and just call 911! If they had moved him…” My mother talked a lot, but I only remembered: LEAVE ME ALONE. Weeks later, my father was able to talk. One day, I said sorry to him for what I said that Sunday morning. He smiled and said he remembered nothing but saying goodnight to me the night before. I knew he was lying （说谎）. I regretted （后悔） my thoughless words. I never really wanted him to leave me alone. It was too terrible to imagine. Words do have great power （力量）. They can hurt or they can heal （治愈）. And we all have the power to choose our words. 66. What did Judy do after her friends invited her? A. She went swimming with them. B. She went to the movies with them. C. She refused their invitation. D. She asked them to say sorry to her. 67. What does the underlined word “thoushless” in Paragraph 6 mean? A. Smart. B. Careless. C. Magic. D. Useful. 68. What can we know from the passage? A. Judy’s father died in the accident. B. Judy’s father moved himself after the accident. C. Judy’s mother told her not to be angry with her friends. D. Judy felt sorry for what she said to her father. 69. What does the writer want to tell us? A. We should think before we speak. B. Accidents can happen at any time. C. We should be kind to our friends. D. It’s important to get on well with parents. E Are you interested in country music? I like it very much. It usually talks about people’s daily lives and feelings. It’s the spirit （精神） of America. Country music developed in the south of the United States. It was the folk music of the American countryside. Many of the songs tell about the lives of farmers. They talk about love, crops （农作物） or death. The life of the countryside can be hard, so the words in country music are often sad. At first, people played the music only at family parties. But it became more popular later. In the 1920s, people played country songs on the radio, and then they made them into records. When people in the countryside moved to towns and cities to look for jobs, they took the music with them. Then country music continued to change and became popular across America. John Denver was one of America’s most famous country singers in the 1970s. His song Take Me Home, Country Roads is well-known and many people still like it today. 70. What does country music usually talk about? A. The lives of workers. B. The lives of students. C. The stories of soldiers. D. People’s daily lives and feelings. 71. Why are the words in country music often sad? A. Because the singers are not happy. B. Because country music is not popular. C. Because the life of the countryside can be hard. D. Because people don’t like country music. 72. What is the main idea of this passage? A. The history and development of country music in America. B. The sadness in the words of country music. C. The famous country singer John Denver. D. The differences between country music and pop music. F 第二节 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题（请注意每小题的词数要求）。 These days, David got tired of his work and felt upset. Then he came to a smart man and wanted to ask him for help. David told the man about his problems. Then the man gave him some salt. David was surprised and asked, “Is the salt magical? Will it wash away my pain （痛苦)?” The man just asked David to put the salt into a glass of water and drink it. Then he asked, “How does it taste?” “It tastes terrible,” David said. Then the man asked David to put the salt into the lake nearby and drink the water from the lake. David did as the man said. This time he said, “It is fine. I can’t taste any salt.” The man smiled and said, “The pain in life is like salt. How it tastes depends on where you put it. So when you are in pain, you should make your heart bigger. Then problems in life won’t cause bad feelings.” 73. Why did David go to see the smart man?（不超过5个词） __________________________________________________________________________________________ 74. Where did David put the salt for the second time?（不超过10个词） __________________________________________________________________________________________ 75. What did the man want David to learn?（不超过10个词） __________________________________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） IX. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 76. Jenny loved this article, so she c________ （复制） it down. 77. Nanjing is one of the most a________ （古老的） cities in China. 78. These road s________ （标志） show us how to get to the science museum. 79. In our class, a large number of p________ （学生） take the bus to school. 80. The Smiths often go a________ （到国外） during their holidays. X. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 阅读使人明智，阅读使人充实。阅读的好处很多，但是，目前许多中学生都不重视阅读。请你 据下表内容写一篇80字左右的英语短文，对这一现状进行分析并提出建议。 内容要点： 不重视阅读的原因 1.作业太多 2.时间花在…… 阅读的好处（advantages） 1.开阔眼界（open up eyes）, 获得知识（get knowledge） 2.学会如何思考 3.生活更加丰富多彩（colorful） 你的建议 养成（form）良好的读书习惯…… 注意： 1. 文中不能出现真实的人名、校名和地名： 2. 开头已给出，不计入总词数。 At present, only a few students do some reading after school. Here are some reasons. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 八年级英语（人教版） 参考答案及评分标准 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ. 短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 1~5 BCACB Ⅱ. 长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 6~10 ACBCA Ⅲ. 短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 11~15 BACCA Ⅳ. 信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 16. sad 17. practice 18. guitar 19. touched 20. concert 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） Ⅴ. 单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 21~25 CBDA A 26~30 DABCD Ⅵ. 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 31~35 BCDA D 36~40 ABADC 41~45 DABCA 46~50 DCBDA Ⅶ. 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 51~55 E D G A F 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ. 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 56~58 C B A 59~62 B A C D 63~65 C C D 66~69 A B D A 70~72 D C A 73. To ask him for help. 74. He put it into the lake nearby. 75. He should make his heart bigger. 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ. 单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 76. copied 77. ancient 78. signs 79. pupils 80. abroad Ⅹ. 书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） One possible version: At present, only a few students do some reading after class. Here are some reasons. Some students think they have too much homework every day. Others often spend their free time on TV or the Internet. However, reading has many advantages. It can open up our eyes and help us get knowledge. By reading, we can learn how to think. What’s more, it makes our lives more colorful. So I advise students to form a good reading habit. Every day, we can spend more time reading our favorite books. Let’s start reading now. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $