学易金卷：高一英语下学期第三次月考02（人教版）

2025-2026学年高一下学期第三次月考卷02（人教版） 英语·答题卡 姓 名： 缺考 贴条形码区 准考证号 标记 0 O 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 1 1 注意事项 2 2 2 2 23 2 2 2 2 1.答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚，并 3 3 3 3 0 3 3 3 3 认真检查监考员所粘贴的条形码。 4 45 4 4 4 2. 选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用0.5m 5 5 5 5 黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。 5 5 3.请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出答题区域范围 678 67 6 5678 6 6 6 6 6 的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 7 7 7 7 7 67 4.保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 改液、刮纸刀。 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 5.正确填涂 选择题 (请用2B铅笔填涂) 6 [AJIBJIC] 11【A]IB]IC] 16【A[BJ[C] 2 IA]IB]IC] 7【AJIB]IC] 12【AI[BJIC] 17【A1[BI[C] 痢 3【A[BIIC] 8[A][B][CJ 13【A][B]IC] 18[AJ[B][C] 4[A][B][CJ 9[AlIBIICI 14【A][B][C] 19【A[B][C] 5 [A][B][C] 10[A1IB][C] 15【A][B]IC] 20A1[B[C 21【AJ[BI[CIID] 26 AJIBIICI[D] 31 [A][B][C][D] 36 AJ[BIICIIDI[EJIFJIGI 22 AlBICIIDI 27 [AJ[B]IC][D] 32 [A][B]IC]ID] 37 [AJIBJIC]ID][EJ[F]IG] 23 IAlIBIICIID] 28 IAlIBIICIID] 33 [A][B][C][D] 38 [AJ[BJ[CJ[D][EJ[F][G] 24 IAIIBIICIIDI 29 [A][B][C][D] 34 [AJ[B][C][D] 39 [AJIBJICJID][EJ[FJIG] 30 [A][B][C][D] 35 [A][B]IC][D] 40 [AJIBJ[CJ[D][EJ[FJ[G] 41 [A][B]IC][D] 46 [A][BJIC][D] 51【AJ[BJICJID] 42 [A]IBJIC]ID] 47 [AJIBJIC][D] 52【AJIB]ICJID] 33 [AJIB]IC]ID] 48 [A][B]ICI[D] 53 [Al[BIICIID] 舸 44 [A]IB]IC]ID] 49 [AJIBJIC]ID] 4【AI[B]IC][DI 45 [A][B]IC]ID] 50【AJ[BJIC][DI 55【AI[B]IC]ID] 非选择题（请在各试题的答题区内作答） 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 英语第1页（共4页） 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分) 第一节（满分15分） Dear fellow students, Yours sincerely, LiHua 第二节（满分25分） I took a deep breath and got down on my knees to Leo's level. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 英语第2页（共4页） 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ When my parents came back home in the evening,the house was clean and tidy. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 英语第3页（共4页） ■ 请勿在此区域内作答 或者做任何标记 英语第4页（共4页） ■2025-2026学年高一下学期第三次月考卷02（人教版) 英语·答题卡 姓 名： 缺考 贴条形码区 准考证号 标记 口 0 o o 1 1 y 1 注意幕项 23 2 2 2 2 2 234 1. 答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚，并 234 34 3 3 认真检查监考员所粘贴的条形码。 4 4 4 2 选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用0.5mm 5 5 5 5 5 5 黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。 3.请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出答题区域范围 6 6 56 6 6 6 的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效： 78 12345678 2345678 78 7 7 7 7 4.保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂 8 8 8 8 8 改液、刮纸刀。 9 9 9 9 5.正确填涂 选择题 (请用2B 铅笔填涂) 1 [A][B]IC] 6【AJ[B]IC] 11【AJ[B][C] 16 [A][B][C] 2 [A]IB][C] 7 [AJ[B]IC] 12[A][B][C] 17[A][B]IC] 3[A][B1[C] 8[AJ[B][C] 13[A][B][C] 18[A][B][C] 4 [A][B][C] 9 [A][B][C] 14 [A][B][C] 19 [A][B][C] 5[A][B][C] 10【A][B]IC] 15[A]IB][C] 20【A][B]IC] 21[A][B1[C1ID1 26[A][B][C]ID] 31[A][B][C1[D] 36 [A][B][C][D][E][F][G] 22【A]IB]IC]ID] 27 [A][B]IC][D] 32[A][B][C][D] 37 [A]IB]IC][D]IEJIFJIG] 23 [A][B][C][D] 28【AJ[B1IC]ID] 33 [A][B][C][D] 38 [A][B][C][D][E][F][G] 24 [A][B][C][D] 29[A][B1[C]ID] 34[A][B1[C][D 39 [A][B]IC][D][E][F][G] 25【A]IB][C1ID] 30[A][B1[C]ID] 35[A][B1[C]ID] 40IA1[B]IC][D1[E][F][G] 41[A1[B1[C1[D] 46 [A][B][C][D] 51[A][B1[C1[D] 蕾 42[A1[B1[C1[D1 47 [A][B][C][D] 52[A][B1[C1[D1 43 [A][B][C][D] 48[A][B]IC][D] 53 [A][B][C][D] 日 44【A][B]IC][D] 49[A][B]IC][D 54[A][B][C][D] 45 [A][B][C][D] 50 [A][B][C][D] 55【A]IB]IC]ID] 非选择题（请在各试题的答题区内作答） 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第二节（共10小题； 每小题1.5分，满分15分) 56. 57 58. 59 60 61 62. 63 64 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 英语第1页（共4页） 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） Dear fellow students, Yours sincerely, LiHua 第二节（满分25分） I took a deep breath and got down on my kees to Leo's level. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 英语第2页（共4页） 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ When my parents came back home in the evening,the house was clean and tidy. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！ 英语第3页（共4页） 请勿在此区域内作答 或者做任何标记 英语第4页（共4页） 2025-2026学年高一下学期第三次月考卷02（人教版） （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 英语 考生注意： 1．答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 2. 答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 3.测试范围：必修第三册Units 2~3（人教版）。 4. 难度系数：0.65。 5. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 注意，听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上，听力部分结束前你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分) 听下面5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中 选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1．What is the basketball team’s current problem? A．They only get 10 points. B．They’re not playing well. C．They have two injured players. 2．When will the man have a singing lesson? A．On 8th, August. B．On 15th, August. C．On 22nd, August. 3．What might the woman be referring to? A．A work opportunity. B．A TV show. C．A friend of the man. 4．Why is the girl upset? A．She has no friends now. B．Her mother is out of work. C．Her family is about to move. 5．What band did the woman see? A．The one with a pianist. B．The one with a dancer. C．The one with three guitarists. 第二节(共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 6．What does the project focus on? A．Air pollution. B．Information age. C．Social problems. 7．How will the speakers start the project? A．By visiting a museum. B．By interviewing experts. C．By doing online research. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。 8．What is the woman probably? A．A teacher. B．A tour guide. C．An artist. 9．What do we know about David? A．It has stood in the gallery for more than 100 years. B．It was placed outside before 1504. C．It was originally made in 1604. 10．Which body part of David is used to show his power? A．His hands. B．His legs. C．His arms. 听下面一段对话，回答第11至13题。 11．How many people are expected to attend the party? A．About 250. B．About 300. C．About 350. 12．Why can’t the party be held in the Pine Room? A．It is a bit far. B．The decoration isn’t good. C．There’s not enough room. 13．What will Dr. Darren do next Friday night? A．Work on a speech. B．Take part in a party. C．Listen to a report. 听下面一段对话，回答第14至17题。 14．What does the woman probably do? A．A food buyer. B．A sales manager. C．A foodstuff collector. 15．What can we say about Kingston? A．It trades with the Chinese people. B．It has a large sample room. C．The prices of its products are reasonable. 16．Why will the man order canned fruit so soon? A．It is high-profit. B．It is top-quality. C．It is the most in-demand. 17．Which decides the popularity of canned meat in the man’s country? A．The size. B．The taste. C．The shape. 听下面一段独白，回答第18至20题。 18．Who is the speaker talking to probably? A．Workers. B．Students. C．Employers. 19．What does the speaker say about volunteer jobs? A．They are beneficial to the volunteers. B．Most of them are offered in Autumn. C．Schools are badly in need of volunteers. 20．What is the speaker recommending? A．A school. B．A company. C．A job website. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分） 第一节 （共 15 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Bow Seat Ocean Awareness Contest The 2026 Bow Seat Ocean Awareness Contest is an international student art contest focused on ocean protection. It aims to inspire creativity and raise awareness about the importance of preserving the world’s oceans and marine (海洋的) resources. Theme: This year’s theme is “Marine Keystone Species” — species essential for maintaining healthy and balanced ocean ecosystems. Eligibility (资格): The contest is open to secondary/high school students aged 11 to 19. College/university students cannot enter. There are two categories: 11-14 years old and 15-19 years old. Prizes: First, second, and third place prizes will be awarded in each age category. Application (Open Now!): Students must apply by filling out an online entry form and uploading a digital image of their artwork. The deadline for submissions is May 3, 2026. Artwork Rules: Entries must be: ●An original, hand-created piece (like a painting or drawing) . ●Two-dimensional (2D). ●Describe an ocean-living keystone species. ●Clearly show the species’ critical role within its marine ecosystem. Judging: A group of artists, educators, and scientists will evaluate entries based on artistic quality, originality, and relevance to the theme. Certificates (证书): All eligible participants will receive certificates after the winners are announced in December, 2026. We look forward to your active participation and expressive creations. 21．What is the international art competition aimed at? A．Protecting ocean environment. B．Mining mineral resources. C．Publishing students’ works. D．Exploring keystone species. 22．Who can sign up for the contest? A．A fisherman aged 28. B．A high school student aged 17. C．A 39-year-old marine biologist. D．An 18-year-old university freshman. 23．Which artwork is qualified for the competition? A．A digital painting. B．A handmade poster. C．A delicate photography. D．A creative sculpture. B （改编）In August 2005, I left my quiet coastal hometown in Maine for Chicago, a big city famous for its skyscrapers and lively cultural scene. My hometown had only one small bookstore and no art galleries, so the endless concerts, museums and restaurants in Chicago seemed like a dream come true. As a college freshman, I was excited to embrace the city’s energy — yet I often found myself longing for the sound of waves crashing and the smell of salt in the air. Years went by, and I built a fulfilling life in Chicago: I graduated, got a job I loved, and made lifelong friends. Still, a soft nostalgia (乡愁) for Maine lingered, and I soon realized that “home” isn’t defined by the number of attractions a place has, but by the sense of comfort and belonging it brings. It’s the way the light falls on the ocean at sunset, the taste of my mom’s seafood chowder, and the familiarity of bumping into neighbors on the street. “Homesickness often arises when we’re missing the emotional comfort of a familiar environment, not just the place itself,” says Dr. Lisa Carter, a psychologist who specializes in human attachment. “We don’t just miss a location — we miss the routines, the relationships, and the sense of safety that location provided. For some, this comfort can be recreated in a new place; for others, it remains a unique part of their past.” Although the nostalgia for Maine has never truly faded, even after years of happy life in Chicago, there are simple ways to ease this kind of longing. Creating small, familiar rituals in your new life — like baking your hometown’s favorite cookies every Sunday or taking a walk in a nearby park at the same time each evening — can help build a new sense of stability. These little acts don’t erase the memories of home; instead, they weave those memories into the fabric of your present life. I’m fortunate to have a good foundation in Chicago, with a loving family, supportive friends and a comfortable home, but however much I love my life in Chicago, there’s a part of me that will forever belong to Maine. 24.What was the author's initial feeling in Chicago? A. Pure excitement and joy. B. Total disappointment and fear. C. Excitement mixed with homesickness. D. Only longing for the sea. 25. What defines "home" for the author? A. The number of local attractions. B. A feeling of comfort and belonging. C. The taste of mom's seafood. D. Familiar neighbors on the street. 26. What does Dr. Carter say about homesickness? A. Only related to daily routines. B. A sign of poor adaptability. C. Missing a location's physical features. D. Lacking emotional comfort of a familiar place. 27. What can be inferred about the author? A. He will always miss his hometown. B. He plans to move back to Maine. C. Chicago has become his true home. D. He regrets his decision to leave. C When someone sets out to improve their health, they usually take a familiar path: starting a healthy diet, adopting a new workout plan, getting better sleep, or drinking more water. Each of these behaviors is important, of course, but they all focus on physical health — and a growing body of research suggests that social health is just as, if not more, important to overall well-being. A recent study found that the strength of a person’s social circle — as measured by cell phone activity — was a better predictor of self-reported stress, happiness and well-being levels than fitness tracker data on physical activity, heart rate and sleep. That finding suggests that the “quantified self” presented by endless amounts of health data doesn’t tell the whole story, says study co-author Nitesh Chawla. “There’s a qualified self, which is who I am, what my activities, my social network, my lifestyle, and my enjoyment are. All of these aspects are not reflected in any of these measurements,” Chawla says. “And they are strong determinants of my well-being.” A 2019 study set out to determine what’s driving those high rates of loneliness and found that social media, when used so much that it occupied face-to-face quality time, was tied to greater loneliness. Gender and income didn’t seem to have a strong effect, but loneliness tended to decrease with age, perhaps because of the wisdom and perspective afforded by years of life lived, says Dr. Stuart Lustig, one of the report’s authors. Lustig emphasizes that we should use technology “to seek out meaningful connections and people that you are able to keep in your social sphere (范围). It’s easy enough to find groups such as Meetups, which regularly organize offline gatherings, providing members with opportunities to interact, share, and participate in various activities in real life. Or through social media, you can find places to go where you’ll find folks doing what you want to do.” That advice is particularly important for young people, he says, for whom heavy social media use is common. Finally, Lustig stresses that even small social changes can have a large impact.Striking up post-meeting conversations with co-workers, or even engaging in micro-interactions with strangers, can make your social life feel more rewarding. 28．What is the author’s purpose in writing paragraph 1? A．To show social health is ignored by some people. B．To show social people like to do workouts with others. C．To prove many people tend to follow suit to improve their health. D．To prove more and more people have benefited from physical exercise. 29．What do we learn about fitness tracker data according to paragraph 2? A．They are out of date. B．They are more scientific. C．They can help realize the “qualified self”. D．They cannot reflect one’s overall health. 30．What did the 2019 study find? A．The overuse of social media could lead to loneliness. B．Old people felt lonelier than young people. C．Females feel happy more easily than males. D．Income had a great influence on people’s well-being. 31．What advice does Dr. Stuart Lustig give? A．Avoiding talking to strangers. B．Using social media as little as possible. C．Using technology for meaningful face-to-face interactions. D．Spending more time with like-minded young people. D Enjoying a juicy watermelon is one of summer’s greatest pleasures, particularly when you don’t have to avoid any seeds. Indeed, humans have adapted many fruits to be seedless in search of a more pleasant eating experience. The navel orange (a sweet orange that is usually seedless), for example, came about after a random genetic mutation (随机的基因突变) produced a single branch with seedless fruit long ago. Cuttings of the branch were joined to other trees, and today, all of the world’s navel oranges are copies of this original. A similar discovery led to seedless grapes, which are thought to first appear in ancient Rome before making their way to the Americas in the 1870s. Scientists have a few guesses about why plants might have developed these abilities and they tried out the combinations in experiments. For one, plants can hybridize more easily than some kinds of animals, and hybridization unlocks the new potential. Even if some combinations don’t pan out, researchers have recorded examples of “hybrid advantage”, in which a hybrid is fitter than either of its parents. Lastly, because the purpose of fruit is to draw animals near to help spread their seeds, the production of fruits without fertilization (受精) may ultimately allow trees to produce more fruit at a lower energetic cost if they don’t need to make seeds, too. Regardless of why seedless fruits exist, they represent an interesting thought experiment, according to Stacey Smith, a plant evolutionary biologist at the University of Colorado Boulder. Many are unable to continue surviving without human involvement, but they’re boosted to grow in the wild for that same reason. There are very few, if any, wild navel oranges, and yet it’s estimated that California will produce 76 million cartons of them this year alone. “My personal take is that all plants under human care have won in some sense, because they don’t have to make more of themselves. We do it for them,” Smith told Live Science. “And we will never stop eating watermelons, and being able to make seedless ones just means we eat more watermelons.” 32．What is the similarity between the orange and grape mentioned in the text? A．Being native to ancient Rome. B．Being seedless due to genetic change. C．Being grown from seeds rather than cuttings. D．Being joined to other plants for a sweeter taste. 33．What does the underlined phrase “pan out” in paragraph 3 probably mean? A．Die out. B．Fall through. C．Come apart. D．Work out. 34．Why is the existence of seedless fruits considered a thought experiment? A．It contributes to the balance of nature. B．People still have doubts regarding seedless fruits. C．It inspires thinking on natural selection and human activity. D．Seedless fruits have a high demand but limited production. 35．What is the best title of the text? A．Hybridization: The Key to Seedless Fruits’ Success B．Seedless Fruits: A Human-Aided Evolutionary Wonder C．The Journey of Seedless Fruits: From Mutation to Market D．Genetic Mutations: The Only Way to Create Seedless Fruits 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Have Better, Deeper Conversations In today’s fast-paced world, distractions are everywhere, especially from our phones. When catching up with friends, it can be frustrating when their attention shifts away. 36 It’s a skill that can be cultivated. Here are three key ways to enhance your listening ability. Avoid distractions. To be an effective listener, start by putting away your phone and other distractions. Research shows that multitasking distracts our attention and hampers the quality of our conversations. As musician Hishikesh Hirway says, “Trying to listen to one song while singing another in your head is impossible.” 37 Reflect on what you hear. Active listening is more than just being silent. 38 Phrases like “What I hear you saying is” can confirm your understanding. Also, resist the urge to share your own stories immediately; keep the conversation centered on them. 39 Nonverbal communication plays a vital role in conversations. Maintaining eye contact, having an open posture, and nodding can show that you’re engaged. These small gestures help the other person feel valued and encourage them to continue sharing. Improving your listening skills takes practice. 40 As Hirway advises, “Let the other person know you’re listening and stay focused.” A．Use nonverbal cues. B．Look up to show interest. C．So to build stronger relationships, active listening is essential. D．But with a bit more effort, you can foster deeper conversations. E．Engage by asking questions or summarizing what the other person says F．Therefore, during conversations, focus fully on the person in front of you. G．Taking notes while listening can help you remember the conversation better. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分 30分) 第一节：(共15小题;每小题 1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last summer, I volunteered at a multicultural community center in my city. The center serves people from all over the world, including immigrants, refugees, and local residents. My job was to help organize cultural events and assist with language classes. On my first day, I was 41 to see so many people from different ethnic groups working and playing together. There were Mexican families making nachos, Chinese elders practicing tai chi, and American teenagers learning Cantonese. I felt a little 42 at first, but the staff and volunteers were very friendly and welcoming. One of my favorite events was the “World Food Festival,” where residents brought dishes from their home countries. I helped set up the tables and 43 the food to visitors. I tasted gumbo from Louisiana, spicy cheese from Mexico, and dim sum from China. It was amazing to see how food could bring people together, regardless of their 44 . I also helped teach English classes to new immigrants. Many of them had come to this country to 45 a better life for their families. They were 46 to learn, and I was inspired by their determination. One student, a young woman from Syria, told me that learning English was her first step to 47 her dream of becoming a doctor. As the summer went on, I began to 48 the beauty of cultural diversity. I learned to respect different customs and traditions, and I made many friends from all over the world. Volunteering at the community center taught me that 49 is not a barrier, but a bridge that connects us all. When the summer ended, I was sad to leave, but I knew that the 50 I had gained would stay with me forever. I learned that in a diverse society, we can all learn from each other and grow together. 51 , this experience also made me realize that we have a 52 to help those in need. One memory that still 53 with me is of a little boy from Guatemala who struggled to speak English. I spent extra time with him, using games and songs to make learning fun. By the end of the summer, he could 54 simple sentences and smile confidently. Moments like this 55 that our work truly matters. 41．A．shocked B．excited C．bored D．tired 42．A．nervous B．happy C．angry D．calm 43．A．served B．cooked C．bought D．sold 44．A．age B．gender C．background D．profession 45．A．seek B．lose C．waste D．forget 46．A．unwilling B．eager C．afraid D．slow 47．A．achieving B．giving up C．forgetting D．changing 48．A．hate B．appreciate C．ignore D．fear 49．A．diversity B．conflict C．language D．money 50．A．skills B．lessons C．friends D．memories 51．A．However B．Therefore C．Moreover D．Otherwise 52．A．weak B．strong C．kind D．duty 53．A．stays B．leaves C．goes D．passes 54．A．break B．form C．destroy D．ignore 55．A．prove B．doubt C．deny D．pretend 第二节：(10个小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。 The concept of a “smart city” has gained immense popularity in recent years. 56 refers to an urban area that uses various types of electronic data collection sensors to supply information 57 (manage) resources efficiently. This idea is not merely a fantasy; it is gradually becoming a reality. One key aspect of smart cities is the integration of 58 (advance) technologies into the public transportation system. Sensors and AI algorithms work together to predict traffic flow and adjust signals accordingly, reducing congestion 59 (dramatic). However, the application of such systems 60 (require) substantial investment and cooperation between governments and tech companies. Despite the challenges, many cities are moving forward with smart projects. For instance, in some cities, lampposts are equipped 61 sensors that monitor air quality. These data are then analyzed to make policies 62 (aim) at improving public health. Critics argue that these technologies may invade people’s privacy, 63 supporters believe the benefits outweigh the risks. Interestingly, the smart city model also draws 64 (inspire) from nature. Some designers propose systems that mimic the efficiency of ecosystems, 65 waste from one process becomes raw material for another. Such an approach not only enhances sustainability but also strengthens the city’s resilience against environmental crises. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分 15 分) 66．假设你是李华，你校正在开展“保护水资源”主题活动。请你为校英文报写一封倡议书，呼吁全校同学共同行动，减少水污染。内容包括： 1．水污染的现状及危害； 2．具体倡议措施； 3．发起倡议。 注意： 1．词数80左右； 2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Dear fellow students, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节 (满分 25 分) 67．阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Last Sunday, my parents had to go to my grandma’s home because she was ill. They told me I had to look after my 6-year-old brother, Leo, for the whole day. I was 16, and it was the first time I had to take care of him alone. I thought it would be easy — just play with him and feed him some snacks. But I was wrong. In the morning, Leo refused to brush his teeth and cried for a toy car that he left at grandma’s. I tried to calm him down, but he just cried louder. After I finally got him to brush his teeth, I found out I forgot to buy milk for his breakfast. I had to run to the supermarket downstairs in a hurry, leaving Leo at home alone for five minutes. When I came back, I saw Leo sitting on the floor, drawing on the living room wall with a red marker! I felt so angry and stressed that I shouted at him. Leo was scared by my voice, and he started crying again. I stood there, looking at the messy wall and the crying boy, and I didn’t know what to do. I thought to myself, How can I mess this up so badly? My parents will be so disappointed in me. Paragraph 1: I took a deep breath and got down on my knees to Leo’s level. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2: When my parents came back home in the evening, the house was clean and tidy. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 1 / 15 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年高一下学期第三次月考卷02（人教版） （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 英语·全解全析 考生注意： 1．答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 2. 答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 3.测试范围：必修第三册Units 2~3（人教版）。 4. 难度系数：0.65。 5. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 注意，听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上，听力部分结束前你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分) 听下面5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中 选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1．What is the basketball team’s current problem? A．They only get 10 points. B．They’re not playing well. C．They have two injured players. 【答案】B 【原文】M: What are we doing? If we keep missing easy shots, we’re going to lose this game! W: We’re still up by 10 points. Jenny hurt her ankle, so we’ll have to play harder to keep our lead. 2．When will the man have a singing lesson? A．On 8th, August. B．On 15th, August. C．On 22nd, August. 【答案】B 【原文】W: You missed a singing lesson on the 8th of August. M: OK, so when’s my next lesson? W: It’ll be on the 15th of August and on the 22nd of August. I’ll be away again. 3．What might the woman be referring to? A．A work opportunity. B．A TV show. C．A friend of the man. 【答案】B 【原文】W: Hey, did you see… M: No, no, please don’t say anymore! I’m covering for a friend at work this week, so I won’t watch it until the weekend. I’ve been waiting for this new season for over a year. Please don’t tell me anything! 4．Why is the girl upset? A．She has no friends now. B．Her mother is out of work. C．Her family is about to move. 【答案】C 【原文】M: What’s wrong, Rachel? You aren’t looking like yourself. W: My mom’s got a job in Liverpool. I finally made friends after years of loneliness here, and now awful — we go again. Why can’t my mom have a steady job? 5．What band did the woman see? A．The one with a pianist. B．The one with a dancer. C．The one with three guitarists. 【答案】C 【原文】W: I saw a good band at last Saturday’s rock festival. The singer was great. M: The band with the piano player? W: I didn’t see anything with a piano. The singer was called Queen Cat. She could really dance too. M: Oh, I know what you mean. The band had three guitars. 第二节(共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 6．What does the project focus on? A．Air pollution. B．Information age. C．Social problems. 7．How will the speakers start the project? A．By visiting a museum. B．By interviewing experts. C．By doing online research. 【答案】6．A 7．C 【原文】M: Have you heard about the science project our teacher gave us? It’s about air pollution. W: Yeah, I have. To be honest, I’m a little bit worried. I don’t have much experience in this field, and I’m not sure if we can gather enough useful information. M: Don’t be so negative. Do you have any ideas on how to begin? W: Well, I think doing research on the Internet first is a good choice. There’s a lot of information about air pollution and ways to solve it on the Internet. M: That sounds reasonable. Also, we could try to get in touch with some social groups who address air pollution to see if they can give us any help. W: Good idea. Let’s start with the online research first. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。 8．What is the woman probably? A．A teacher. B．A tour guide. C．An artist. 9．What do we know about David? A．It has stood in the gallery for more than 100 years. B．It was placed outside before 1504. C．It was originally made in 1604. 10．Which body part of David is used to show his power? A．His hands. B．His legs. C．His arms. 【答案】8．B 9．A 10．A 【原文】W: And here, ladies and gentlemen, we have the famous artwork — David, by Michelangelo. When it was originally made in 1504, it stood outside. But over a century ago, it was brought here inside the Galleria dell’ Accademia. M: Oh wow. I’ve seen pictures of it, but I didn’t realize it was this big. It’s huge. W: Yes, a lot of visitors say that when I show it to them. M: Look at all the details, his arms, his legs... They are amazing. W: Yes, but also look at the hands — especially the right hand. Do you notice anything? M: They are big. W: Yes, well done. They are actually bigger than they should be because the artist wanted to show David’s power through it. 听下面一段对话，回答第11至13题。 11．How many people are expected to attend the party? A．About 250. B．About 300. C．About 350. 12．Why can’t the party be held in the Pine Room? A．It is a bit far. B．The decoration isn’t good. C．There’s not enough room. 13．What will Dr. Darren do next Friday night? A．Work on a speech. B．Take part in a party. C．Listen to a report. 【答案】11．B 12．C 13．A 【原文】W: Excuse me Dr Darren, we are planning to have a party next Friday. Which room could we use? Ah, we are expecting around 300 people. Dr Dennis suggested the Pine Room but there are too many used books inside and it can only hold 250 people. What would you suggest? M: One moment, please. I would suggest the White Room. It can hold 350 people at the most. Besides, it was newly decorated. Is it okay? W: Sure. Thank you. M: What time will you need it? W: I believe that 6 to 10 p.m. would be okay. M: Okay. It’s all yours during those four hours. W: Thank you very much. Oh, Dr Darren, would you please join us in the party on that day? M: I’d like to, but I’m afraid I can’t. I have to work on a speech with Dr Miller that night. 听下面一段对话，回答第14至17题。 14．What does the woman probably do? A．A food buyer. B．A sales manager. C．A foodstuff collector. 15．What can we say about Kingston? A．It trades with the Chinese people. B．It has a large sample room. C．The prices of its products are reasonable. 16．Why will the man order canned fruit so soon? A．It is high-profit. B．It is top-quality. C．It is the most in-demand. 17．Which decides the popularity of canned meat in the man’s country? A．The size. B．The taste. C．The shape. 【答案】14．B 15．C 16．C 17．A 【原文】W: Now, you see, this is our sample room. M: Wow, Kingston’s got a large collection of sample foodstuffs. W: Yes. We are exporting a wide range of foodstuffs to various countries. And the demand is on the rise. M: So it is. It appears that Chinese foodstuffs are attractive and enjoy great advantages. W: You said it. The quality of ours is as good as that of many other suppliers, while our prices are not so high as theirs. By the way, which items are your focus? M: Canned goods are of special interest to me, particularly the canned fruit. As your canned fruit is among the most popular ones in our market, I’m going to place an order in a day or two. W: Good. How about our canned meat? M: I think it will also find good market in our country. W: I hope so. Our canned meat is in varieties of weights. M: The small sizes are more saleable in our market than the large ones. I’ve brought with me a sample of canned meat, which is only six ounces. The smallest size of yours is even bigger than that of mine. I wonder if your canned meat tastes better. W: You are welcome to have a try. Here it is. 听下面一段独白，回答第18至20题。 18．Who is the speaker talking to probably? A．Workers. B．Students. C．Employers. 19．What does the speaker say about volunteer jobs? A．They are beneficial to the volunteers. B．Most of them are offered in Autumn. C．Schools are badly in need of volunteers. 20．What is the speaker recommending? A．A school. B．A company. C．A job website. 【答案】18．B 19．A 20．C 【原文】    W: Good evening, everyone. It’s the end of the term and if you’re looking for part-time jobs in Indio, California or even student jobs and jobs for teens in Indio, California, you’ve come to the right place. With over 30,000 job opportunities around the county. chances are that GrooveJob. com has the right job for you and wants to be your only source for finding summer work and teen jobs in Indio, California. We’ve got plenty of part-time jobs. Check out the list of employers below who are accepting applications for part-time jobs in Indio. There’ re also some volunteer jobs on the site. Volunteering is a great way to learn new skills, meet new people and make an impact on your community. Many schools and scholarships use volunteerism as part of the selection standard. Remember to check back with Groove Job. com on a regular basis. We add new part-time job listings to our database every week, so you’ll find new job opportunities every time you check back with us. Using GrooveJob. com to find student work and summer jobs in Indio is that easy. Thank you for listening. I wish you all good luck. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分） 第一节 （共 15 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Bow Seat Ocean Awareness Contest The 2026 Bow Seat Ocean Awareness Contest is an international student art contest focused on ocean protection. It aims to inspire creativity and raise awareness about the importance of preserving the world’s oceans and marine (海洋的) resources. Theme: This year’s theme is “Marine Keystone Species” — species essential for maintaining healthy and balanced ocean ecosystems. Eligibility (资格): The contest is open to secondary/high school students aged 11 to 19. College/university students cannot enter. There are two categories: 11-14 years old and 15-19 years old. Prizes: First, second, and third place prizes will be awarded in each age category. Application (Open Now!): Students must apply by filling out an online entry form and uploading a digital image of their artwork. The deadline for submissions is May 3, 2026. Artwork Rules: Entries must be: ●An original, hand-created piece (like a painting or drawing) . ●Two-dimensional (2D). ●Describe an ocean-living keystone species. ●Clearly show the species’ critical role within its marine ecosystem. Judging: A group of artists, educators, and scientists will evaluate entries based on artistic quality, originality, and relevance to the theme. Certificates (证书): All eligible participants will receive certificates after the winners are announced in December, 2026. We look forward to your active participation and expressive creations. 21．What is the international art competition aimed at? A．Protecting ocean environment. B．Mining mineral resources. C．Publishing students’ works. D．Exploring keystone species. 22．Who can sign up for the contest? A．A fisherman aged 28. B．A high school student aged 17. C．A 39-year-old marine biologist. D．An 18-year-old university freshman. 23．Which artwork is qualified for the competition? A．A digital painting. B．A handmade poster. C．A delicate photography. D．A creative sculpture. 【答案】21．A 22．B 23．B 【导语】本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍2026年Bow Seat Ocean Awareness Contest的主题、参赛资格、作品规则等相关信息，呼吁学生积极参与。 21．细节理解题。根据第一段中的“The 2026 Bow Seat Ocean Awareness Contest is an international student art contest focused on ocean protection. It aims to inspire creativity and raise awareness about the importance of preserving the world’s oceans and marine (海洋的) resources.(2026 年Bow Seat Ocean Awareness Contest是一项以海洋保护为重点的国际学生艺术比赛。它旨在激发创造力，提高人们对保护世界海洋和海洋资源重要性的认识)”可知，这项国际艺术比赛旨在激发创造力，提高人们对保护海洋和海洋资源的意识，核心是保护海洋环境。故选A项。 22．细节理解题。根据第三段中的“The contest is open to secondary/high school students aged 11 to 19. College/university students cannot enter.(比赛面向11至19岁的初高中学生。大学生不能参加)”可知，17岁的高中生符合参赛资格，可以报名参加比赛。故选B项。 23．细节理解题。根据Artwork Rules部分中的“Entries must be: ●An original, hand-created piece (like a painting or drawing) . ●Two-dimensional (2D).(参赛作品必须是：●原创的手工作品（如绘画或素描）。●二维的)”可知，手工海报属于原创手工、二维作品，符合比赛要求。故选B项。 B （改编）In August 2005, I left my quiet coastal hometown in Maine for Chicago, a big city famous for its skyscrapers and lively cultural scene. My hometown had only one small bookstore and no art galleries, so the endless concerts, museums and restaurants in Chicago seemed like a dream come true. As a college freshman, I was excited to embrace the city’s energy — yet I often found myself longing for the sound of waves crashing and the smell of salt in the air. Years went by, and I built a fulfilling life in Chicago: I graduated, got a job I loved, and made lifelong friends. Still, a soft nostalgia (乡愁) for Maine lingered, and I soon realized that “home” isn’t defined by the number of attractions a place has, but by the sense of comfort and belonging it brings. It’s the way the light falls on the ocean at sunset, the taste of my mom’s seafood chowder, and the familiarity of bumping into neighbors on the street. “Homesickness often arises when we’re missing the emotional comfort of a familiar environment, not just the place itself,” says Dr. Lisa Carter, a psychologist who specializes in human attachment. “We don’t just miss a location — we miss the routines, the relationships, and the sense of safety that location provided. For some, this comfort can be recreated in a new place; for others, it remains a unique part of their past.” Although the nostalgia for Maine has never truly faded, even after years of happy life in Chicago, there are simple ways to ease this kind of longing. Creating small, familiar rituals in your new life — like baking your hometown’s favorite cookies every Sunday or taking a walk in a nearby park at the same time each evening — can help build a new sense of stability. These little acts don’t erase the memories of home; instead, they weave those memories into the fabric of your present life. I’m fortunate to have a good foundation in Chicago, with a loving family, supportive friends and a comfortable home, but however much I love my life in Chicago, there’s a part of me that will forever belong to Maine. 24.What was the author's initial feeling in Chicago? A. Pure excitement and joy. B. Total disappointment and fear. C. Excitement mixed with homesickness. D. Only longing for the sea. 25. What defines "home" for the author? A. The number of local attractions. B. A feeling of comfort and belonging. C. The taste of mom's seafood. D. Familiar neighbors on the street. 26. What does Dr. Carter say about homesickness? A. Only related to daily routines. B. A sign of poor adaptability. C. Missing a location's physical features. D. Lacking emotional comfort of a familiar place. 27. What can be inferred about the author? A. He will always miss his hometown. B. He plans to move back to Maine. C. Chicago has become his true home. D. He regrets his decision to leave. 【答案】24．C 25．B 26．D 27．A 【导语】本文是一篇夹叙夹议文。文章主要讲述了作者离开家乡缅因州前往芝加哥上大学，尽管在芝加哥建立了充实的生活，但对家乡的思念之情从未消散，同时探讨了缓解乡愁的方法。 24．细节理解题。根据第一段“As a college freshman, I was excited to embrace the city’s energy — yet I often found myself longing for the sound of waves crashing and the smell of salt in the air. (作为一名大一新生，我很兴奋能拥抱这座城市的活力——然而，我经常发现自己渴望海浪拍打的声音和空气中盐的味道)”可知，作者初到芝加哥时，既有对城市活力的兴奋，又夹杂着对家乡海岸生活的思念。故选C项。 25．细节理解题。根据第二段“Still, a soft nostalgia (乡愁) for Maine lingered, and I soon realized that “home” isn’t defined by the number of attractions a place has, but by the sense of comfort and belonging it brings. (然而，对缅因州的淡淡乡愁挥之不去，我很快意识到，“家”不是由一个地方有多少景点来定义的，而是由它带来的舒适感和归属感来定义的)”可知，对于作者来说，定义“家”的是一种舒适和归属感，而非具体的景点或事物。故选B项。 26．细节理解题。根据第三段“Homesickness often arises when we’re missing the emotional comfort of a familiar environment, not just the place itself,” says Dr. Lisa Carter... “We don’t just miss a location — we miss the routines, the relationships, and the sense of safety that location provided. (“思乡病通常源于我们怀念熟悉环境带来的情感慰藉，而不仅仅是那个地方本身，”丽莎·卡特博士说……“我们怀念的不仅仅是一个地点——我们怀念的是那个地点所提供的日常生活、人际关系和安全感。”)”可知，卡特博士认为思乡是因为缺乏熟悉环境带来的情感慰藉。故选D项。 27．推理判断题。根据文章最后一段“I’m fortunate to have a good foundation in Chicago... but however much I love my life in Chicago, there’s a part of me that will forever belong to Maine. (我很幸运在芝加哥有了良好的基础……但无论我多么热爱我在芝加哥的生活，我的一部分将永远属于缅因州)”可推知，尽管作者在芝加哥生活幸福，但他内心深处始终保留着对家乡的眷恋，这种情感不会消失。故选A项。 C When someone sets out to improve their health, they usually take a familiar path: starting a healthy diet, adopting a new workout plan, getting better sleep, or drinking more water. Each of these behaviors is important, of course, but they all focus on physical health — and a growing body of research suggests that social health is just as, if not more, important to overall well-being. A recent study found that the strength of a person’s social circle — as measured by cell phone activity — was a better predictor of self-reported stress, happiness and well-being levels than fitness tracker data on physical activity, heart rate and sleep. That finding suggests that the “quantified self” presented by endless amounts of health data doesn’t tell the whole story, says study co-author Nitesh Chawla. “There’s a qualified self, which is who I am, what my activities, my social network, my lifestyle, and my enjoyment are. All of these aspects are not reflected in any of these measurements,” Chawla says. “And they are strong determinants of my well-being.” A 2019 study set out to determine what’s driving those high rates of loneliness and found that social media, when used so much that it occupied face-to-face quality time, was tied to greater loneliness. Gender and income didn’t seem to have a strong effect, but loneliness tended to decrease with age, perhaps because of the wisdom and perspective afforded by years of life lived, says Dr. Stuart Lustig, one of the report’s authors. Lustig emphasizes that we should use technology “to seek out meaningful connections and people that you are able to keep in your social sphere (范围). It’s easy enough to find groups such as Meetups, which regularly organize offline gatherings, providing members with opportunities to interact, share, and participate in various activities in real life. Or through social media, you can find places to go where you’ll find folks doing what you want to do.” That advice is particularly important for young people, he says, for whom heavy social media use is common. Finally, Lustig stresses that even small social changes can have a large impact.Striking up post-meeting conversations with co-workers, or even engaging in micro-interactions with strangers, can make your social life feel more rewarding. 28．What is the author’s purpose in writing paragraph 1? A．To show social health is ignored by some people. B．To show social people like to do workouts with others. C．To prove many people tend to follow suit to improve their health. D．To prove more and more people have benefited from physical exercise. 29．What do we learn about fitness tracker data according to paragraph 2? A．They are out of date. B．They are more scientific. C．They can help realize the “qualified self”. D．They cannot reflect one’s overall health. 30．What did the 2019 study find? A．The overuse of social media could lead to loneliness. B．Old people felt lonelier than young people. C．Females feel happy more easily than males. D．Income had a great influence on people’s well-being. 31．What advice does Dr. Stuart Lustig give? A．Avoiding talking to strangers. B．Using social media as little as possible. C．Using technology for meaningful face-to-face interactions. D．Spending more time with like-minded young people. 【答案】28．A 29．D 30．A 31．C 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章通过介绍相关研究，指出社会健康(社交关系)对整体幸福感的重要性，分析了过度使用社交媒体可能导致孤独感，并建议利用技术寻求有意义的面对面互动以增进社交健康。 28．推理判断题。根据第一段“When someone sets out to improve their health, they usually take a familiar path: starting a healthy diet, adopting a new workout plan, getting better sleep, or drinking more water. Each of these behaviors is important, of course, but they all focus on physical health — and a growing body of research suggests that social health is just as, if not more, important to overall well-being. (当人们着手改善健康时，他们通常走一条熟悉的路：开始健康饮食、采用新的锻炼计划、改善睡眠或喝更多水。当然，这些行为都很重要，但它们都关注身体健康——而越来越多的研究表明，社会健康对整体幸福感同样重要，甚至更重要)”可知，作者列举了人们通常关注的改善身体健康的行为，然后转折提出社会健康的重要性，其目的是为了揭示社会健康常被人们忽视。故选A项。 29．推理判断题。根据第二段中“A recent study found that the strength of a person’s social circle — as measured by cell phone activity — was a better predictor of self-reported stress, happiness and well-being levels than fitness tracker data on physical activity, heart rate and sleep. That finding suggests that the “quantified self” presented by endless amounts of health data doesn’t tell the whole story, says study co-author Nitesh Chawla.(最近一项研究发现，通过手机活动数据衡量的人际社交圈强度，比健身追踪器提供的体力活动、心率和睡眠数据更能准确预测人们自我报告的压力水平、幸福感与整体健康状态。该研究的合著者尼泰什·乔拉指出，这一发现表明，海量健康数据所呈现的“量化自我”并不能反映全貌)”可推知，健康追踪器数据(代表“量化自我”)并不能反映一个人的整体健康(如社会健康、幸福感等)。故选D项。 30．细节理解题。根据第四段中“A 2019 study set out to determine what’s driving those high rates of loneliness and found that social media, when used so much that it occupied face-to-face quality time, was tied to greater loneliness. (一项2019年的研究旨在确定是什么导致了高孤独感，结果发现，当社交媒体使用过多，占据了面对面高质量相处时间时，它与更强的孤独感相关)”可知，该研究发现过度使用社交媒体可能导致孤独感。故选A项。 31．细节理解题。根据第五段中“Lustig emphasizes that we should use technology “to seek out meaningful connections and people that you are able to keep in your social sphere (范围). It’s easy enough to find groups such as Meetups, which regularly organize offline gatherings, providing members with opportunities to interact, share, and participate in various activities in real life. Or through social media, you can find places to go where you’ll find folks doing what you want to do.” (拉斯特格强调，我们应当借助技术“去寻求有意义的联结，并维系那些能真正融入你社交范围的人。如今，寻找志同道合的群体已十分便捷——例如定期组织线下聚会的Meetup平台，能为成员提供真实互动、分享与参与多样化活动的机会；又或者通过社交媒体，你可以轻松发现适合前往的场所，在那里找到与你兴趣相投的人群”)”可知，拉斯特格博士建议利用线上平台组织线下聚会，即利用技术来促成有意义的面对面互动。故选C项。 D Enjoying a juicy watermelon is one of summer’s greatest pleasures, particularly when you don’t have to avoid any seeds. Indeed, humans have adapted many fruits to be seedless in search of a more pleasant eating experience. The navel orange (a sweet orange that is usually seedless), for example, came about after a random genetic mutation (随机的基因突变) produced a single branch with seedless fruit long ago. Cuttings of the branch were joined to other trees, and today, all of the world’s navel oranges are copies of this original. A similar discovery led to seedless grapes, which are thought to first appear in ancient Rome before making their way to the Americas in the 1870s. Scientists have a few guesses about why plants might have developed these abilities and they tried out the combinations in experiments. For one, plants can hybridize more easily than some kinds of animals, and hybridization unlocks the new potential. Even if some combinations don’t pan out, researchers have recorded examples of “hybrid advantage”, in which a hybrid is fitter than either of its parents. Lastly, because the purpose of fruit is to draw animals near to help spread their seeds, the production of fruits without fertilization (受精) may ultimately allow trees to produce more fruit at a lower energetic cost if they don’t need to make seeds, too. Regardless of why seedless fruits exist, they represent an interesting thought experiment, according to Stacey Smith, a plant evolutionary biologist at the University of Colorado Boulder. Many are unable to continue surviving without human involvement, but they’re boosted to grow in the wild for that same reason. There are very few, if any, wild navel oranges, and yet it’s estimated that California will produce 76 million cartons of them this year alone. “My personal take is that all plants under human care have won in some sense, because they don’t have to make more of themselves. We do it for them,” Smith told Live Science. “And we will never stop eating watermelons, and being able to make seedless ones just means we eat more watermelons.” 32．What is the similarity between the orange and grape mentioned in the text? A．Being native to ancient Rome. B．Being seedless due to genetic change. C．Being grown from seeds rather than cuttings. D．Being joined to other plants for a sweeter taste. 33．What does the underlined phrase “pan out” in paragraph 3 probably mean? A．Die out. B．Fall through. C．Come apart. D．Work out. 34．Why is the existence of seedless fruits considered a thought experiment? A．It contributes to the balance of nature. B．People still have doubts regarding seedless fruits. C．It inspires thinking on natural selection and human activity. D．Seedless fruits have a high demand but limited production. 35．What is the best title of the text? A．Hybridization: The Key to Seedless Fruits’ Success B．Seedless Fruits: A Human-Aided Evolutionary Wonder C．The Journey of Seedless Fruits: From Mutation to Market D．Genetic Mutations: The Only Way to Create Seedless Fruits 【答案】32．B 33．D 34．C 35．B 【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了无籽水果的起源、发展以及它们与人类活动的关系。 32．细节理解题。根据第二段中“The navel orange (a sweet orange that is usually seedless), for example, came about after a random genetic mutation produced a single branch with seedless fruit long ago. (例如，脐橙，一种通常无籽的甜橙，是在很久以前随机的基因突变产生了一个无籽果实的单枝后产生的)”和“A similar discovery led to seedless grapes, which are thought to first appear in ancient Rome before making their way to the Americas in the 1870s. (类似的发现导致了无籽葡萄的出现，无籽葡萄被认为最早出现在古罗马，然后在19世纪70年代传到了美洲)”可知，脐橙和无籽葡萄的相似之处在于都是由于基因变化而变得无籽。故选B项。 33．词句猜测题。画线部分的上文“Scientists have a few guesses about why plants might have developed these abilities and they tried out the combinations in experiments. For one, plants can hybridize more easily than some kinds of animals, and hybridization unlocks the new potential. (科学家们对植物为什么会发展出这些能力有一些猜测，他们在实验中尝试了这些组合。首先，植物比某些动物更容易杂交，而杂交释放了新的潜力)”提到科学家们尝试不同的组合，用杂交的手段释放新的潜力，Even if“即使”表示让步关系，再结合画线部分的下文“researchers have recorded examples of “hybrid advantage”, in which a hybrid is fitter than either of its parents (研究人员也记录了“杂交优势”的例子，在这种情况下，杂交后代比其父母中的任何一个都更适合)”可推知，虽然有些组合可能不成功，但也存在杂交优势的例子，画线部分意思应该是“成功，奏效”，与Work out意思最为接近。故选D项。 34．推理判断题。根据第四段中“Regardless of why seedless fruits exist, they represent an interesting thought experiment, according to Stacey Smith, a plant evolutionary biologist at the University of Colorado Boulder. Many are unable to continue surviving without human involvement, but they’re boosted to grow in the wild for that same reason. (科罗拉多大学博尔德分校的植物进化生物学家Stacey Smith表示，不管无籽水果存在的原因是什么，它们都代表了一个有趣的思想实验。如果没有人类的参与，许多水果无法继续生存，但出于同样的原因，它们被鼓励在野外生长)”可知，无籽水果的存在依赖于人类的干预，而不是自然选择。由此推知，无籽水果的存在是一个有趣的思想实验，是因为这引发了关于自然选择和人类活动之间关系的思考。故选C项。 35．主旨大意题。通读全文，尤其是最后一段中Smith所说的话“My personal take is that all plants under human care have won in some sense, because they don’t have to make more of themselves. We do it for them (我个人的看法是，所有在人类照料下的植物都在某种意义上取得了胜利，因为它们不需要自己繁殖。我们为它们完成了这个活动)”可知，文章主要介绍了无籽水果的起源、发展以及它们与人类活动的关系。文章提到，无籽水果的出现是由于基因突变和人类的选择性繁殖，并且它们的生存依赖于人类的干预。因此，B项“无籽水果：人类辅助的进化奇迹”最能概括文章的核心内容，适合作为文章标题。故选B项。 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Have Better, Deeper Conversations In today’s fast-paced world, distractions are everywhere, especially from our phones. When catching up with friends, it can be frustrating when their attention shifts away. 36 It’s a skill that can be cultivated. Here are three key ways to enhance your listening ability. Avoid distractions. To be an effective listener, start by putting away your phone and other distractions. Research shows that multitasking distracts our attention and hampers the quality of our conversations. As musician Hishikesh Hirway says, “Trying to listen to one song while singing another in your head is impossible.” 37 Reflect on what you hear. Active listening is more than just being silent. 38 Phrases like “What I hear you saying is” can confirm your understanding. Also, resist the urge to share your own stories immediately; keep the conversation centered on them. 39 Nonverbal communication plays a vital role in conversations. Maintaining eye contact, having an open posture, and nodding can show that you’re engaged. These small gestures help the other person feel valued and encourage them to continue sharing. Improving your listening skills takes practice. 40 As Hirway advises, “Let the other person know you’re listening and stay focused.” A．Use nonverbal cues. B．Look up to show interest. C．So to build stronger relationships, active listening is essential. D．But with a bit more effort, you can foster deeper conversations. E．Engage by asking questions or summarizing what the other person says F．Therefore, during conversations, focus fully on the person in front of you. G．Taking notes while listening can help you remember the conversation better. 【答案】36．C 37．F 38．E 39．A 40．D 【导语】这是一篇说明文。本篇文章主要讲述了如何通过提升自己的聆听能力，促进更深层次交流。 36．根据上文“In today’s fast-paced world, distractions are everywhere, especially from our phones. When catching up with fiends, it can be frustrating when their attention shifts away.(在当今快节奏的世界里，干扰无处不在，尤其是来自手机的干扰。当你和朋友聊天时，他们的注意力会转移，这会让你感到沮丧)”以及下文“It’s a skill that can be cultivated. Here are three key ways to enhance your listening ability.(这是一种可以培养的技能。这里有三个提高听力能力的关键方法)”可知，本句与上文构成因果关系，指出倾听对于建立关系的重要性。故C选项“因此，为了建立更牢固的关系，积极倾听是必不可少的”符合语境。故选C。 37．根据上文“As musician Hishikesh Hirway says, “Trying to listen to one song while singing another in your head is impossible.”(正如音乐家Hishikesh Hirway所说：“试图在你的脑海里一边听一首歌一边唱另一首歌是不可能的。”)”可知，上文提到音乐家所言，想要听着一首歌再唱出另一首歌这是不可能的。说明了在谈话中我们要全心全意关注和你讲话的这个人，不受其他干扰，故F选项“因此，在谈话中，把注意力完全集中在你面前的人身上”符合语境。故选F。 38．根据上文“Active listening is more than just being silent(积极倾听不仅仅是保持沉默)”可知，上文提到了积极倾听不仅仅是保持沉默，本句继续补充积极倾听的要求。故E选项“通过提问或总结对方所说的内容来参与”符合语境。故选E。 39．根据本段内容“Nonverbal communication plays a vital role in conversations. Maintaining eye contact, having an open posture, and nodding can show that you’re engaged. These small gestures help the other person feel valued and encourage them to continue sharing.(非语言交际在谈话中起着至关重要的作用。保持眼神交流，保持开放的姿势，点头都能表明你在认真倾听。这些小小的举动可以帮助对方感到被重视，并鼓励他们继续分享)”可知，本段主要说明了肢体语言在谈话中的作用，A选项nonverbal cues对应后文Nonverbal communication。故A选项“使用非语言暗示”符合语境。故选A。 40．根据上文“Improving your listening skills takes practice.(提高倾听技能需要练习)”以及下文“As Hirway advises, “Let the other person know you’re listening and stay focused.”(正如Hirway建议的那样，“让对方知道你在倾听，并保持专注。”)”可知，上文提到了提高倾听技能，结合文章主旨是深层次倾听，推测本句主要说明了如何促进更深层次的交流。故D选项“但只要再努力一点，你就能促进更深层次的对话”符合语境。故选D。 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分 30分) 第一节：(共15小题;每小题 1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last summer, I volunteered at a multicultural community center in my city. The center serves people from all over the world, including immigrants, refugees, and local residents. My job was to help organize cultural events and assist with language classes. On my first day, I was 41 to see so many people from different ethnic groups working and playing together. There were Mexican families making nachos, Chinese elders practicing tai chi, and American teenagers learning Cantonese. I felt a little 42 at first, but the staff and volunteers were very friendly and welcoming. One of my favorite events was the “World Food Festival,” where residents brought dishes from their home countries. I helped set up the tables and 43 the food to visitors. I tasted gumbo from Louisiana, spicy cheese from Mexico, and dim sum from China. It was amazing to see how food could bring people together, regardless of their 44 . I also helped teach English classes to new immigrants. Many of them had come to this country to 45 a better life for their families. They were 46 to learn, and I was inspired by their determination. One student, a young woman from Syria, told me that learning English was her first step to 47 her dream of becoming a doctor. As the summer went on, I began to 48 the beauty of cultural diversity. I learned to respect different customs and traditions, and I made many friends from all over the world. Volunteering at the community center taught me that 49 is not a barrier, but a bridge that connects us all. When the summer ended, I was sad to leave, but I knew that the 50 I had gained would stay with me forever. I learned that in a diverse society, we can all learn from each other and grow together. 51 , this experience also made me realize that we have a 52 to help those in need. One memory that still 53 with me is of a little boy from Guatemala who struggled to speak English. I spent extra time with him, using games and songs to make learning fun. By the end of the summer, he could 54 simple sentences and smile confidently. Moments like this 55 that our work truly matters. 41．A．shocked B．excited C．bored D．tired 42．A．nervous B．happy C．angry D．calm 43．A．served B．cooked C．bought D．sold 44．A．age B．gender C．background D．profession 45．A．seek B．lose C．waste D．forget 46．A．unwilling B．eager C．afraid D．slow 47．A．achieving B．giving up C．forgetting D．changing 48．A．hate B．appreciate C．ignore D．fear 49．A．diversity B．conflict C．language D．money 50．A．skills B．lessons C．friends D．memories 51．A．However B．Therefore C．Moreover D．Otherwise 52．A．weak B．strong C．kind D．duty 53．A．stays B．leaves C．goes D．passes 54．A．break B．form C．destroy D．ignore 55．A．prove B．doubt C．deny D．pretend 【答案】 41．B 42．A 43．A 44．C 45．A 46．B 47．A 48．B 49．A 50．B 51．C 52．D 53．A 54．B 55．A 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者在多元文化社区做志愿者，收获成长并懂得包容与责任的故事。 41．考查形容词词义辨析。句意：第一天，我兴奋地看到如此多来自不同民族的人一起工作、玩耍。A. shocked震惊的；B. excited兴奋的；C. bored无聊的；D. tired疲惫的。根据后文“see so many people from different ethnic groups working and playing together”可知，看到不同种族的人一起工作玩耍，作者应是兴奋的。故选B。 42．考查形容词词义辨析。句意：一开始我有点紧张，但工作人员和志愿者都非常友好热情。A. nervous紧张的；B. happy开心的；C. angry生气的；D. calm冷静的。根据后文转折“but the staff and volunteers were very friendly and welcoming”可知作者一开始有点紧张。故选A。 43．考查动词词义辨析。句意：我帮忙摆桌子，并给游客分发食物。A. served服务，端上；B. cooked烹饪；C. bought买；D. sold卖。根据后文“the food to visitors”可知，志愿者在美食节应是为客人提供食物。故选A。 44．考查名词词义辨析。句意：看到食物能将人们聚集在一起，无论他们的背景如何，这太令人惊叹了。A. age年龄；B. gender性别；C. background背景；D. profession职业。根据前文“I volunteered at a multicultural community center in my city. The center serves people from all over the world”及“where residents brought dishes from their home countries”可知，不同国家的人带来各自国家的食物，强调不同种族和文化背景的人通过食物连接。故选C。 45．考查动词词义辨析。句意：他们中的许多人来到这个国家是为了为家人寻求更好的生活。A. seek寻求；B. lose失去；C. waste浪费；D. forget忘记。根据后文“a better life for their families”可知，移民到新国家是为了追求更好的生活。故选A。 46．考查形容词词义辨析。句意：他们渴望学习，他们的决心让我深受鼓舞。A. unwilling不情愿的；B. eager渴望的；C. afraid害怕的；D. slow缓慢的。根据后文“I was inspired by their determination”可知，他们的决心让作者深受鼓舞，说明他们渴望学习。故选B。 47．考查动词词义辨析。句意：一位来自叙利亚的年轻女学生告诉我，学习英语是她实现成为一名医生梦想的第一步。A. achieving实现；B. giving up放弃；C. forgetting忘记；D. changing改变。根据后文“her dream of becoming a doctor”可知，她努力学习英语是为了成为医生，即实现梦想。故选A。 48．考查动词词义辨析。句意：随着夏天的推进，我开始欣赏文化多样性的美丽。A. hate讨厌；B. appreciate欣赏；C. ignore忽视；D. fear害怕。根据后文“the beauty of cultural diversity. I learned to respect different customs and traditions”可知，作者学会尊重不同习俗和传统，对文化多样性持积极欣赏态度。故选B。 49．考查名词词义辨析。句意：在社区中心做志愿者让我明白，多样性不是障碍，而是连接我们所有人的桥梁。A. diversity多样性；B. conflict冲突；C. language语言；D. money钱。根据前文“the beauty of cultural diversity”以及后文“is not a barrier, but a bridge that connects us all”可知，全文围绕文化多元展开主题，此处呼应主题。故选A。 50．考查名词词义辨析。句意：当夏天结束时，我很难过要离开，但我知道我学到的经验教训将永远陪伴着我。A. skills技能；B. lessons经验教训；C. friends朋友；D. memories记忆。根据后文“I learned that in a diverse society, we can all learn from each other and grow together.”可知，作者从经历中获得人生感悟，互相学习、帮助他人等是人生经验教训。故选B。 51．考查副词词义辨析。句意：此外，这次经历也让我意识到我们有责任帮助那些需要帮助的人。A. However然而；B. Therefore因此；C. Moreover此外；D. Otherwise否则。根据前文“we can all learn from each other and grow together”及后文“this experience also made me realize that we have a to help those in need.”可知，前后是递进关系。故选C。 52．考查名词词义辨析。句意：此外，这次经历也让我意识到我们有责任帮助那些需要帮助的人。A. weak虚弱的；B. strong强壮的；C. kind善良的；D. duty责任。根据后文“to help those in need”可知，这里指有责任帮助需要帮助的人，have a duty to do sth.表示“有责任做某事”。故选D。 53．考查动词词义辨析。句意：一个至今仍留在我记忆中的画面是一个来自危地马拉的小男孩，他努力说英语。A. stays停留；B. leaves离开；C. goes去；D. passes通过。根据“with me is of a little boy from Guatemala who struggled to speak English”可知，是留在作者记忆中，stay with sb.意为“留在某人记忆中/心中”。故选A。 54．考查动词词义辨析。句意：到夏末时，他已经能造出简单的句子并自信地微笑了。A. break打破；B. form组成；C. destroy破坏；D. ignore忽视。根据前文“a little boy from Guatemala who struggled to speak English”及后文“simple sentences”可知，通过努力小男孩会简单的造句，form sentences意为“造句”。故选B。 55．考查动词词义辨析。句意：像这样的时刻证明我们的工作确实很重要。A. prove证明；B. doubt怀疑；C. deny否认；D. pretend假装。根据后文“that our work truly matters”可知，这些经历证实了志愿活动的意义。故选A。 第二节：(10个小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。 The concept of a “smart city” has gained immense popularity in recent years. 56 refers to an urban area that uses various types of electronic data collection sensors to supply information 57 (manage) resources efficiently. This idea is not merely a fantasy; it is gradually becoming a reality. One key aspect of smart cities is the integration of 58 (advance) technologies into the public transportation system. Sensors and AI algorithms work together to predict traffic flow and adjust signals accordingly, reducing congestion 59 (dramatic). However, the application of such systems 60 (require) substantial investment and cooperation between governments and tech companies. Despite the challenges, many cities are moving forward with smart projects. For instance, in some cities, lampposts are equipped 61 sensors that monitor air quality. These data are then analyzed to make policies 62 (aim) at improving public health. Critics argue that these technologies may invade people’s privacy, 63 supporters believe the benefits outweigh the risks. Interestingly, the smart city model also draws 64 (inspire) from nature. Some designers propose systems that mimic the efficiency of ecosystems, 65 waste from one process becomes raw material for another. Such an approach not only enhances sustainability but also strengthens the city’s resilience against environmental crises. 【答案】 56．It 57．to manage 58．advanced 59．dramatically 60．requires 61．with 62．aimed 63．while 64．inspiration 65．where 【导语】这是一篇说明文，主要介绍了“智慧城市”的概念、核心特点、实际应用案例、存在的争议以及其设计灵感的来源，展现了智慧城市在资源管理、交通优化、公共健康等方面的优势与挑战。 56．考查代词。句意：它指的是一个利用各类电子数据收集传感器来提供信息，从而高效管理资源的城区。此处指代前文提到的The concept of a smart city，为单数概念，在句中作主语，需用代词It。注意首字母大写。故填It。 57．考查非谓语动词。句意：它指的是一个利用各类电子数据收集传感器来提供信息，从而高效管理资源的城区。分析句子结构可知，空处作目的状语，用动词不定式结构to do，表“提供信息的目的是高效管理资源”。故填to manage。 58．考查形容词。句意：智慧城市的一个关键特征是将先进技术融入公共交通系统。此处修饰名词technologies，需用形容词形式，advance的形容词是advanced（先进的）。故填advanced。 59．考查副词。句意：传感器和人工智能算法协同工作，预测交通流量并相应调整信号灯，大幅减少交通拥堵。此处修饰动词reducing，需用副词形式，dramatic的副词是dramatically（显著地；大幅度地）。故填dramatically。 60．考查动词时态和主谓一致。句意：然而，此类系统的应用需要政府和科技企业投入大量资金并开展合作。句子描述客观事实，用一般现在时；主语the application of such systems为单数，谓语动词用第三人称单数形式requires。故填requires。 61．考查介词。句意：例如，在一些城市，路灯杆上安装了监测空气质量的传感器。be equipped with是固定搭配，意为“配备有；安装有”，符合语境。故填with。 62．考查非谓语动词。句意：这些数据随后会被分析，用以制定旨在改善公众健康的政策。分析句子结构可知，空处作后置定语修饰policies，policies与aim之间是被动关系，用过去分词形式aimed，be aimed at意为“旨在；目的是”。故填aimed。 63．考查连词。句意：批评者认为这些技术可能会侵犯人们的隐私，而支持者则认为其益处大于风险。此处连接两个对立的观点，表转折对比关系，需用连词while（然而）。故填while。 64．考查名词。句意：有趣的是，智慧城市的模型也从自然界中汲取灵感。此处作动词draws的宾语，需用名词形式，inspire的名词是inspiration（灵感），为不可数名词。故填inspiration。 65．考查定语从句。句意：一些设计师提出了模仿生态系统效率的系统，在这些系统中，一个流程产生的废弃物会成为另一个流程的原材料。此处引导非限制性定语从句，先行词是systems，在从句中作抽象地点状语，表“在这些系统中”，需用关系副词where。故填where。 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分 15 分) 66．假设你是李华，你校正在开展“保护水资源”主题活动。请你为校英文报写一封倡议书，呼吁全校同学共同行动，减少水污染。内容包括： 1．水污染的现状及危害； 2．具体倡议措施； 3．发起倡议。 注意： 1．词数80左右； 2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Dear fellow students, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 【答案】Dear fellow students, Water pollution is getting worse these days. Polluted water not only harms our health but also endangers plants and animals that live in or depend on it. It’s high time that we took action. To reduce pollution, we can avoid throwing trash into rivers, use less chemical cleaners, and save water in our daily lives. Even small changes, like turning off taps tightly, can help cut down on waste and protect our water. By making these simple habits part of our daily routine, we can truly make a positive difference to our planet. Let’s work together to protect our precious water resources. Every drop and every action matters! Yours sincerely, Li Hua 【导语】本篇书面表达要求考生以李华的身份，为校英文报撰写一封旨在“保护水资源、减少水污染”的倡议书，呼吁全校同学共同行动，传递环保理念。 【详解】1. 词汇积累 危及：endanger → threaten 减少：reduce → lessen 珍贵的：precious → treasured 重要：matter → count 2. 句式拓展 同义句转换 原句：To reduce pollution, we can avoid throwing trash into rivers, use less chemical cleaners, and save water in our daily lives. 拓展句：There are simple ways that we can follow to fight pollution, such as avoiding throwing trash into rivers, using less chemical cleaners and saving water in daily lives. 【点睛】【高分句型 1】Polluted water not only harms our health but also endangers plants and animals that live in or depend on it. (运用了that引导的定语从句) 【高分句型 2】It’s high time that we took action. (运用了It’s high time + that 定语从句句式，从句用虚拟语气) 第二节 (满分 25 分) 67．阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Last Sunday, my parents had to go to my grandma’s home because she was ill. They told me I had to look after my 6-year-old brother, Leo, for the whole day. I was 16, and it was the first time I had to take care of him alone. I thought it would be easy — just play with him and feed him some snacks. But I was wrong. In the morning, Leo refused to brush his teeth and cried for a toy car that he left at grandma’s. I tried to calm him down, but he just cried louder. After I finally got him to brush his teeth, I found out I forgot to buy milk for his breakfast. I had to run to the supermarket downstairs in a hurry, leaving Leo at home alone for five minutes. When I came back, I saw Leo sitting on the floor, drawing on the living room wall with a red marker! I felt so angry and stressed that I shouted at him. Leo was scared by my voice, and he started crying again. I stood there, looking at the messy wall and the crying boy, and I didn’t know what to do. I thought to myself, How can I mess this up so badly? My parents will be so disappointed in me. Paragraph 1: I took a deep breath and got down on my knees to Leo’s level. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2: When my parents came back home in the evening, the house was clean and tidy. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】例文 Paragraph 1: I took a deep breath and got down on my knees to Leo’s level. I said sorry to him softly, “I shouldn’t shout at you, Leo. That was my fault.” He stopped crying a little and looked at me with his wet eyes. I told him if he helped me clean the wall, I would make his favorite fried eggs for breakfast and buy his favorite strawberry yogurt from the supermarket. He nodded his head and wiped his tears with his small hand. We got a wet cloth and cleaned the wall together. It took us an hour, but Leo never complained. When we finished, I made the breakfast for him, and he ate it up happily. I felt a warm feeling in my heart — taking care of him wasn’t that hard if I was patient. Paragraph 2: When my parents came back home in the evening, the house was clean and tidy. Leo ran to them at once and told them how I took care of him all day, talking about the breakfast and the yogurt excitedly. My parents looked at me with surprise and pride. They hugged me and said, “We knew you could do it.” I told them about my mistakes and how I fixed them. That day, I not only learned how to look after Leo, but also understood how tired my parents are every day. This experience made me grow up a lot, teaching me to be a more patient and responsible person for my family. 【导语】本文以人物为线索展开，讲述了16岁的“我”第一次独自照顾6岁弟弟Leo，因突发状况手忙脚乱、对弟弟发脾气，随后冷静反思、主动道歉，和弟弟一起弥补过错，最终学会耐心与责任的故事。 【详解】1. 段落续写 ① 由第一段首句可知，接下来可描写“我”冷静后向Leo道歉，安抚弟弟的情绪，提出合理的弥补办法，和弟弟一起清理墙上的涂鸦，过程中感受到照顾弟弟的不易与温暖，转变心态。 ② 由第二段首句可知，接下来可描写Leo主动向父母讲述白天的事情，父母对“我”的成长感到惊喜与骄傲，“我”向父母坦诚错误并分享感悟，体现“我”的成长与责任担当。 2. 续写线索 冷静反思主动道歉→安抚弟弟情绪→提出弥补方案→和弟弟共同清理、准备早餐→傍晚父母回家→弟弟主动讲述白天经历→父母肯定“我”的成长→“我”坦诚错误、感悟成长 3.词类激活 行为类 ①购买：buy/purchase ②拥抱：hug/embrace 情绪类 ①快乐地：happily/delightedly ②惊讶：surprise/astonishment 【点睛】【高分句型1】I told him if he helped me clean the wall, I would make his favorite fried eggs for breakfast and buy his favorite strawberry yogurt from the supermarket. （运用了if引导条件状语从句） 【高分句型2】Leo ran to them at once and told them how I took care of him all day, talking about the breakfast and the yogurt excitedly. （运用了how引导宾语从句和现在分词talking作状语） 1 / 15 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年高一下学期第三次月考卷01（人教版） （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 英语·参考答案 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 1—5 BBBCC 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分 22.5分） 6—10 ACBAA 11—15 BCABC 16—20 CABAC 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节, 满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2. 5分, 满分37. 5分） 21．A 22．B 23．B 24．C 25．B 26．D 27．A 28．A 29．D 30．A 31．C 32．B 33．D 34．C 35．B 第二节：（共5小题, 每小题2. 5分, 共12. 5分） 36．C 37．F 38．E 39．A 40．D 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分, 共15分） 41． B 42．A 43．A 44．C 45．A 46． B 47．A 48．B 49．A 50．B 51．C 52．D 53．A 54．B 55．A 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1. 5分, 满分15分） 56．It 57．to manage 58．advanced 59．dramatically 60．requires 61．with 62．aimed 63．while 64．inspiration 65．where 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【参考范文】 Dear fellow students, Water pollution is getting worse these days. Polluted water not only harms our health but also endangers plants and animals that live in or depend on it. It’s high time that we took action. To reduce pollution, we can avoid throwing trash into rivers, use less chemical cleaners, and save water in our daily lives. Even small changes, like turning off taps tightly, can help cut down on waste and protect our water. By making these simple habits part of our daily routine, we can truly make a positive difference to our planet. Let’s work together to protect our precious water resources. Every drop and every action matters! Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【参考范文】 I took a deep breath and got down on my knees to Leo’s level. I said sorry to him softly, “I shouldn’t shout at you, Leo. That was my fault.” He stopped crying a little and looked at me with his wet eyes. I told him if he helped me clean the wall, I would make his favorite fried eggs for breakfast and buy his favorite strawberry yogurt from the supermarket. He nodded his head and wiped his tears with his small hand. We got a wet cloth and cleaned the wall together. It took us an hour, but Leo never complained. When we finished, I made the breakfast for him, and he ate it up happily. I felt a warm feeling in my heart — taking care of him wasn’t that hard if I was patient. When my parents came back home in the evening, the house was clean and tidy. Leo ran to them at once and told them how I took care of him all day, talking about the breakfast and the yogurt excitedly. My parents looked at me with surprise and pride. They hugged me and said, “We knew you could do it.” I told them about my mistakes and how I fixed them. That day, I not only learned how to look after Leo, but also understood how tired my parents are every day. This experience made me grow up a lot, teaching me to be a more patient and responsible person for my family. 1 / 15 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $听力考试正式开始。What are we doing? If we keep missing easy shots, we're going to lose this game. We are still up by ten points. Jenny hurt her angle, so we'll have to play harder to keep our lead. Listen to the next question. You missed a singing lesson on . the age of August. okay. So when is my next lesson? It'll be on the fifteenth of August and on the twenty second of August. I'll be away again. Listen to the next question. Hey, did you see? No. no, please don't say anymore. I'm covering for a friend at work this week, so I won't watch IT until the weekend. I've been waiting for this new season for over a year. Please don't tell me anything. Listen to the next question. What's wrong, Rachel, you weren't looking yourself. My mom's got a job in liverpool. I finally made friends after years of loneliness here. Now, if we go again, why can't my mom have a steady job? Listen to the next question. I saw a good band at vast saturday's rock festival. The singer was great. The band was a piano player. I didn't see anything with the piano. The singer was called queen cat. SHE could really dance too. Oh, I know what you mean. The band had three guitars. Listen to the next question. Have you heard about the science project our teacher gave us? It's about air pollution. Yeah, I have to be honest and a little bit worried. I don't have much experience in this field, and i'm not sure if we can gather enough useful information. Don't be so negative. Do you have any ideas on how to begin? Well. I think . doing research on the internet first is a good choice. There's a lot of information about air pollution and ways to solve IT on the internet . that sounds reasonable. Also, we could try to get in touch with some social groups who address air pollution to see if they can give us any help. Good idea. Let's start with the online research first. Have you heard about the science project our teacher gave us? It's about air pollution. Yeah, I have to be honest and a little bit worried. I don't have much experience in this field, and you're not sure if we can gather enough useful information. Don't be so negative. Do you have any ideas on how to begin? Well. I think doing research on the internet first is a good choice. There's a lot of information about air pollution and ways to solve IT on the internet . that sounds reasonable. Also, we could try to get in touch with some social groups who address air pollution to see if they can give us any help. Good idea. Let's start with the online research first. Listen to the next question. And here, ladies and gentlemen, we have the famous artwork, David, by Michael Angelo. When IT was originally made in FIFO, four IT stood outside. But over a century ago, IT was brought here inside the galleria, the academia. Oh, wow. I've seen pictures of IT, but I didn't realize that was this big. It's huge. Yes, a lot of visitors say that when I show IT to them. look at all the details, his arms, his legs. They are amazing, yes. But also look at the hands, especially the right hand. Do you notice anything? They are big? Yes. well done. They're actually bigger than they should be because the artist wanted to show David's power through IT. And here, ladies and gentlemen, we have the famous artwork, David, by Michael Angelo. When IT was originally made in fifteen o four, IT stood outside. But over a century ago, IT was brought here inside the galleria diadem a wow. I've seen pictures of IT, but I didn't realize that with this big, it's huge. Yes, a lot of visitors say that when I show IT to them. look at all the details, his arms, his legs. They are amazing. yes. But also look at the hands, especially the right hand. Do you notice anything? They are big? Yes. well done. They're actually bigger than they should be because the artist wanted to show David's power through IT. Listen to the next question. Excuse me, doctor, darn. We are planning to have a party next friday. Which room could we use? Ah, we are expecting around three hundred people. Doctor Dennis suggested the pine room, but there are too many used books inside, and IT can only hold two hundred and fifty people. What would you suggest? One moment, please. I would suggest the White room IT can hold three hundred and fifty people at the most. Besides, IT was newly decorated. Is IT okay? sure. Thank you. What time . will you need? IT. I believe that six, two, ten PM would . be OK OK. It's all yours during those four hours. Thank you very much. Oh, doctor, darn. Would you please join us in the party on that day? I'd like to, but i'm afraid I can't. I have to work on a speech with doctor Miller that night. Excuse me, doctor, darn. We are planning to have a party next friday. Which room could we use? We are expecting around three hundred people. Doctor Dennis suggested the pine room, but there are too many used books inside, and IT can only hold two hundred and fifty people. What would you suggest? One moment, please. I would suggest the White room IT can hold three hundred and fifty people at the most. Besides, IT was newly decorated. Is IT okay? sure. Thank you. What time will you need? IT? I believe that six, two, ten, P, M would . be OK OK. It's all yours during those four hours. Thank you very much. Oh, doctor, darn. Would you please join us in the party on that day? I like to, but i'm afraid I can't. I have to work on a speech with doctor Miller that night. Listen to the next question. Now you see, this is our sample room. wow. Kington got a large collection of sample food stuff. S. yes, we are expLoring a wide range of food stuff s to various countries, and the demand is on the rise. So IT is IT appears that chinese food stuff are attractive and enjoy great . advantages, you said IT the quality of hours is as good as that of many other suppliers, while our Prices are not so high as theirs. By the way, which items are your focus? Can't goods are a special interest to me, particularly the can fruit, as your can fruit is among the most popular ones in our market. I'm going to place in order in . a day or two. good. How about our kind? me? I think I will also find good market . in our country. I hope so. Our me is in varieties of weight. The small sizes are more salable in our market than the large ones. I've brought with me a sample of can meat, which is only six answers. The smallest size of earth is even bigger than that of mine. I wonder if you can meet. taste Better. You are welcome to have a try here. IT is, now, you see, this is our sample room. wow. Kington got a large collection of sample food stuff. S. yes, we are exporting a wide range of food stuff s to various countries, and the demand is on the rise. so IT is IT appears that chinese food stuff are attractive and enjoy great advantages. you said IT. The quality of hours is as good as that of many other suppliers, while our Prices are not so high as theirs. By the way, which items are your focus? Can goods are a special interest to me, particularly the can fruit, as your can fruit is among the most popular ones in our market, i'm going to place in order in . a day or two. good. How about our can me? I think IT will also find good market in our country. I hope so. Our can meat is in varieties of weight. The small sizes are more salable in our market. In the large ones, i've brought with me a sample of can meat, which is only six answers. The smallest size of ears is even bigger than that of mine. I wonder if you can meet tastes Better. You are welcome to have a try here. IT is. Listen to the next question. Good evening, everyone. It's the end of the term. And if you're looking for part time jobs in india, california or even student jobs and jobs for teens in india, california, you've come to the right place with over thirty thousand job opportunities around the county. Chances are that groove job dot com has the right job for you and wants to be your only source for finding summer work and team jobs in india, california. We've got plenty of part time jobs. Check out the list of employers below who are accepting applications for part time jobs in india. There is also some volunteer jobs on the site. Volunteering is a great way to learn new skills, meet new people, and make an impact on your community. Many schools sent scholarships. Use volunteerism as part of the selection standard. Remember to check back with group job dot com on a regular basis. We add new part time job listings to our database every week, so you'll find new job opportunities every time you check back with us. Using groove job dot com to find student work and summer jobs in india, is that easy? Thank you for listening. I wish you all good luck. Good evening, everyone. It's the end of the term. And if you're looking for part time jobs in india, california or even student jobs and jobs for teens in india, california, you've come to the right place with over thirty thousand job opportunities around the county. Chances are that groove job dot com has the right job for you and wants to be your only source for finding summer work and team jobs in india, california. We've got plenty of part time jobs. Check out the list of employers below who are accepting applications for part time jobs in india. There is also some volunteer jobs on the site. Volunteering is a great way to learn new skills, meet new people and make an impact on your community. Many schools sent scholarships. Use volunteerism as part of the selection standard. Remember to check back with groove job dot com on a regular basis. We add new part time job listings to our database every week, so you'll find new job opportunities every time you check back with us using groove job dot com to find student work and summer jobs in india. Is that easy? Thank you for listening. I wish you all good luck. 听力部分到此结束。 ………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… 此卷只装订不密封 ………………○………………内………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… ………………○………………外………………○………………装………………○………………订………………○………………线………………○……………… … 学校：______________姓名：_____________班级：_______________考号：______________________ 2025-2026学年高一下学期第三次月考卷02（人教版） （考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分） 英语 考生注意： 1．答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 2. 答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 3.测试范围：必修第三册Units 2~3（人教版）。 4. 难度系数：0.65。 5. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 注意，听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上，听力部分结束前你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分) 听下面5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中 选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1．What is the basketball team’s current problem? A．They only get 10 points. B．They’re not playing well. C．They have two injured players. 2．When will the man have a singing lesson? A．On 8th, August. B．On 15th, August. C．On 22nd, August. 3．What might the woman be referring to? A．A work opportunity. B．A TV show. C．A friend of the man. 4．Why is the girl upset? A．She has no friends now. B．Her mother is out of work. C．Her family is about to move. 5．What band did the woman see? A．The one with a pianist. B．The one with a dancer. C．The one with three guitarists. 第二节(共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分) 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 6．What does the project focus on? A．Air pollution. B．Information age. C．Social problems. 7．How will the speakers start the project? A．By visiting a museum. B．By interviewing experts. C．By doing online research. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。 8．What is the woman probably? A．A teacher. B．A tour guide. C．An artist. 9．What do we know about David? A．It has stood in the gallery for more than 100 years. B．It was placed outside before 1504. C．It was originally made in 1604. 10．Which body part of David is used to show his power? A．His hands. B．His legs. C．His arms. 听下面一段对话，回答第11至13题。 11．How many people are expected to attend the party? A．About 250. B．About 300. C．About 350. 12．Why can’t the party be held in the Pine Room? A．It is a bit far. B．The decoration isn’t good. C．There’s not enough room. 13．What will Dr. Darren do next Friday night? A．Work on a speech. B．Take part in a party. C．Listen to a report. 听下面一段对话，回答第14至17题。 14．What does the woman probably do? A．A food buyer. B．A sales manager. C．A foodstuff collector. 15．What can we say about Kingston? A．It trades with the Chinese people. B．It has a large sample room. C．The prices of its products are reasonable. 16．Why will the man order canned fruit so soon? A．It is high-profit. B．It is top-quality. C．It is the most in-demand. 17．Which decides the popularity of canned meat in the man’s country? A．The size. B．The taste. C．The shape. 听下面一段独白，回答第18至20题。 18．Who is the speaker talking to probably? A．Workers. B．Students. C．Employers. 19．What does the speaker say about volunteer jobs? A．They are beneficial to the volunteers. B．Most of them are offered in Autumn. C．Schools are badly in need of volunteers. 20．What is the speaker recommending? A．A school. B．A company. C．A job website. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分） 第一节 （共 15 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Bow Seat Ocean Awareness Contest The 2026 Bow Seat Ocean Awareness Contest is an international student art contest focused on ocean protection. It aims to inspire creativity and raise awareness about the importance of preserving the world’s oceans and marine (海洋的) resources. Theme: This year’s theme is “Marine Keystone Species” — species essential for maintaining healthy and balanced ocean ecosystems. Eligibility (资格): The contest is open to secondary/high school students aged 11 to 19. College/university students cannot enter. There are two categories: 11-14 years old and 15-19 years old. Prizes: First, second, and third place prizes will be awarded in each age category. Application (Open Now!): Students must apply by filling out an online entry form and uploading a digital image of their artwork. The deadline for submissions is May 3, 2026. Artwork Rules: Entries must be: ●An original, hand-created piece (like a painting or drawing) . ●Two-dimensional (2D). ●Describe an ocean-living keystone species. ●Clearly show the species’ critical role within its marine ecosystem. Judging: A group of artists, educators, and scientists will evaluate entries based on artistic quality, originality, and relevance to the theme. Certificates (证书): All eligible participants will receive certificates after the winners are announced in December, 2026. We look forward to your active participation and expressive creations. 21．What is the international art competition aimed at? A．Protecting ocean environment. B．Mining mineral resources. C．Publishing students’ works. D．Exploring keystone species. 22．Who can sign up for the contest? A．A fisherman aged 28. B．A high school student aged 17. C．A 39-year-old marine biologist. D．An 18-year-old university freshman. 23．Which artwork is qualified for the competition? A．A digital painting. B．A handmade poster. C．A delicate photography. D．A creative sculpture. B （改编）In August 2005, I left my quiet coastal hometown in Maine for Chicago, a big city famous for its skyscrapers and lively cultural scene. My hometown had only one small bookstore and no art galleries, so the endless concerts, museums and restaurants in Chicago seemed like a dream come true. As a college freshman, I was excited to embrace the city’s energy — yet I often found myself longing for the sound of waves crashing and the smell of salt in the air. Years went by, and I built a fulfilling life in Chicago: I graduated, got a job I loved, and made lifelong friends. Still, a soft nostalgia (乡愁) for Maine lingered, and I soon realized that “home” isn’t defined by the number of attractions a place has, but by the sense of comfort and belonging it brings. It’s the way the light falls on the ocean at sunset, the taste of my mom’s seafood chowder, and the familiarity of bumping into neighbors on the street. “Homesickness often arises when we’re missing the emotional comfort of a familiar environment, not just the place itself,” says Dr. Lisa Carter, a psychologist who specializes in human attachment. “We don’t just miss a location — we miss the routines, the relationships, and the sense of safety that location provided. For some, this comfort can be recreated in a new place; for others, it remains a unique part of their past.” Although the nostalgia for Maine has never truly faded, even after years of happy life in Chicago, there are simple ways to ease this kind of longing. Creating small, familiar rituals in your new life — like baking your hometown’s favorite cookies every Sunday or taking a walk in a nearby park at the same time each evening — can help build a new sense of stability. These little acts don’t erase the memories of home; instead, they weave those memories into the fabric of your present life. I’m fortunate to have a good foundation in Chicago, with a loving family, supportive friends and a comfortable home, but however much I love my life in Chicago, there’s a part of me that will forever belong to Maine. 24.What was the author's initial feeling in Chicago? A. Pure excitement and joy. B. Total disappointment and fear. C. Excitement mixed with homesickness. D. Only longing for the sea. 25. What defines "home" for the author? A. The number of local attractions. B. A feeling of comfort and belonging. C. The taste of mom's seafood. D. Familiar neighbors on the street. 26. What does Dr. Carter say about homesickness? A. Only related to daily routines. B. A sign of poor adaptability. C. Missing a location's physical features. D. Lacking emotional comfort of a familiar place. 27. What can be inferred about the author? A. He will always miss his hometown. B. He plans to move back to Maine. C. Chicago has become his true home. D. He regrets his decision to leave. C When someone sets out to improve their health, they usually take a familiar path: starting a healthy diet, adopting a new workout plan, getting better sleep, or drinking more water. Each of these behaviors is important, of course, but they all focus on physical health — and a growing body of research suggests that social health is just as, if not more, important to overall well-being. A recent study found that the strength of a person’s social circle — as measured by cell phone activity — was a better predictor of self-reported stress, happiness and well-being levels than fitness tracker data on physical activity, heart rate and sleep. That finding suggests that the “quantified self” presented by endless amounts of health data doesn’t tell the whole story, says study co-author Nitesh Chawla. “There’s a qualified self, which is who I am, what my activities, my social network, my lifestyle, and my enjoyment are. All of these aspects are not reflected in any of these measurements,” Chawla says. “And they are strong determinants of my well-being.” A 2019 study set out to determine what’s driving those high rates of loneliness and found that social media, when used so much that it occupied face-to-face quality time, was tied to greater loneliness. Gender and income didn’t seem to have a strong effect, but loneliness tended to decrease with age, perhaps because of the wisdom and perspective afforded by years of life lived, says Dr. Stuart Lustig, one of the report’s authors. Lustig emphasizes that we should use technology “to seek out meaningful connections and people that you are able to keep in your social sphere (范围). It’s easy enough to find groups such as Meetups, which regularly organize offline gatherings, providing members with opportunities to interact, share, and participate in various activities in real life. Or through social media, you can find places to go where you’ll find folks doing what you want to do.” That advice is particularly important for young people, he says, for whom heavy social media use is common. Finally, Lustig stresses that even small social changes can have a large impact.Striking up post-meeting conversations with co-workers, or even engaging in micro-interactions with strangers, can make your social life feel more rewarding. 28．What is the author’s purpose in writing paragraph 1? A．To show social health is ignored by some people. B．To show social people like to do workouts with others. C．To prove many people tend to follow suit to improve their health. D．To prove more and more people have benefited from physical exercise. 29．What do we learn about fitness tracker data according to paragraph 2? A．They are out of date. B．They are more scientific. C．They can help realize the “qualified self”. D．They cannot reflect one’s overall health. 30．What did the 2019 study find? A．The overuse of social media could lead to loneliness. B．Old people felt lonelier than young people. C．Females feel happy more easily than males. D．Income had a great influence on people’s well-being. 31．What advice does Dr. Stuart Lustig give? A．Avoiding talking to strangers. B．Using social media as little as possible. C．Using technology for meaningful face-to-face interactions. D．Spending more time with like-minded young people. D Enjoying a juicy watermelon is one of summer’s greatest pleasures, particularly when you don’t have to avoid any seeds. Indeed, humans have adapted many fruits to be seedless in search of a more pleasant eating experience. The navel orange (a sweet orange that is usually seedless), for example, came about after a random genetic mutation (随机的基因突变) produced a single branch with seedless fruit long ago. Cuttings of the branch were joined to other trees, and today, all of the world’s navel oranges are copies of this original. A similar discovery led to seedless grapes, which are thought to first appear in ancient Rome before making their way to the Americas in the 1870s. Scientists have a few guesses about why plants might have developed these abilities and they tried out the combinations in experiments. For one, plants can hybridize more easily than some kinds of animals, and hybridization unlocks the new potential. Even if some combinations don’t pan out, researchers have recorded examples of “hybrid advantage”, in which a hybrid is fitter than either of its parents. Lastly, because the purpose of fruit is to draw animals near to help spread their seeds, the production of fruits without fertilization (受精) may ultimately allow trees to produce more fruit at a lower energetic cost if they don’t need to make seeds, too. Regardless of why seedless fruits exist, they represent an interesting thought experiment, according to Stacey Smith, a plant evolutionary biologist at the University of Colorado Boulder. Many are unable to continue surviving without human involvement, but they’re boosted to grow in the wild for that same reason. There are very few, if any, wild navel oranges, and yet it’s estimated that California will produce 76 million cartons of them this year alone. “My personal take is that all plants under human care have won in some sense, because they don’t have to make more of themselves. We do it for them,” Smith told Live Science. “And we will never stop eating watermelons, and being able to make seedless ones just means we eat more watermelons.” 32．What is the similarity between the orange and grape mentioned in the text? A．Being native to ancient Rome. B．Being seedless due to genetic change. C．Being grown from seeds rather than cuttings. D．Being joined to other plants for a sweeter taste. 33．What does the underlined phrase “pan out” in paragraph 3 probably mean? A．Die out. B．Fall through. C．Come apart. D．Work out. 34．Why is the existence of seedless fruits considered a thought experiment? A．It contributes to the balance of nature. B．People still have doubts regarding seedless fruits. C．It inspires thinking on natural selection and human activity. D．Seedless fruits have a high demand but limited production. 35．What is the best title of the text? A．Hybridization: The Key to Seedless Fruits’ Success B．Seedless Fruits: A Human-Aided Evolutionary Wonder C．The Journey of Seedless Fruits: From Mutation to Market D．Genetic Mutations: The Only Way to Create Seedless Fruits 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How to Have Better, Deeper Conversations In today’s fast-paced world, distractions are everywhere, especially from our phones. When catching up with friends, it can be frustrating when their attention shifts away. 36 It’s a skill that can be cultivated. Here are three key ways to enhance your listening ability. Avoid distractions. To be an effective listener, start by putting away your phone and other distractions. Research shows that multitasking distracts our attention and hampers the quality of our conversations. As musician Hishikesh Hirway says, “Trying to listen to one song while singing another in your head is impossible.” 37 Reflect on what you hear. Active listening is more than just being silent. 38 Phrases like “What I hear you saying is” can confirm your understanding. Also, resist the urge to share your own stories immediately; keep the conversation centered on them. 39 Nonverbal communication plays a vital role in conversations. Maintaining eye contact, having an open posture, and nodding can show that you’re engaged. These small gestures help the other person feel valued and encourage them to continue sharing. Improving your listening skills takes practice. 40 As Hirway advises, “Let the other person know you’re listening and stay focused.” A．Use nonverbal cues. B．Look up to show interest. C．So to build stronger relationships, active listening is essential. D．But with a bit more effort, you can foster deeper conversations. E．Engage by asking questions or summarizing what the other person says F．Therefore, during conversations, focus fully on the person in front of you. G．Taking notes while listening can help you remember the conversation better. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分 30分) 第一节：(共15小题;每小题 1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Last summer, I volunteered at a multicultural community center in my city. The center serves people from all over the world, including immigrants, refugees, and local residents. My job was to help organize cultural events and assist with language classes. On my first day, I was 41 to see so many people from different ethnic groups working and playing together. There were Mexican families making nachos, Chinese elders practicing tai chi, and American teenagers learning Cantonese. I felt a little 42 at first, but the staff and volunteers were very friendly and welcoming. One of my favorite events was the “World Food Festival,” where residents brought dishes from their home countries. I helped set up the tables and 43 the food to visitors. I tasted gumbo from Louisiana, spicy cheese from Mexico, and dim sum from China. It was amazing to see how food could bring people together, regardless of their 44 . I also helped teach English classes to new immigrants. Many of them had come to this country to 45 a better life for their families. They were 46 to learn, and I was inspired by their determination. One student, a young woman from Syria, told me that learning English was her first step to 47 her dream of becoming a doctor. As the summer went on, I began to 48 the beauty of cultural diversity. I learned to respect different customs and traditions, and I made many friends from all over the world. Volunteering at the community center taught me that 49 is not a barrier, but a bridge that connects us all. When the summer ended, I was sad to leave, but I knew that the 50 I had gained would stay with me forever. I learned that in a diverse society, we can all learn from each other and grow together. 51 , this experience also made me realize that we have a 52 to help those in need. One memory that still 53 with me is of a little boy from Guatemala who struggled to speak English. I spent extra time with him, using games and songs to make learning fun. By the end of the summer, he could 54 simple sentences and smile confidently. Moments like this 55 that our work truly matters. 41．A．shocked B．excited C．bored D．tired 42．A．nervous B．happy C．angry D．calm 43．A．served B．cooked C．bought D．sold 44．A．age B．gender C．background D．profession 45．A．seek B．lose C．waste D．forget 46．A．unwilling B．eager C．afraid D．slow 47．A．achieving B．giving up C．forgetting D．changing 48．A．hate B．appreciate C．ignore D．fear 49．A．diversity B．conflict C．language D．money 50．A．skills B．lessons C．friends D．memories 51．A．However B．Therefore C．Moreover D．Otherwise 52．A．weak B．strong C．kind D．duty 53．A．stays B．leaves C．goes D．passes 54．A．break B．form C．destroy D．ignore 55．A．prove B．doubt C．deny D．pretend 第二节：(10个小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。 The concept of a “smart city” has gained immense popularity in recent years. 56 refers to an urban area that uses various types of electronic data collection sensors to supply information 57 (manage) resources efficiently. This idea is not merely a fantasy; it is gradually becoming a reality. One key aspect of smart cities is the integration of 58 (advance) technologies into the public transportation system. Sensors and AI algorithms work together to predict traffic flow and adjust signals accordingly, reducing congestion 59 (dramatic). However, the application of such systems 60 (require) substantial investment and cooperation between governments and tech companies. Despite the challenges, many cities are moving forward with smart projects. For instance, in some cities, lampposts are equipped 61 sensors that monitor air quality. These data are then analyzed to make policies 62 (aim) at improving public health. Critics argue that these technologies may invade people’s privacy, 63 supporters believe the benefits outweigh the risks. Interestingly, the smart city model also draws 64 (inspire) from nature. Some designers propose systems that mimic the efficiency of ecosystems, 65 waste from one process becomes raw material for another. Such an approach not only enhances sustainability but also strengthens the city’s resilience against environmental crises. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分 15 分) 66．假设你是李华，你校正在开展“保护水资源”主题活动。请你为校英文报写一封倡议书，呼吁全校同学共同行动，减少水污染。内容包括： 1．水污染的现状及危害； 2．具体倡议措施； 3．发起倡议。 注意： 1．词数80左右； 2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 Dear fellow students, ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours sincerely, Li Hua 第二节 (满分 25 分) 67．阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Last Sunday, my parents had to go to my grandma’s home because she was ill. They told me I had to look after my 6-year-old brother, Leo, for the whole day. I was 16, and it was the first time I had to take care of him alone. I thought it would be easy — just play with him and feed him some snacks. But I was wrong. In the morning, Leo refused to brush his teeth and cried for a toy car that he left at grandma’s. I tried to calm him down, but he just cried louder. After I finally got him to brush his teeth, I found out I forgot to buy milk for his breakfast. I had to run to the supermarket downstairs in a hurry, leaving Leo at home alone for five minutes. When I came back, I saw Leo sitting on the floor, drawing on the living room wall with a red marker! I felt so angry and stressed that I shouted at him. Leo was scared by my voice, and he started crying again. I stood there, looking at the messy wall and the crying boy, and I didn’t know what to do. I thought to myself, How can I mess this up so badly? My parents will be so disappointed in me. Paragraph 1: I took a deep breath and got down on my knees to Leo’s level. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Paragraph 2: When my parents came back home in the evening, the house was clean and tidy. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试题 第7页（共8页） 试题 第8页（共8页） 试题 第5页（共8页） 试题 第6页（共8页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $