河南信阳市2025-2026学年普通高中高二下学期期中教学质量检测英语试题

2025至2026学年普通高中高二下学期期中教学质量检测英语听力材料。第一节听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你有十秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话仅读一遍。Text one, hi mark, you look worried. What's wrong? I left my english . dictionary in the classroom. I needed for the test this afternoon. Could I use yours . for a while? sure. I'll get IT for you right away. Text two, are you going to the supermarket now? Not yet. I have to send the package first, then i'll stopped by the bank before . I go shopping. Okay, i'll wait for you at home. Text three, would you like a cup of coffee? No, thanks. I really want to. But I drink too much last night and I couldn't fall asleep. I don't want the same problem . again tonight. All right, how about a cup of water? Text for the train lives in an hour. Shall we take the bus? The traffic is heavy now. The bus will be too slow. Taking the underground is faster and cheaper. Okay, let's take the subway then. Text five, what time is our meeting? IT was supposed . to start at two thirty, but the manager asked us to start fifteen minutes earlier. Got IT. I'll be ready before two. 第二节听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白然后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍，听第六段材料，回答第6至7题。Text six, I heard to take part in the school science competition last week. How was IT? He wants more chAllenging than I expected. IT. There were several difficult experiments and questions that really pushed me. Did you prepare for IT all . by yourself? No, I worked with two partners. We discussed our designs carefully and practiced together many . times after class. You must have learned a lot from the experience. definitely IT greatly improved my thinking skills and taught me the importance and power of teamwork. I heard to take part in the school science competition last week. How was that? He wants more chAllenging than I expected. IT. There were several difficult experiments and questions that really pushed me. Did you prepare for IT all by yourself? no. I worked with two partners. We discussed our designs carefully and practiced together many times after class. You must have learned a lot from the experience. definitely IT greatly improved my thinking skills and taught me the importance and power of teamwork. 听第七段材料，回答第8至10题。Text seven hi, lisa, are you free this sunday evening? I've been wondering if you'd like to go out with me. Hi, mark. I'm not sure yet. Why do you ask? I have two tickets for a wonderful piano concert at the city hall. Would you be interested in going with me? That sounds really great, but i'm afraid I can't. I promise to help my cousin get prepared for her art show. An art show. Is he going to display her paintings? Yes, he has been months. Drawing works about city life. SHE hopes some collectors will notice her. Wow, SHE must be very talented and hard working. He really is. He spends almost her spare time practicing and creating new works. Hi lisa, are you free this sunday evening? I've been wondering if you'd like to go . out with me. Hi mark. I'm not sure yet. Why do you ask? I have two tickets for a wonderful piano concert at the city hall. Would you be interested in going with me? That sounds really great, but i'm afraid I can't. I promise to help my cousin get prepared for her art show. An art show. Is he going to display her paintings? Yes, SHE has been months drawing works about city life. SHE hopes some collector, or will notice her. wow. SHE must be very talented and hard working. SHE really is. He spends almost her spare time practicing and creating networks. 听第八段材料，回答第11至13题。Text eight nowadays, many students suffer from heavy stress before exams. Do you also have this kind of problem in your daily study? Yes, I often feel nervous and can't sleep well when exams are coming. I just can't help worrying about my grades and making silly mistakes . in the papers. You're not alone. Many students have similar feelings. Luckily, some teachers have offered useful ways to deal with exam pressure. What are they? I really need some advice. First, take a short walk outdoors to relax yourself. Second, make a clear study plan instead of staying up late at night. That makes sense. I've been studying too late these days and I feel tired in class. I should really change my bad habit. right? Keeping a calm mind is more important than staying up all the time before exams. Nowadays, many students suffer from heavy stress before exams. Do you also have this kind of problem in your daily study? Yes, I often feel nervous and can't sleep well when exams are coming. I just can't help worrying about my grades and making silly mistakes in the papers. You're not alone. Many students have similar feelings. Luckily, some teachers have offered useful ways to deal with exam pressure. What are they? I really need some advice. First, take a short walk outdoors to relax yourself. Second, make a clear study plan instead of staying up late at night. That makes sense. I've been studying too late these days, and I feel tired in class. I should really change my bad habit. right? Keeping a calm mind is more important than staying up all the time before exams. 听第九段材料，回答第14至16题。Text nine good morning, everyone. Welcome to your new creative writing class. Good morning, mrs. Turner. This class will be based on sharing and polishing your writing. I hope you will feel free to express your own ideas and read your works to each other and learn from one another. Do we need to handing homework every week? Yes, you'll have a short writing task each week, and you will also need to review and give useful little advice on your classmate work to help each other make progress. How is our final grade decided? Daily . performance takes up twenty percent, the next term assignment, thirty percent, and the final portfolio, fifty percent. What's a portfolio . is a collection of your best writings during the term. Now i'll explain the rules in detail so that you'll know exactly what to do in this course. Good morning, everyone. Welcome to your new creative writing class. Good morning, mr. Turner. This class will be based on sharing and polishing your writing. I hope you will feel free to express your own ideas and read your works to each other and learn from one another. Do we need to be handing homework every week? Yes, you'll have a short writing task each week, and you'll also need to review and give useful advice on your classmates work to help each other make progress. How is our final grade decided? Daily . performance takes up twenty percent, the me term assignment, thirty percent, and a final portfolio. fifty percent. What's a portfolio . is a collection of your best writings during the term. Now i'll explain the rules in detail so that you'll know exactly what to do in this course. 听第十段材料，回答第17至20题。Text ten good afternoon, everyone. Thank you for coming to our annual academic lecture today. Were privileged to invite doctor David Wilson, a famous linguist who specializes in cross cultural communication. Doctor Wilson received his doctor's degree in linguistics from harvard university and has been teaching at stanford university for over fifteen years. Before starting his teaching career, he worked as a translator for an international organization where he gained rich experience in cross cultural communication. In two thousand and ten, he began his research on the differences between eastern and western communication styles. He spent nearly ten years traveling around asia and europe to collect first hand data. Case research shows that cultural differences often lead to misunderstandings in communication. To help people Better understand these differences, he wrote a book called across cultural communication, a practical guide, which has been translated into eight languages. Today, doctor Wilson will share his research findings and practical suggestions with us. Now lets give a warm welcome to doctor David Wilson. Good afternoon, everyone. Thank you for coming to our annual academic lecture today. Were privileged to invite doctor dave Wilson, a famous linguist who specializes in cross cultural communication. Doctor Wilson received his doctor's degree in linguistics from harvard university and has been teaching at stanford university for over fifteen years. Before starting his teaching career, he worked as a translator for an international organization where he gained rich experience in cross cultural communication. In two thousand and ten, he began his research on the differences between eastern, western communication styles. He spent nearly ten years traveling around asia and europe to collect first hand data. Case research shows that cultural differences often lead to misunderstandings in communication. To help people Better understand these differences, he wrote a book called across cultural communication, a practical guide, which has been translated into eight languages. Today, doctor Wilson will share his research findings and practical suggestions with us. Now lets give a warm welcome to doctor David Wilson. 2025—2026学年普通高中高二下学期期中教学质量检测 英语 参考答案 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 1—5 CBCCA 6—10 BAABB 11—15 BBCCC 16—20 ACBAA 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 21-25 ADBDB 26-30 BABCB 31-35 ADCDC 36-40 GABDE 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 41-45 DCADB 46-50 CCDAB 51-55 CDABB 56. to 57. Held 58. featuring 59. was established 60. perspectives 61. a 62. who 63. truly 64. to gain 65. visibility 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节： Dear friends, I’m writing to invite you to take part in our reading activity with the theme “Reading Makes Us Better”. It will be held in our school hall this Friday afternoon. During it, we’ll share great books, exchange ideas and talk about our reading experiences with each other. We can also listen to the teacher’s wonderful comments on classic works, which is a perfect chance to communicate and learn from one another. There is no doubt that reading broadens our horizons and makes us wiser and more thoughtful. It can also calm our hearts and enrich our colorful campus life. I’m sure everyone will gain a lot from this meaningful activity. I would appreciate it if you could accept my invitation. Looking forward to your coming. Yours, Li Hua 第二节： Paragraph 1: Hearing his words, Mark reached out and pulled Bill into a tight hug. A surge of warmth welled up in his chest as he patted Bill’s back gently, his eyes soft with emotion. “I never thought a small kind act could mean so much,” he said, “and I’m truly lucky to have you as my friend.” Bill leaned into the hug, his voice thick with emotion as he recalled the sweet moments they’d shared — playing baseball after class, comforting each other during tough exams, and laughing over silly jokes. Mark listened quietly, grateful for this precious friendship born from a random encounter. As they stood there on the campus path, Bill’s mind wandered, already thinking about what special gift he could prepare for Mark on graduation day to express his sincere thanks. Paragraph 2: On graduation day, Bill handed Mark a carefully wrapped gift box. Inside lay the well-polished small tape recorder — the one he used to listen to baseball stories when they first met, with a handwritten note on its cover: “To my best friend — thank you for picking up my books and my lonely heart that day.” Mark traced the smooth surface with his fingertips, a big smile spreading across his face as he met Bill’s shining eyes. They took a photo side by side on the campus lawn, arms around each other, joy and gratitude evident in every gesture. They promised to keep their friendship forever, knowing that a small act of kindness could blossom into a lifelong treasure, and warmth and care would always be the most beautiful light in life. 评分参考 第一部分 听力 1-20题，共20小题，每小题1.5分，共计30分。 第二部分 阅读理解 21-40题，共20小题，每小题2.5分，共计50分。 第三部分语言知识运用 第一节（完形填空） 41-55题，共15小题，每小题1分，共计15分。 第二节（语法填空） 56-65题，共10小题，每小题1.5分，共计15分。 1．单词拼写正确、形式正确，每小题给1.5分。 2．英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 3．若只写出单词的原形，但形式不正确，不给分（若字母的大、小写出错，视为错误）。 4．若书写较差以致影响评判，不给分。 5．若不在指定答题位置答题，不给分。 6．若用铅笔答题，不给分。 第四部分 写作 第一节（应用文）15分，第二节（读后续写）25分。 第一节：应用文评分标准 （一）评分原则 1．本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。 2．评分时，先根据作答的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 3．评分时应关注三个方面：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。 4．词数少于60的，酌情扣分。 5．单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面。评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 6．书写较差以致影响交际的，可将其分数降低一个档次。 7．如果时态出错较多，酌情扣分。 8．用铅笔答题，不给分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 档次 描述 第五档 （13-15分） 完全完成了试题规定的任务，完全达到了预期的写作目的。 ●覆盖所有内容要点。 ●应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 ●语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致。 ●具备较强的语言运用能力。 ●有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 第四档 （10-12分） 完全完成了试题规定的任务，达到了预期的写作目的。 ●虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 ●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ●语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 ●应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 第三档 （7-9分） 基本完成了试题规定的任务，整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 ●虽漏掉一些内容，但能覆盖所有主要内容。 ●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 ●有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 ●应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 第二档 （4-6分） 未适当完成试题规定的任务，信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 ●漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 ●语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 ●有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 ●较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 第一档 （1-3分） 未完成试题规定的任务，信息未能传达给读者。 ●明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 ●语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 ●较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 ●缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 第二节：读后续写评分标准 （一）评分原则 1．本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。 2．评分时，主要从内容、语言表达和篇章结构三个方面考查，具体为： （1）续写内容的质量、续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度； （2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性； （3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。 3．评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 4．词数少于120的，酌情扣分。 5．单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面。评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 6．书写较差以致影响交际的，可将其分数降低一个档次。 7．如果时态出错较多，酌情扣分。 8．用铅笔答题，不给分。 （二）各档次的给分范围和要求 档次 描述 第五档 （21-25分） ●创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。 ●使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响理解。 ●有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。 第四档 （16-20分） ●创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较富有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度比较高。 ●使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响理解。 ●比较有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。 第三档 （11-15分） ●创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。 ●使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误和不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。 ●基本有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。 第二档 （6-10分） ●未能创造合理的内容，全文逻辑性较差，续写不完整，与原文相关度不高。 ●使用了较少词汇和语法结构，有较多错误，影响理解。 ●很少使用语句间的衔接手段，结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。 第一档 （1-5分） ●未能创造合理的内容，全文逻辑性差，续写不完整，与原文情境无关。 ●未能使用合适的词汇和语法结构，有很多错误，影响理解。 ●未能使用语句间的衔接手段，结构不清晰，意义不连贯。 0分 未能传达给读者任何信息；内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025—2026学年普通高中高二下学期期中教学质量检测 英语 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does the man want to borrow? A. A textbook. B. A notebook. C. A dictionary. 2. Where will the woman go first? A. To the bank. B. To the post office. C. To the supermarket. 3. Why does the man refuse the coffee? A. He dislikes the taste. B. He is too nervous. C. He can’t sleep well. 4. How will the speakers go to the station? A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By subway. 5. When will the meeting begin? A. At 2:15 pm. B. At 2:45 pm. C. At 2:30 pm. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。 6. How was the science competition? A. Quite easy. B. Very difficult. C. Rather boring. 7. What did the man learn from it? A. The value of teamwork. B. The courage to speak up. C. the skill of designing. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. What does the man invite Lisa to do? A. Enjoy a concert. B. Visit the city hall. C. Watch a painting show. 9. What will Lisa do this Sunday evening? A. Draw some pictures. B. Help with an art show. C. Meet some collectors. 10. What does the man think of Lisa’s cousin? A. She is creative and polite. B. She is talented and diligent. C. She is easy-going and honest. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Ways to stay calm. B. Ways to reduce exam stress. C. Ways to avoid making mistakes. 12. Why does the man feel nervous before exams? A. He lacks sleep. B. He fears bad grades. C. He has no clear plan. 13. What does the woman advise the man to do? A. Study late at night. B. Keep his study plan secret. C. Do some outdoor exercise. 听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。 14. What does Mrs. Turner expect the students to do in class? A. Listen to speeches quietly. B. Focus only on note-taking. C. Take an active part in sharing. 15. What takes up the largest part of the final grade? A. Daily performance. B. The mid-term assignment. C. The final writing portfolio. 16. What will Mrs. Turner do next? A. Explain the class rules. B. Show some good writings. C. Collect the weekly homework. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Why does the speaker give the talk? A. To introduce a new book. B. To start a cultural activity. C. To introduce a guest lecturer. 18. What did Dr. Wilson do before teaching? A. He studied at Stanford University. B. He worked as a translator. C. He did research in Asia. 19. When did Dr. Wilson start his research on communication styles? A. In 2010. B. In 2020. C. In 2000. 20. What is the purpose of Dr. Wilson’s book? A. To help people understand cultural differences. B. To teach people how to learn foreign languages. C. To introduce different cultural customs and traditions. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Theodore Roosevelt National Park, which is named for President Theodore Roosevelt, features more than 70,000 acres of North Dakota Badlands. It’s a place that feels wide-open and quiet, shaped by wind, water, and time. Best times to visit Theodore Roosevelt National Park The park is open to visitors year-round, though the most popular time to visit is between spring and fall. Summer draws the biggest crowds, thanks to its warm weather and bright, sunny days. However, spring and early summer are ideal for birdwatching, when activity is at its highest. Fall brings brisk weather and stunning foliage, making it a perfect time for hiking or camping. On the other hand, winter brings a quieter kind of beauty. Snowfall transforms the landscape into a peaceful setting and creates opportunities for skiing within the park. What else you need to know Entrance to the park costs $ 30 per vehicle and is valid for seven days. For those planning to visit multiple times in a year, the annual pass is $ 55. There’s also the America the Beautiful Pass, which costs $ 80 and grants entry to all participating national parks, making it an ideal choice for travelers planning to explore several parks throughout the year. There is no accommodations within Theodore Roosevelt National Park itself, but visitors can find hotels in nearby towns like Medora and Watford City. Besides, the park has two campgrounds for visitors. Are pets allowed? Pets are welcome in the park, but there are rules to keep both them and visitors safe. Dogs must be on a leash no longer than six feet and are not allowed on the trails. They are only permitted on paved surfaces, such as sidewalks, roads, and parking areas. 21. When is the best time for birdwatching? A. Spring and early summer. B. Summer and fall. C. Late fall and early winter. D. Winter and spring. 22. Which of the following is TRUE? A. Visitors can find free accommodations in nearby towns. B. A $ 30 entrance ticket is for a single visitor and lasts a week. C. There are three campgrounds provided for visitors in the park. D. The $ 55 annual pass allows repeated visits to the park in a year. 23. What rule must visitors follow when taking pets to the park? A. Pets can walk freely on all hiking trails. B. Dogs should be on a leash up to six feet long. C. Pets are not allowed in the parking areas. D. Dogs can only walk on unpaved surfaces. B Born in Wingham, Ontario, in 1931, Alice Munro grew up in a rural community that later became the setting for many of her stories. Her childhood was marked by her father’s work as a fox farmer and her mother’s struggle with Parkinson’s disease, experiences that shaped her understanding of life’s difficulties. In 1951, Alice received a scholarship to study at the University of Western Ontario. However, financial problems forced her to leave college shortly after she married James Munro. During these busy years as a housewife and bookstore owner, Alice continued writing whenever she could. In 1968, Munro published her first collection, Dance of the Happy Shades, which won the Governor General’s Literary Award, Canada’s highest literary honor. This success introduced readers to her unique style: detailed observations of ordinary life mixed with deep emotional understanding. Over the following decades, she continued to write about women, relationships, and small-town life in Canada. Her stories often moved between past and present, exploring themes of love, loss, and identity. She published several important collections, including Who Do You Think You Are? (1978) and The Progress of Love (1986), both of which won Governor General’s Literary Awards, earning her comparisons to the Russian writer Chekhov for psychological depth. Her story “The Bear Came Over the Mountain” was adapted into the film Away from Her (2006), bringing her work to wider audiences. In 2009, she received the Man Booker International Prize for her lifetime achievement. Her biggest honor came in 2013, when she won the Nobel Prize in Literature, becoming the first Canadian woman to receive this award. The Swedish Academy praised her as the “master of the contemporary short story.” Alice Munro passed away in 2024, leaving behind thirteen collections that changed the short story forever. 24. How did Alice Munro’s childhood experiences influence her writing? A. By setting a rural community. B. By improving her education. C. By shaping her personalities. D. By shaping her understanding of life’s difficulties. 25. What happened after Munro published Dance of the Happy Shades? A. She married with James Munro. B. She won Canada’s highest literary award. C. She demonstrated her unique writing skills. D. She worked as a mother and bookstore owner. 26. Why is Chekhov mentioned in Paragraph 3? A. To show Munro’s educational background of psychology. B. To highlight Munro’s writing style of psychological insight. C. To explore Munro’s writing theme of love and relationships. D. To help Munro receive Governor General’s Literary Awards. 27. What does the text mainly talk about? A. A Canadian woman writer. B. A writing course. C. A collection of short stories. D. A literary award. C Artificial intelligence is changing the way people connect with each other. While tools like ChatGPT help with daily tasks, a new type of AI is becoming popular — AI companion apps designed to provide friendship and emotional support. According to TechCrunch, a technology news site, the number of AI companion apps surged by 700% between 2022 and mid-2025. These apps, such as Replika and Character. AI, now attract millions of users worldwide. Character. AI alone has 20 million monthly users, with more than half under the age of 24. “It’s been a norm for a while for Replika users to ‘marry’ their AI companion in virtual weddings to which they invite friends and colleagues,” said Rachel Wood, PhD, a cyberpsychology researcher also an adviser on the ethical design of AI systems. Why do people turn to AI for companionship? Research shows two main reasons: therapy and companionship. A recent survey found that nearly half of adults with mental health conditions used AI tools for emotional support. When people feel lonely or stressed, they may develop strong connections with AI chatbots that offer encouragement and understanding. Studies suggest that AI companions can help reduce loneliness. Researchers at Harvard Business School discovered that talking to an AI companion reduced loneliness as effectively as talking to a real person. Users reported feeling “heard” and respected during these conversations. Additionally, AI companions can serve as safe spaces for practicing social skills, especially for those who find real-life interactions challenging. However, experts remind us that these tools require careful design and responsible use. Developers are working to improve voice interactions and create more natural conversation styles. While AI companions offer benefits, psychologists continue studying their long-term effects on human relationships and mental health. As technology advances, AI companions will likely become more common in daily life. Understanding both their advantages and potential risks will help users make informed decisions about these digital relationships. 28. What is the main feature of AI companion apps compared with ChatGPT? A. They attract more users worldwide. B. They are designed to build relationships. C. They help with daily tasks as useful tools. D. They are affected by their users’ emotions. 29. What can the underlined word “surged” in Paragraph 2 be replaced by? A. Impacted. B. Deduced. C. Increased. D. Reduced. 30. Which person in the following tends to use AI companion apps? A. An old man who enjoys his retired life. B. A white-collared female who lives alone. C. A high school student with his big family. D. An outgoing teenager with lots of friends. 31. What is the author’s attitude toward AI companions? A. Objective. B. Disapproving. C. Supportive. D. Indifferent. D In the aftermath of a stroke (中风), people are often left confused by what others are trying to tell them. And a third of stroke survivors will develop aphasia, a disorder that makes it harder to understand and produce written and spoken language, leading to daily challenges and social isolation. A study by researchers from Stanford University and KU Leuven, published in January 2026, investigated this issue. As Jill Kries, the lead author, explained: “We were interested to see whether people with a language disorder after stroke would mix up the order of different sounds when they hear speech, or whether it would be some other mechanism that goes wrong.” During the study, 63 people — 39 of whom had post-stroke aphasia — listened to a story while the researchers tracked electrical activity in their brains with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Later, the team used machine learning to identify how the brain responded to individual speech sounds. They were surprised to find that people with aphasia not only stopped processing sounds sooner than others but also showed less electrical activity in the parts of their brains associated with language processing. Most significantly, they did not take additional time to process “ambiguous” sounds. For example, the sound “m” starts many words, providing little initial information. Healthy brains spend more time on such sounds to predict the correct word, but brains with aphasia did not. The findings suggest that, rather than mixing up the order of sounds they hear, as Kries had assumed, people with aphasia may simply stop processing sounds too soon, before they can figure out what word they’re hearing. This discovery could lead to better diagnostic tools to explain exactly how aphasia disrupts an individual’s language processing. The team is now expanding its work, conducting similar experiments with children who have dyslexia, epilepsy, or autism — conditions also linked to language difficulties. “Language is affected in many neurological disorders,” said Kries. “Hopefully, we can find something that will help more than one group of people.” 32. What was the researchers’ initial theory about aphasia? A. Slower overall speed in all cognitive processing tasks. B. A complete loss of hearing ability for specific sounds. C. A malfunction in the brain’s short-term memory storage. D. An inability to correctly order the sequence of sounds they hear. 33. How was the brain activity data gathered from the participants during the experiment? A. By analyzing their spoken retelling of the story. B. Via MRI scans performed before and after the story. C. Through the use of EEG while they listened to a narrative. D. By assessing their language comprehension through tests after listening. 34. According to Jill Kries, why is the team expanding their work to children with other conditions? A. To prove that aphasia has a different cause in children. B. To develop separate treatment tools for each specific disorder. C. To replace current diagnostic methods for dyslexia and autism. D. To identify a common underlying mechanism that could benefit multiple groups. 35. What is the main idea of the passage? A. The social and emotional challenges faced by people suffering from aphasia. B. The development of a machine learning tool for diagnosing language disorders. C. A new discovery about how brains with aphasia process speech sounds differently. D. A comparison between stroke survivors and healthy individuals in daily communication. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Starting a jogging routine can seem challenging, but with the right approach, it can become an enjoyable and sustainable habit. 36. ______ Here are some key steps to begin your journey safely and effectively. 37. ______ To avoid getting hurt when starting a new exercise plan, wear comfortable shoes that support your foot size, and walking style — ask a running store for help to find the right pair of sneakers. Softer ground like grass or running tracks, will cause less impact on joints and muscles than hard concrete. If you have pre-existing health conditions, consult a physician to ensure jogging is safe for you. Don’t forget to warm up and cool down. Harvard Health says proper stretching before and after aerobic (有氧的) exercise makes your joints and muscles more flexible, increases your movement range and prevents injury from exercise. Spend 2 minutes doing stretching exercises for your knees, thighs, hips and other key parts before jogging, then walk slowly for 5 minutes to cool down. 38. ______ Start with walk-jog intervals instead of nonstop jogging. Walk for 3-5 minutes first, then jog for the same time, and repeat until you finish 20 minutes. 39. ______ Research shows this mild way of exercising helps you stick to it more easily than intense workouts. Increase the workload slowly over time. Only push harder or go farther when your body feels ready, not under pressure — overdoing it early can overload and damage muscles. Judge progress by your mood and energy, not numbers like speed or distance. 40. ______ Every small step forward will improve your heart health, mental strength and overall well-being. A. Prioritize both your comfort and safety. B. This keeps your muscles loose and joints smooth. C. Push yourself as hard as possible to make quick progress. D. Gradually make your jogging time longer as your endurance gets better. E. The most effective jogging routine is one you can keep long with key points in mind. F. Investing in professional running gear can greatly boost your performance and motivation. G. Every small, consistent effort you make will benefit your heart and overall well-being in the long run. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Since age 4, Santangelo has been obsessed with soccer. Growing up in an athletic household, Santangelo has worn her cleats for as long as she can remember. She describes herself as an uplifting, reliable, and 41 soul. Santangelo wanted to play soccer at the collegiate level. However, she went to an 42 ‘bad at soccer’ high school, so she never got many 43 to play college soccer. Her father, one of her biggest 44 , enrolled her in soccer camps to help her get her name out. Santangelo felt uneasy during the application process and even was 45 by the New York University soccer coach. By this point, she had received countless 46 and began to accept her dream might not come true. All that changed when her father insisted she 47 one more school. 48 , her last attempt turned fruitful when she got a spot on the URochester women’s soccer team. After arriving in Rochester, she faced new challenge and was moved from midfield to the attack role — a   49   forcing her to adapt quickly. Earning minutes as a starting player brought opportunity but also   50  . “I pushed myself a little too far sometimes,” she recalled. Yet Santangelo lives for the pressure, it means 51 for her, not stress. “when you are about to play, you get the energy up, it’s an   52   feeling.” Santangelo also combined her 53 for soccer with her journalism ambition and was a warm mentor to teammates. Her 54 reminds us that staying true to our passions and embracing challenges with a smile is the 55 to a meaningful life. 41. A. shy B. lazy C. gentle D. competitive 42. A. equal B. excellent C. ordinary D. outstanding 43. A. offers B. gifts C. tasks D. prizes 44. A. coaches B. teachers C. doctors D. supporters 45. A. helped B. ignored C. praised D. guided 46. A. gifts B. messages C. rejections D. invitations 47. A. show off B. give up C. try out for D. devote to 48. A. Hence B. However C. Unluckily D. Fortunately 49. A. shift B. choice C. chance D. mistake 50. A. honor B. pressure C. question D. success 51. A. fear B. sadness C. motivation D. loneliness 52. A. boring B. common C. stressful D. unmatched 53. A. passion B. doubt C. effort D. commitment 54. A. warmth B. optimism C. ambition D. responsibility 55. A. way B. key C. path D. method 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 An exhibition celebrating the skills of disabled workers in the field of intangible cultural heritage opened on Friday at the Palace Museum in Beijing, highlighting their great contributions 56 China’s cultural landscape.   57   (hold) in the museum’s Sensory Experience Gallery, the Shanghai disabled persons’ culture and art exhibition showcases a diverse collection of works 58 (feature) renowned intangible heritage crafts, including leather carving, straw weaving and wax printing. The gallery, which opened to public in late 2024,   59   (establish) by the Palace Museum in partnership with the China Disabled Persons’ Federation (CDPF). A central theme of the exhibition is the creative dialogue between master artisans and a new generation of disabled artists, who are bringing fresh 60 (perspective) to these traditional crafts. Speaking at the ceremony, Yang Ning, 61 master of wax printing and embroidered spheres (绣球)   62   trains disabled students, described the intangible cultural heritage (ICH) as a powerful vehicle for empowerment. “Learning ICH skills offers a 63 (true) flexible way for disabled individuals, as it prioritizes dexterity (灵巧) and focus over physical strength,” she said. Wu Di, director of the Palace Museum’s Cultural and Creative Department, said the exhibition’s unique setting in the Palace Museum offers an opportunity for the works of these artists 64 (gain) global recognition. The exhibition provides a platform for disabled artists who have recently entered the professional art scene, offering them unparalleled 65 (visible). 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 假定你是李华，你校学生会将举办主题为“Reading Makes Us Better”的读书活动，旨在丰富校园生活、激发阅读兴趣。请你写一封邀请信，面向全校同学发出邀请，内容包括： 1．时间与地点；2．活动内容；3．活动意义。 注意： 1．写作词数应为80个左右；2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯 Dear friends, ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Mark was walking home from school one day when he noticed the boy ahead of him trip and drop all his books, along with two sweaters, a baseball bat, a glove and a small tape recorder — one that Bill often used to listen to baseball stories. The boy stood there, flustered and at a loss as his things lay scattered all over the ground. Without hesitation, Mark hurried over, knelt down and helped him pick up the scattered articles one by one. Since they were going the same way, Mark offered to carry part of the burden to lighten his load. As they walked side by side, Mark learned the boy’s name was Bill, that he loved video games, baseball and history, and that he’d been feeling lonely lately because his family had just moved to the neighborhood. They arrived at Bill’s home first, and Mark was warmly invited in for a Coke and to watch some interest-ing cartoon shows on television. The afternoon passed pleasantly with a lot of laughs and casual small talk, and the two boys quickly hit it off before Mark went home. They soon became good friends, seeing each other around school every day, having lunch together and playing baseball after class. Then both graduated from junior high school and luckily ended up in the same high school. They kept in touch all the time and grew closer over the years. Finally, the long-awaited senior year came, and three weeks before graduation, Bill found Mark and asked if they could have a chat somewhere quiet on the campus. Bill smiled as he reminded Mark of the ordinary day years ago when they had first met by chance. “Do you ever know how much that day meant to me?” asked Bill in a soft and sincere voice. “You see, I was new here and had no friends at all. I felt so lonely and even afraid to go to school every day. But when you came over and helped me, and stayed to chat with me, it made me feel warm and not alone anymore. That afternoon was the start of the best friendship I’ve ever had. So you see, Mark, when you picked up my books that day, you did a lot more than that. You gave me the courage to fit in and made my school life full of joy.” 注意：1．续写词数应为150左右；2．请按如下格式作答。 Paragraph 1: Hearing his words, Mark reached out and pulled Bill into a tight hug.______________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2: On graduation day, Bill handed Mark a carefully wrapped gift box.________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $