精品解析：江苏徐州市2025-2026学年第二学期期中考试高一英语试卷

这里是2025至2026学年度第二学期高一年级期中检测英语试题听力部分，该部分分为第一第二两节。注意回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上请看听力部分第一节，第一节听下面五段录音，每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。听下面的录音，回答第一小题。I'm pretty sure the wildlife park opens at . ten o'clock. No, I think that opens at nine. Maybe we should look at our tickets. We were both wrong. IT opens an hour later than you thought. I'm pretty sure the wildlife park opens . at ten o'clock. No, I think that opens at nine. Maybe we should look at . our tickets. We were both wrong. IT opens an hour later than you thought. 听下面的录音，回答第二小题。I hear you have a new job. How's IT going? Well, I have a lot to learn, but the people are nice and there's not too much pressure. I hear you have a new job. How's IT going? Well, I have a lot to learn, but the people are nice and there's not too much pressure. 听下面的录音，回答第三小题。QI just finished my last practice of the week. good. That means you can come to our study group tomorrow. Let's meet outside the library. I'm sorry, I can't. I have to watch my brother, then, who I just finished my last practice of the week. good. That means you can come to our studying group tomorrow. Let's meet outside the library. I'm sorry, I can't. I have to watch my brother then. 听下面的录音，回答第四小题。Welcome back. How did your trip go? IT was really nice, and the taxi drivers in new york were all so friendly. good. Well, we'd Better go. The sales meeting is about to start. Welcome back. How did your trip go? IT was really nice, and the taxi drivers in new york were all so friendly. good. Well, we'd Better go. The sales meeting is about to start. 听下面的录音，回答第五小题。Um I don't feel very well. Yes, you look very tired. Did you eat any breakfast? No, i've got a stomach cake. Okay, i'll found . the doctor to see if I can get you an appointment this morning. Mom, I . don't feel very well. Yes, you look very tired. Did you eat any breakfast? No, i've got a stomach cake. Okay, i'll found . the doctor to see if I can get you an appointment this morning. 第一节到此结束，第二节听下面5段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟，听完后每小题都有5秒钟的作答时间。每段录音。播放两遍。听下面的录音，回答第六和第七小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Hello, you have reached the western washington bank. How may I help you? Hi, i've lost my AT. M card. How can I get a new one? You have two choices. I can order a new card for you now, and I will be delivered to your house in a day, or you can go to any branch in person and get a new . car immediately. In that case, i'll go to my local branch. I need the card right now since i'm going on vacation soon. Hello, you have reached the western washington bank. How may I help you? Hi, i've lost my AT. M card. How can I get a new one? You have two choices. I can order a new card for you now, and I will be delivered to your house in a day. Or you can go to any branch in person and get a new car . to immediately. In that case, i'll go to my local branch. I need the card right now since i'm going on vacation soon. 听下面的录音，回答第八至第十小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Good morning, mr. Cooper. Hello, miss Rogers. How was your weekend? Well, I went to a strawberry farm with my kids. IT was super fun. A strawberry farm is IT near our town. I'd prefer not to drive too far after a tiring week. We're just looking for something relaxing. but not too boring. IT only took thirty minutes by car. We picked a lot of strawberries. Sounds interesting. My daughter loves strawberries. I want to take her there this sunday. Can you give me the contact number of the form? Okay, here is the number, but you'd Better hurry. I heard the bookings for this month are almost all failed. Good morning, mr. Cooper. Hello, miss Rogers. How was your weekend? Well, I went to a strawberry farm with my kids. IT was super fun. A strawberry farm is IT near our town. I'd prefer not to drive too far after a tiring week. We're just looking for something relaxing. but not too boring. IT only took thirty minutes by car. We picked a lot of strawberries. Sounds interesting. My daughter loves strawberries. I want to take her there this sunday. Can you give me the contact number of the form? Okay, here is the number, but you'd Better hurry. I heard the bookings for this month are almost all failed. 听下面的录音，回答第十一至第十三小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Hello, Linda, this is mad Brooks. Hi, mad alex has talked with me about you. Are you planning to visit ban ford soon? Yes, my wife and I are both coming next week. We've been considering moving here next year. I could meet you, if you like. and show you around. We'd really appreciate . that either a tuesday or thursday is good for me. After I get off work at . five thirty thursdays, preferable on tuesday, I need to get home before six P. M. Okay, let me know which train you're catching, and i'll meet you in the cafe outside. You can't miss IT. It's opposite the station and next to the museum. brilliant. I'll text you next week then. Thanks so much. No problem. I'll see you next week. Hello, Linda. This is matt Brooks. Hi, mad alex has talked with me about you. Are you planning to visit ban ford soon? Yes, my wife and I are both coming next week. We've been considering moving here next year. I could meet you, if you like. and show you around. We'd really appreciate . that either a tuesday or thursday is good for me after I get off work . at five thirty thursdays, preferable on tuesday, I need to get home before six P. M. Okay, let me know which train you're catching, and i'll meet you in the cafe outside. You can't miss IT, its opposite station and next to the museum. brilliant. I'll text you next week, then thanks so much. No problem, i'll see you next week. 听下面的录音，回答第十四至第十六小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。There are some workshops and other activities during the festival. They'll all take place at least once every day. good. You don't happen to have a cooking workshop. do you? We certainly do. It's going to focus on how to make food part of a healthy lifestyle . that might be worth going to. We're trying to encourage our . children to cook. Another workshop is just for children, and that's on creating posters to reflect the history of the town. The aim is to make children aware of how the town has changed over the centuries. The results will be shown in the community center. Then the other workshop is on toy making, and that's for adults only. Oh, why is that? Because . participants will be making toys out of wood. They'll be a lot of sharp tools around, though there won't be much work. IT makes sense to keep children . away from IT. exactly. There are some workshops and other activities during the festival. They'll all take place at least once every day. good. You don't happen to have a cooker workshop. do you? We certainly do. It's going to focus on how to make food part of a healthy lifestyle . that might be worth going to. We're trying to encourage our children to cook. Another workshop is just for children, and that's on creating posters to reflect the history of the town. The aim is to make children aware of how the town has changed over the centuries. The results will be shown in the community center. Then the other workshop is on toy making, and that's for adults only. Oh. why is that? Because participants . will be making toys out of wood. They'll be a lot of sharp tools around, though there won't be . much work. IT makes sense to keep children . away from IT. exactly. 听下面的录音，回答第十七至第二十小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。Let me tell you all about an amazing survival weekend trip with my class. When the bus picked us up from the school gate at six in the morning, IT was raining heavily, which wasn't great. However, IT hadn't rained in the forest. That was important because we needed dry places for our first survival activity, building shelters. There were three leaders, each responsible for ten students. After we were divided into three groups, we started collecting broken tree branches and leaves to build our shelters. Then we ate a light breakfast we had prepared at home. After breakfast, we learned how to build a fire safely for lunch. We had hot dogs and potatoes cooked over the fire lunch. We put out the fire and got ready to look for food in the forest. Our leaders showed us which foods were safe. We returned late in the afternoon. Each group made their own cm fire and learned to cook soup for supper over the fire with the things we had collected. IT was delicious. We all enjoy the trip. Let me tell you all about an amazing survival weekend trip with my class when the bus picked us up from the school gate at six in the morning, IT was raining heavily, which wasn't great. However, IT hadn't rained in the forest. That was important because we needed dry places for our first survival activity, building shelters. There were three leaders, each responsible for ten students. After we were divided into three groups, we started collecting broken tree branches and leaves to build our shelters. Then we ate a light breakfast we had prepared at home. After breakfast, we learned how to build a fire safely. For lunch, we had hot dogs and potatoes cooked over the fire. After lunch, we put out the fire and got ready to look for food in the forest. Our leaders showed us which foods were safe. We returned late in the afternoon. Each group made their own camp fire and learned to cook soup for supper over the fire with the things we had collected. IT was delicious. We all enjoy the trip. 第二节到此结束，现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。 2025 ~2026学年度第二学期期中考试 高一英语试题 (试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟) 注意事项： 1.在答题纸的密封线内填写学校、班级、姓名、考号等，密封线内不要答题。 2.请将所有答案均按照题号填涂或填写在答题卡相应的答题处，否则不得分。 第一部分 听力(共两节;满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5 小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 When does the wildlife park open? A. At 9:00. B. At 10:00. C. At 11:00. 【答案】C 【解析】 【原文】W: I’m pretty sure the wildlife park opens at ten o’clock. M: No, I think it opens at nine. W: Maybe we should look at our tickets. M: We were both wrong. It opens an hour later than you thought. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What does the man think of his new job? A. Stressful. B. Satisfactory. C. Easy. 【答案】B 【解析】 【原文】W: I hear you have a new job. How’s it going? M: Well, I have a lot to learn, but the people are nice, and there’s not too much pressure. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What will the woman do tomorrow? A. Look after a kid. B. Go to the library. C. Join the study group. 【答案】A 【解析】 【原文】W: Whew, I just finished my last practice of the week. M: Good. That means you can come to our study group tomorrow. Let’s meet outside the library. W: I’m sorry I can’t. I have to watch my brother then. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Neighbors. B. Workmates. C. Tour guide and tourist. 【答案】B 【解析】 【原文】M: Welcome back. How did your trip go? W: It was really nice, and the taxi drivers in New York were all so friendly. M: Good. Well, we’d better go. The sales meeting is about to start. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What are the speakers talking about? A. A health problem. B. A medical appointment. C. A missed breakfast. 【答案】A 【解析】 【原文】M: Mum, I don’t feel very well. W: Mm, yes, you look very tired. Did you eat any breakfast? M: No, I’ve got a stomachache. W: OK, I’ll phone the doctor to see if I can get you an appointment this morning. 第二节(共15 小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟;听完后，每小题都有 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. Why is the woman making the call? A. To report a loss. B. To place an order. C. To ask for information. 7. What will the woman do next? A. Go to a bank. B. Call the local branch. C. Take a vacation. 【答案】6. C 7. A 【解析】 【原文】M: Hello. You have reached the Western Washington Bank. How may I help you? W: Hi. I’ve lost my ATM card. How can I get a new one? M: You have two choices. I can order a new card for you now, and it will be delivered to your house in a day, or you can go to any branch in person and get a new card immediately. W: In that case, I’ll go to my local branch. I need the card right now since I’m going on vacation soon. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. How did Ms. Rogers feel last weekend? A. Tired. B. Bored. C. Cheerful. 9. What does Mr. Cooper intend to do this Sunday? A. Go for a drive. B. Telephone the farm owner. C. Take his daughter to a farm. 10. What does Ms. Rogers suggest Mr. Cooper do! A. Book in advance. B. Wait until next month. C. Check for more details. 【答案】8. C 9. C 10. A 【解析】 【原文】W: Good morning, Mr. Cooper. M: Hello, Ms. Rogers. How was your weekend? W: Well, I went to a strawberry farm with my kids. It was super fun. M: A strawberry farm? Is it near our town? I’d prefer not to drive too far after a tiring week. We’re just looking for something relaxing but not too boring. W: It only took 30 minutes by car. We picked a lot of strawberries. M: Sounds interesting. My daughter loves strawberries. I want to take her there this Sunday. Can you give me the contact number of the farm? W: Okay. Here is the number, but you’d better hurry. I heard the bookings for this month are almost all filled. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. What does Linda offer to do for Matt? A. Introduce Alex to him. B. Give him a tour of Banford. C. Help him move house. 12. Why can’t Matt meet Linda next Tuesday? A. He needs to work late. B. He has to go home early. C. He will be on a train trip. 13. Where will Linda wait for Matt? A. In a cafe. B. In the train station. C. In a museum. 【答案】11. B 12. B 13. A 【解析】 【原文】M: Hello, Linda. This is Matt Brooks. W: Hi, Matt. Alex has talked with me about you. Are you planning to visit Banford soon? M: Yes. My wife and I are both coming next week. We’ve been considering moving here next year. W: I could meet you if you like and show you around. M: We’d really appreciate that. W: Either a Tuesday or Thursday is good for me, after I get off work at 5:30. M: Thursday’s preferable — on Tuesday I need to get home before 6 pm. W: Okay. Let me know which train you’re catching, and I’ll meet you in the cafe outside. You can’t miss it. It’s opposite the station and next to the museum. M: Brilliant. I’ll text you next week, then. Thanks so much. W: No problem. I’ll see you next week. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. What is special about the cookery workshop? A. It is held once every day. B. It is about making healthy food. C. It is popular with both adults and children. 15. What is the poster workshop held for? A. To enrich community life. B. To bring residents together. C. To teach kids the town’s history. 16. Why is the toy-making workshop just for adults? A. It requires much hard work. B. It could be dangerous for children. C. It is about making large wooden toys. 【答案】14. B 15. C 16. B 【解析】 【原文】M: There are some workshops and other activities during the festival. They’ll all take place at least once every day. W: Good. You don’t happen to have a cookery workshop, do you? M: We certainly do. It’s going to focus on how to make food part of a healthy lifestyle. W: That might be worth going to. We’re trying to encourage our children to cook. M: Another workshop is just for children, and that’s on creating posters to reflect the history of the town. The aim is to make children aware of how the town has changed over the centuries. The results will be shown in the community center. Then the other workshop is on toy-making, and that’s for adults only. W: Oh, why’s that? M: Because participants will be making toys out of wood. There’ll be a lot of sharp tools around, though there won’t be much work. W: It makes sense to keep children away from it. M: Exactly. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 17. What made the speaker unhappy at first? A. The bad weather. B. The early meeting time. C. The tiring bus journey. 18. How many students went on the trip? A. 10. B. 30. C. 33. 19. What did the speaker do after lunch? A. She looked for food. B. She made a shelter. C. She collected potatoes. 20. What did the speaker have for supper? A. Leftovers from lunch. B. Food prepared at home. C. Self-made soup. 【答案】17. A 18. B 19. A 20. C 【解析】 【原文】 W: Let me tell you all about an amazing Survival Weekend trip with my class. When the bus picked us up from the school gate at 6 in the morning, it was raining heavily, which wasn’t great. However, it hadn’t rained in the forest. That was important because we needed dry places for our first survival activity: building shelters. There were three leaders, each responsible for 10 students. After we were divided into three groups, we started collecting broken tree branches and leaves to build our shelters. Then we ate a light breakfast we had prepared at home. After breakfast, we learned how to build a fire safely. For lunch, we had hot dogs and potatoes cooked over the fire. After lunch, we put out the fire and got ready to look for food in the forest. Our leaders showed us which foods were safe. We returned late in the afternoon. Each group made their own campfire and learned to cook soup for supper over the fire with the things we had collected. It was delicious. We all enjoyed the trip. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Disaster Prevention and Management (DPM): A Journal for the People Picture a magazine that examines more than the physical side of disasters — like earthquake strength or rising floodwaters — and instead focuses on the “people” side of events. That’s what Disaster Prevention and Management (DPM) does. As an international journal (杂志), we explore how communities prepare, how governments respond, and how recovery can be fair and effective for everyone. What Guides Us? Two main rules guide our work: justice and equality — ensuring that everyone affected by disasters is heard, especially those who need the most support. We believe the voices and knowledge of local communities matter most, because they are the ones living through these events. Our goal is to build a bridge connecting social scientists, policymakers, and the brave people working on the front lines. What Can You Share? We welcome a wide variety of works: traditional research papers, case studies, opinion pieces, and creative styles such as: Photo essays or comic strips (漫画) Blog posts and short reports Book reviews, often including author interviews If you have a unique idea that does not fit the “usual” model, feel free to talk to our editors — they are always happy to discuss new ways of storytelling. We especially encourage early-stage researchers and those whose first language is not English to share their ideas. Details for Sending Your Work • Word Count: Under 7,000 words. • The Requirement: Your cover letter must explain how your work links back to our basic rules. • The Review: Each paper will be checked by two experts. For case studies, we ensure at least one reviewer truly understands the local situation. Ready to join us? Visit our website to check out our style guide and join our global conversation! 21. What makes DPM different from most other research journals? A. It asks for support from readers. B. It stresses how disasters affect people. C. It encourages policymakers to build bridges. D. It focuses only on the physical aspects of disasters. 22. Which of the following can you send to DPM according to the text? A. An interview going against justice. B. A case study about a local disaster. C. A research paper of ten thousand words. D. A report exploring new ways of telling stories. 23. Who might be interested in the article? A. A student learning to draw comic strips. B. Tourists who plan to visit disaster-hit areas. C. A writer with a story about people in a flood. D. A government official enjoying reading blogs. 【答案】21. B 22. B 23. C 【解析】 【导语】文章主要介绍了《防灾与管理》这本国际期刊的办刊理念、核心准则、征稿类型以及投稿要求，突出该期刊聚焦灾害中的人文视角，面向各类创作者征集多元作品。 【21题详解】 细节理解题。根据原文第一段“Picture a magazine that examines more than the physical side of disasters — like earthquake strength or rising floodwaters — and instead focuses on the “people” side of events.(试想这样一本杂志，它不只研究灾害的物理层面，比如地震强度或不断上涨的洪水，反而聚焦各类事件中与人相关的层面。)” 可知，这本期刊的特别之处在于重视灾害对人的影响。 【22题详解】 细节理解题。根据“What Guides Us?”部分中“Two main rules guide our work: justice and equality — ensuring that everyone affected by disasters is heard, especially those who need the most support.(我们的工作遵循两个主要原则：公正和平等——确保受灾的每一个人，特别是那些最需要帮助的人，都能听到他们的声音。)”、“What Can You Share?”部分中“We welcome a wide variety of works: traditional research papers, case studies, opinion pieces, and creative styles such as:(我们收录各类作品：传统研究论文、案例研究、评论文章以及多种创意形式的作品)”以及“Details for Sending Your Work”部分中“Word Count: Under 7,000 words.(字数：7000字以下)” 可知，DPM的核心准则是正义与平等，收稿范围包含传统研究论文、案例研究等多种类型，要求字数不超过7000词，因此B选项“A case study about a local disaster.(有关当地灾害的案例研究)”可以向该期刊投稿。 【23题详解】 推理判断题。根据原文原文第一段“Picture a magazine that examines more than the physical side of disasters — like earthquake strength or rising floodwaters — and instead focuses on the “people” side of events.(试想这样一本杂志，它不只研究灾害的物理层面，比如地震强度或不断上涨的洪水，反而聚焦各类事件中与人相关的层面。)”及原文“What Can You Share?”部分中“We welcome a wide variety of works: traditional research papers, case studies, opinion pieces, and creative styles such as:(我们收录各类作品：传统研究论文、案例研究、评论文章以及多种创意形式的作品)”可知，该期刊主打灾害人文视角，接收各类人文故事、案例创作，因此一位撰写洪水受灾人群故事的作者会对这篇文章感兴趣。 B The 2025 Nobel Prize in Literature went to László Krasznahorkai, a 71-year-old writer from Hungary. The Nobel Committee praised him for creating powerful stories that show the strength of art even in times of fear. If his name doesn’t ring a bell, you are not alone. His books are not easy to read, but his fans say they are a “workout for the brain”— hard to read but very satisfying. Krasznahorkai was born in a small town in Hungary. As a teenager, he played jazz piano in an adult band. Music taught him rhythm and patience, which later influenced his writing style. Although he first studied law to please his father, he soon changed his major to literature to follow what he really loved. Today, he is seen as one of the most important writers in the world. Before becoming a full-time writer, Krasznahorkai worked many different jobs, such as a miner and a night watchman. These experiences helped him understand the hardships and dignity (尊严) of ordinary people. They also inspired his first famous novel, Satantango, published in 1985. The book describes a dying village and made him famous for his “lava-like” sentences — slow, strong, and unstoppable. Krasznahorkai’ s imagination has no borders. He has traveled to many countries, including China. After his first visit in 1991, he became very interested in Chinese culture, especially Li Bai’s poems. In 1998, he even visited ten Chinese cities to follow the poet’s steps. His wife, an expert in Chinese studies, has always been his guide to Asian culture. When he won the prize, Krasznahorkai said that literature has its own value. It can offer hope and show that beauty still exists. His work reminds us that even in the darkest times, art can light a small candle, helping us find beauty in a messy world. 24. What does the underlined phrase “ring a bell” probably mean in the first paragraph? A. Make a loud noise. B. Sound familiar to you. C. Remind you of danger. D. Make you feel excited. 25. What are Krasznahorkai’s works like? A. They are short and easy to follow. B. They focus on stories in villages. C. They show both hardships and hope. D. They are mainly about jazz and law. 26. What is unique about Krasznahorkai’s connection to China? A. He moved to China to live with his wife. B. He wrote his first novel in a Chinese city. C. He is strongly influenced by Chinese culture. D. He became an expert in Chinese studies in 1991. 27. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. Art: A Small Candle in the Darkest Times B. Li Bai: A Great Inspiration for Krasznahorkai C. Difficult Books: A New Trend of the Nobel Prize D. A Writer Who Finds Beauty in Life’s Challenges 【答案】24. B 25. C 26. C 27. D 【解析】 【导语】文章主要介绍了 2025 年诺贝尔文学奖得主匈牙利作家László Krasznahorkai的人生经历、创作风格、创作灵感、与中国文化的渊源，以及他的文学理念与作品价值。 【24题详解】 词句猜测题。根据原文第一段“If his name doesn’t ring a bell, you are not alone.(如果他的名字没有ring a bell，有很多人和你一样。)” 可知，有很多人对László Krasznahorkai这个名字感到陌生，不熟悉，故ring a bell表示听起来熟悉。 【25题详解】 推理判断题。根据原文第三段“These experiences helped him understand the hardships and dignity of ordinary people.(这些经历让他懂得了普通人的苦难与尊严。)” 以及最后一段“His work reminds us that even in the darkest times, art can light a small candle, helping us find beauty in a messy world.(他的作品提醒我们：即便身处至暗时刻，艺术也能点亮微弱烛光，帮我们在纷乱的世间发现美好。)” 可知，他的作品既展现苦难，也传递希望。 【26题详解】 细节理解题。根据原文第四段“After his first visit in 1991, he became very interested in Chinese culture, especially Li Bai’s poems.(1991 年首次到访后，他对中国文化产生了浓厚兴趣，尤其喜爱李白的诗歌。)” 及“In 1998, he even visited ten Chinese cities to follow the poet’s steps.(1998 年，他走访了十座中国城市，追寻这位诗人的足迹。)”可知，他深受中国文化的影响。 【27题详解】 主旨大意题。根据原文第一段“The 2025 Nobel Prize in Literature went to László Krasznahorkai, a 71-year-old writer from Hungary. The Nobel Committee praised him for creating powerful stories that show the strength of art even in times of fear.(2025年诺贝尔文学奖授予来自匈牙利、现年71岁的作家László Krasznahorkai。诺贝尔委员会盛赞他创作了极具感染力的作品，诠释了即便在人心惶惶的时代，艺术依旧拥有强大的力量。)”及最后一段“His work reminds us that even in the darkest times, art can light a small candle, helping us find beauty in a messy world.(他的作品提醒我们，纵使身处至暗时刻，艺术也能点亮微光，帮助我们在纷繁世间发现美好。)” 并结合全文内容可知，文章主要介绍了László Krasznahorkai的人生经历、创作风格、以及他的文学理念与作品价值。故最佳标题为“一位在人生困境中探寻美好的作家”。 C On a foggy winter day in early 2025, India’s first “Garbage Cafe” in Ambikapur feels warm and cozy. Inside, people are sitting on wooden benches, enjoying hot meals. However, these hungry customers do not pay with money. Instead, they hand over plastic waste — old bags, wrappers, or bottles. Launched in 2019, the cafe’s slogan is “More the waste, better the taste.” The idea is simple: help low-income residents earn meals while cleaning the streets. For one kilogram of plastic, a person can get a full meal including rice, vegetables, and bread. On average, the cafe feeds more than 20 people every day. This project has brought great changes to the environment. Since 2019, it has collected almost 23 tonnes (吨) of plastic. In the city, annual plastic waste has fallen from 5.4 tonnes in 2019 to just two tonnes in 2024. After being collected, the plastic is sent to local centers to be recycled. These centers also provide jobs for 480 local women, helping them earn a regular income. The successful idea has spread to other parts of India. Siliguri, in West Bengal, started a similar program in 2019, and Mysuru, in Karnataka, allows residents to trade plastic for breakfast or a full meal. Even abroad, in Cambodia, people can exchange plastic waste for rice. These projects show that local solutions can truly make a difference, proving how small, community-driven efforts can have a meaningful impact on both people and the environment. While the plastic waste collection schemes have had an impact, experts note they aren’t able to address problems such as the overproduction of plastic and non-recyclable plastic. They are like a “quick fix” for the surface of the problem, but the root causes — such as too much plastic production and consumption — still need to be solved. “It’s a good beginning,” says researcher Minal Pathak, “but bigger changes are still needed.” 28. How do customers pay for their meals at the Garbage Cafe? A. With money. B. With social support. C. With plastic waste. D. With personal service. 29. Why does the author mention the specific numbers in Paragraph 3? A. To show the research process. B. To show concern about plastic pollution. C. To explain how to recycle plastic. D. To prove the benefits of the project. 30. What does the author want to tell us by the examples in paragraph 4? A. Global teamwork is successful. B. Programs are similar everywhere. C. Little effort can achieve much. D. The cafes offer people rice as well. 31. What is Minal Pathak’ s attitude toward the project? A. Doubtful and worried. B. Satisfied and hopeful. C. Supportive but concerned. D. Unclear. 【答案】28. C 29. D 30. C 31. C 【解析】 【导语】文章主要介绍了印度首家“垃圾咖啡馆”以塑料垃圾兑换食物的运营模式，讲述该项目在改善环境、帮扶居民、创造就业方面的积极作用，同时说明该模式已多地推广，并指出其存在局限、仍需从根源解决塑料问题。 【28题详解】 细节理解题。根据原文第一段“However, these hungry customers do not pay with money. Instead, they hand over plastic waste — old bags, wrappers, or bottles.(然而，这些饥饿的顾客不用钱付款。取而代之的是，他们上交塑料垃圾 —— 旧袋子、包装纸或瓶子。)” 可知，顾客用塑料垃圾支付餐费。 【29题详解】 推理判断题。根据原文第三段“Since 2019, it has collected almost 23 tonnes of plastic. In the city, annual plastic waste has fallen from 5.4 tonnes in 2019 to just two tonnes in 2024.(自 2019 年以来，该咖啡馆已收集了近 23 吨塑料。这座城市的年度塑料垃圾量已从 2019 年的 5.4 吨下降至 2024 年的仅 2 吨。)” 可知，列举具体数据是为了证明这个项目带来的诸多益处。 【30题详解】 推理判断题。根据原文第四段“These projects show that local solutions can truly make a difference, proving how small, community-driven efforts can have a meaningful impact on both people and the environment.(这些项目表明，地方性的解决办法确实能发挥作用，也证明了由社区主导的微小努力能够对人类和环境产生深远影响。)” 可知，作者列举多地案例是想告诉我们微小的努力也能收获巨大成效。 【31题详解】 推理判断题。根据原文第五段“They are like a “quick fix” for the surface of the problem, but the root causes — such as too much plastic production and consumption — still need to be solved.(它们只是解决问题表面的权宜之计，但诸如塑料过度生产与过度消耗这类根本问题，仍亟待解决。)”及““It’s a good beginning,” says researcher Minal Pathak, “but bigger changes are still needed.”(研究员Minal Pathak表示：“这是一个良好的开端，但我们仍需要做出更大的改变。”)” 可知，Minal Pathak支持该项目，同时也对根本问题抱有顾虑与担忧。 D April 23 is World Book Day, a global event organized by UNESCO to encourage reading. On this day, people are invited to step away from their busy lives to lose themselves in a story. However, staying focused on a book has become much harder today because of what experts call “digital distraction (干扰).” The problem is not just a lack of free time, but a change in how our brains process information. As smartphones, tablets, and social media take up more attention, many people find it difficult to concentrate on one thing for long. Dr. Maryanne Wolf, a neuroscientist at Tufts University and author of Reader, Come Home, warns that constant digital use may be changing the way we read. While we are becoming better at scanning for quick information, we are losing the ability for “deep reading,” which is necessary for careful thinking and understanding other people’s feelings. Recent studies show some worrying trends. One study found that many teenagers today have smaller vocabularies (词汇量) and weaker reading skills than those from a century ago. In addition, the percentage of young people who read for pleasure has dropped from 37% to just 17%. While heavy schoolwork contributes to this drop, the main reason is the easy fun provided by social media. Many young people now prefer watching short videos or listening to podcasts, missing the unique experience of decoding (解码) a long text and imagining a world in their minds. Despite these challenges, printed books remain a powerful tool for our minds. Literature, in particular, is more than just a collection of stories; it helps us develop “cognitive patience”— the ability to focus and think deeply. The act of reading also guides us into the lives of different characters, helping us understand people who are different from ourselves. In this way, books allow us to see the world through others’ eyes. On World Book Day — or any day — taking time to read quietly is an important choice. Even in a noisy digital world, reading lets us connect with the deep and meaningful voices of human experience. 32. What is the author’s purpose in writing Paragraph 1? A. To explain a rule. B. To introduce an event. C. To present a problem. D. To describe busy lives. 33. What is Dr. Maryanne Wolf’s major concern? A. The lack of free time for daily reading. B. The loss of the ability to think and feel deeply. C. The high cost of owning digital products. D. The slow speed of scanning for quick information. 34. What can we infer from the studies mentioned in Paragraph 3? A. Teenagers read more today. B. Social media affects reading. C. Reading for pleasure is rising. D. Videos help build imagination. 35. What does Paragraph 4 mainly talk about? A. The mental value of books. B. The history of literature. C. The methods of deep reading. D. The power of different characters. 【答案】32. C 33. B 34. B 35. A 【解析】 【导语】文章主要讲述了数字干扰对阅读的影响，强调了深度阅读的重要性及纸质书籍对思维的益处。 【32题详解】 推理判断题。根据第一段中“April 23 is World Book Day, a global event organized by UNESCO to encourage reading. On this day, people are invited to step away from their busy lives to lose themselves in a story. However, staying focused on a book has become much harder today because of what experts call “digital distraction (干扰).” (4月23日是世界图书日，这是由联合国教科文组织发起的一项全球性活动，旨在鼓励阅读。在这一天，人们受邀暂别忙碌的生活，沉浸于书中的故事。然而，由于专家所称的“数字干扰”，如今专注于一本书已经变得困难得多)”可知，作者在第一段中先介绍世界图书日，然后谈及让读书变得困难的“数字干扰”，所以作者在第一段主要是为了提出一个问题。 【33题详解】 细节理解题。根据第二段中“Dr. Maryanne Wolf, a neuroscientist at Tufts University and author of Reader, Come Home, warns that constant digital use may be changing the way we read. While we are becoming better at scanning for quick information, we are losing the ability for “deep reading,” which is necessary for careful thinking and understanding other people’s feelings.(塔夫茨大学的神经科学家、《读者，回家吧》一书的作者玛丽安·沃尔夫博士警告说，频繁使用数字设备可能会改变我们的阅读方式。虽然我们越来越擅长快速浏览信息，但我们正在失去“深度阅读”的能力，而深度阅读对于认真思考和理解他人的感受是必要的)”可知，玛丽安·沃尔夫博士担心的是数字设备的使用正在改变我们的阅读方式，使我们失去深度思考和理解他人情感的能力。 【34题详解】 推理判断题。根据第三段中“One study found that many teenagers today have smaller vocabularies (词汇量) and weaker reading skills than those from a century ago. In addition, the percentage of young people who read for pleasure has dropped from 37% to just 17%. While heavy schoolwork contributes to this drop, the main reason is the easy fun provided by social media.(一项研究发现，如今许多青少年的词汇量比一个世纪前的青少年要小，阅读能力也比一个世纪前的青少年弱。此外，以阅读为乐的年轻人的比例从37%下降到了17%。虽然繁重的课业是导致这一比例下降的原因之一，但主要原因是社交媒体提供的轻松乐趣)”可知，社交媒体提供的轻松娱乐是导致青少年阅读乐趣下降的主要原因，从而影响了他们的阅读能力。 【35题详解】 主旨大意题。根据第四段中“Despite these challenges, printed books remain a powerful tool for our minds. Literature, in particular, is more than just a collection of stories; it helps us develop “cognitive patience”— the ability to focus and think deeply. The act of reading also guides us into the lives of different characters, helping us understand people who are different from ourselves. In this way, books allow us to see the world through others’ eyes.(尽管面临这些挑战，纸质书籍仍然是我们思维的强大工具。尤其是文学，它不仅仅是一系列故事的集合；它帮助我们培养“认知耐心”——即专注和深入思考的能力。阅读的行为还引导我们进入不同角色的生活，帮助我们理解与我们不同的人。通过这种方式，书籍让我们能够通过他人的眼睛看世界)”可知，本段主要讨论了纸质书籍对思维的益处，包括培养认知耐心、帮助理解不同的人以及通过他人的视角看世界，即“书籍的精神价值”。 第二节(共5 小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How Should I Use AI Chatbots Like ChatGPT? Some people say that AI (Artificial Intelligence) can be unpredictable and unreliable. I have seen them give wrong answers many times. But I have also seen these AI programs do amazing things that surprised me. ____36____ Here are some things that AI is especially good at right now: Explaining concepts at different levels I have been using AI as my personal tutor. If I start a new topic, I will ask it to explain the idea at a high school level so that I can understand the basics. ____37____ Using an infinitely patient tutor to guide me through new subjects feels like a “superpower” which helps me learn faster. Getting help with creative work AI can also be a good tool to help you find new ideas. If you are trying to prepare questions for an interview or write a story, AI can give you some thoughtful suggestions. ____38____ As a famous professor said, “AI provides a way of giving yourself a push when you are stuck.” Practicing for real-world tasks ____39____ When I had to have a difficult talk with a friend, I asked an AI program to play a role-playing game with me. “Pretend you are my friend, and react the way you think my friend might react,” I told it. Then I practiced the conversation. It made me feel more confident. Although chatbots cannot replace real human friendship, they can offer you basic advice and feedback without judging you. Summarizing large amounts of text One of the most powerful abilities of AI is to quickly summarize long articles. I have used AI to “read” long articles and difficult papers, after which it tells me the most important points. Usually, they can find the main ideas correctly, even if some details are missing. ____40____ A. However, it often brings us a lot of trouble in our daily life. B. If I am still confused, I will ask it to explain again at a lower level. C. I use AI to practice for tasks that I find difficult or even frightening. D. This helps people overcome difficulties and start hard projects easily. E. It saves me a lot of time when I need to deal with complex information. F. Actually, they can be very helpful if we know how to use them properly. G. Modern technology is changing the way we talk with our family members. 【答案】36. F 37. B 38. D 39. C 40. E 【解析】 【导语】文章主要介绍了我们应当如何合理使用人工智能聊天机器人，分别从分层讲解知识、辅助创意工作、模拟实景练习、概括长篇文本四个方面，介绍了人工智能的实用优势与正确用法。 【36题详解】 根据前文“I have seen them give wrong answers many times. But I have also seen these AI programs do amazing things that surprised me.(我多次见过他们给出错误答案。但我也见过这些人工智能程序做出令我惊讶的神奇事情。)” 以及空后“Here are some things that AI is especially good at right now: (以下是人工智能目前特别擅长的一些事情)” 可知，前文提到人工智能有弊端也有亮点，空格处需要过渡，引出合理使用 AI 会很有帮助；选项F“Actually, they can be very helpful if we know how to use them properly.(事实上，如果我们知道如何正确使用它们，它们会非常有帮助。)” 符合上下文逻辑。 【37题详解】 根据前文“If I start a new topic, I will ask it to explain the idea at a high school level so that I can understand the basics.(如果我开始一个新话题，我会要求它以高中水平解释这个概念，方便我理解基础内容。)” 可知，此处围绕 AI 分层讲解知识展开；选项B“If I am still confused, I will ask it to explain again at a lower level.(如果我仍然困惑，我会让它以更浅显的水平再解释一遍。)” 与前文形成递进衔接，贴合段落语境。 【38题详解】 根据前文“AI can also be a good tool to help you find new ideas. If you are trying to prepare questions for an interview or write a story, AI can give you some thoughtful suggestions.(人工智能也是帮助你寻找新灵感的好工具。如果你要准备面试问题或写故事，人工智能可以给出周到的建议。)” 以及后文“AI provides a way of giving yourself a push when you are stuck.(当你陷入困境时，人工智能可以帮自己一把。)” 可知，空格处需要总结AI助力创意工作的作用；选项D“This helps people overcome difficulties and start hard projects easily.(这帮助人们克服困难，轻松开展有难度的创作工作。)” 衔接自然。 【39题详解】 根据本段小标题“Practicing for real-world tasks (为现实场景任务做练习)” 以及后文“When I had to have a difficult talk with a friend, I asked an AI program to play a role-playing game with me.(当我需要和朋友进行一场艰难的谈话时，我让人工智能程序和我进行角色扮演。)” 可知，空格处为本段总起句，引出利用AI练习困难任务；选项C“I use AI to practice for tasks that I find difficult or even frightening.(我利用人工智能练习那些我觉得困难甚至令人胆怯的事情。)” 统领全段内容。 【40题详解】 根据前文“One of the most powerful abilities of AI is to quickly summarize long articles. I have used AI to “read” long articles and difficult papers, after which it tells me the most important points.(人工智能最强大的能力之一是快速概括长篇文章。我会用人工智能阅读长篇文章和难懂的论文，之后它会提炼重点。)” 可知，此处讲述AI概括文本的优势；选项E“It saves me a lot of time when I need to deal with complex information.(当我需要处理复杂信息时，这为我节省了大量时间。)” 承接上文，说明该功能带来的实际好处。 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分35分) 第一节(共20小题：每小题1分，满分20分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 As a child, I was terribly shy — so silent that even in a crowded classroom, I felt like I was ____41____. To me, the world was a stage where I was the only one ____42____ words. The thought of being noticed made me feel ____43____ — a feeling that stayed with me even after I graduated from university. Four years ago, on a very hot summer afternoon, I was at a playground with friends when I ____44____ something happening. A girl about ten was ____45____ her younger sister’s arm, shouting, “Stop being silly! Get up!” The little girl lay on the hard ground, crying ____46____ like a sudden storm. Then the elder girl went away ____47____, leaving the little one alone. My friends watched in awkward ____48____, not knowing what to do. I ____49____ wanted to step forward and help her — but my usual ____50____ stopped me. Then a thought hit: Why wait for permission to do what’s ____51____? Taking a deep breath, I walked ____52____ slowly. My voice was very ____53____: “Hey, it’s okay.” I ____54____ my hand to show I was friendly. To my ____55____, she ran into my arms and held me so tightly. I could feel how ____56____ she was. In that short moment, a special connection was formed between us. Soon, the elder girl returned with their father. It ____57____ to me that he would probably be angry at a stranger hugging his child. My heart beat fast, but I didn’t ____58____. To my great relief, the man only gave a small nod. “Come on, honey,” he said gently. The girl wiped away her tears and gave me a warm smile before walking away. That day, I learned that sometimes, the bravest thing you can do is to ____59____ while you’re still afraid. In helping a stranger, I finally found my own ____60____. 41. A. unnoticed B. unfriendly C. comfortable D. popular 42. A. with B. without C. beyond D. besides 43. A. excited B. proud C. nervous D. sad 44. A. heard B. spotted C. felt D. stopped 45. A. raising B. waving C. hurting D. pulling 46. A. softly B. loudly C. silently D. quietly 47. A. happily B. quietly C. angrily D. slowly 48. A. silence B. horror C. excitement D. pain 49. A. hardly B. badly C. hurriedly D. never 50. A. overthinking B. pride C. shyness D. coldness 51. A. right B. possible C. brave D. hard 52. A. out B. back C. away D. forward 53. A. weak B. soft C. clear D. loud 54. A. threw up B. held up C. held out D. shook out 55. A. satisfaction B. amazement C. regret D. disappointment 56. A. scared B. brave C. angry D. patient 57. A. belonged B. happened C. occurred D. turned 58. A. run away B. sit down C. stand up D. go on 59. A. speak B. feel C. act D. think 60. A. secret B. voice C. success D. value 【答案】41. A 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. D 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. C 51. A 52. D 53. B 54. C 55. B 56. A 57. C 58. A 59. C 60. B 【解析】 【导语】文章介绍了作者从小极度害羞，一次在游乐场目睹小女孩被姐姐丢下后，克服害羞心理主动上前安慰，最终找回自信与自我价值的故事。 【41题详解】 考查形容词。句意：小时候，我非常害羞——如此沉默，即使在拥挤的教室里，我也感觉自己不被注意。A. unnoticed不被注意的；B. unfriendly不友好的；C. comfortable舒适的；D. popular受欢迎的。根据前文“so silent”可知，作者很沉默，感觉自己“不被注意”。 【42题详解】 考查介词。句意：对我来说，世界就像一个舞台，而我是唯一一个无话可说的人。A. with有；B. without没有；C. beyond超出；D. besides除了。根据前文“terribly shy — so silent”可知，作者害羞沉默，“没有”话可说。 【43题详解】 考查形容词。句意：一想到被人注意，我就感到紧张——这种感觉即使在大学毕业后也一直伴随着我。A. excited兴奋的；B. proud骄傲的；C. nervous紧张的；D. sad难过的。根据前文“I was terribly shy”可知，害羞的人被注意时会感到“紧张”。 【44题详解】 考查动词。句意：四年前一个炎热的夏日午后，我和朋友们在操场上，突然看到发生了一件事。A. heard听到；B. spotted看到；C. felt感觉到；D. stopped停止。根据后文“The little girl lay on the hard ground”描述的场景，可知，作者“看到”事情发生。 【45题详解】 考查动词。句意：一个大约十岁的女孩正拉着她妹妹的胳膊，大喊：“别傻了！起来！”A. raising举起；B. waving挥手；C. hurting伤害；D. pulling拉。根据后文“The little girl lay on the hard ground”可知，妹妹躺在地上，姐姐是“拉”她的胳膊。 【46题详解】 考查副词。句意：小女孩躺在坚硬的地上，大声哭泣，像一场突如其来的暴风雨。A. softly轻柔地；B. loudly大声地；C. silently默默地；D. quietly安静地。根据后文“like a sudden storm”可知，小女孩哭得“大声”。 【47题详解】 考查副词。句意：然后姐姐生气地走开了，留下小妹妹一个人。A. happily开心地；B. quietly安静地；C. angrily生气地；D. slowly慢慢地。根据前文“shouting, “Stop being silly! Get up!””姐姐大喊大叫，可知她“生气地”离开了。 【48题详解】 考查名词。句意：我的朋友们尴尬地看着，不知道该怎么办。A. silence沉默；B. horror恐惧；C. excitement兴奋；D. pain痛苦。根据后文“not knowing what to do”可知，朋友们处于尴尬的“沉默”中。 【49题详解】 考查副词。句意：我非常想上前去帮她——但我一贯的害羞阻止了我。A. hardly几乎不；B. badly非常，极度；C. hurriedly匆忙地；D. never从不。根据后文“wanted to step forward and help her”及“but my usual    stopped me”可知，作者“非常”想去帮忙。 【50题详解】 考查名词。句意同上。A. overthinking过度思考；B. pride骄傲；C. shyness害羞；D. coldness冷漠。根据前文“terribly shy”可知，作者的“害羞”阻止了她。 【51题详解】 考查形容词。句意：这时一个想法闪过：为什么要等别人允许才去做正确的事呢？A. right正确的；B. possible可能的；C. brave勇敢的；D. hard困难的。根据前文“wanted to step forward and help her”可知，帮助哭泣的小女孩是“正确的”事。 【52题详解】 考查副词。句意：深吸一口气，我慢慢走上前。A. out向外；B. back向后；C. away离开；D. forward向前。根据前文 “step forward and help her”可知，作者走上前去帮助小女孩。 【53题详解】 考查形容词。句意：我的声音非常温柔：“嘿，没事的。”A. weak虚弱的；B. soft温柔的；C. clear清晰的；D. loud大声的。根据前文“I was terribly shy”可知，作者害羞，安慰小女孩时声音是“温柔的”。 【54题详解】 考查动词短语。句意：我伸出手，表示我很友好。A. threw up呕吐；B. held up举起；C. held out伸出；D. shook out抖出。根据前文“The little girl lay on the hard ground”及后文“to show I was friendly”可知，作者“伸出”手去帮助小女孩，表示自己的友好。 【55题详解】 考查名词。句意：令我惊讶的是，她跑进我的怀里，紧紧地抱着我。A. satisfaction满意；B. amazement惊讶；C. regret后悔；D. disappointment失望。根据后文“she ran into my arms and held me so tightly”可知，作者没想到小女孩会跑过来，感到“惊讶”。 【56题详解】 考查形容词。句意：我能感觉到她有多害怕。A. scared害怕的；B. brave勇敢的；C. angry生气的；D. patient耐心的。根据前文“leaving the little one alone”可知，小女孩被独自留下，应该是“害怕的”。 【57题详解】 考查动词。句意：我突然想到，他可能会对一个抱着他孩子的陌生人感到生气。A. belonged属于；B. happened发生；C. occurred发生；D. turned转动。根据后文“he would probably be angry at a stranger hugging his child”可知，这是作者突然的想法，It occurred to sb.是固定搭配，意为“某人突然想到”。 【58题详解】 考查动词短语。句意：我的心跳得很快，但我没有逃跑。A. run away逃跑；B. sit down坐下；C. stand up站起来；D. go on继续。根据前文“My heart beat fast, but”可知，作者虽然紧张，但没有“逃离”。 【59题详解】 考查动词。句意：那天我明白了，有时候，最勇敢的事就是在你还害怕的时候采取行动。A. speak说；B. feel感觉；C. act行动；D. think思考。根据前文“Taking a deep breath, I walked  slowly”可知，作者克服害羞上前帮忙，是一种勇敢的“行动”。 【60题详解】 考查名词。句意：在帮助一个陌生人的过程中，我终于找到了自己的声音。A. secret秘密；B. voice声音；C. success成功；D. value价值。根据前文“ I was terribly shy — so silent”可知，作者害羞沉默，不敢表达，这里指找回了表达自我的 “声音”。 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The Sky Railway The Qinghai-Tibet Railway, known as the “Sky Railway,” connects Xining and Lhasa. Once ____61____ (consider) “impossible” by many experts, it has become a true wonder of modern engineering (工程). I was among the workers ____62____ came from all over China to work on this railway. Completed after years of effort, it stands as a record of our ____63____ (determine) to overcome huge challenges. The top concern during ____64____ (build) the railway was how to protect the easily damaged ecosystem. ____65____ (ensure) that wild residents could move freely, thirty-three special passages were built under the railway. In addition, 140,000 square meters of wetland were carefully moved to new areas to keep the environment ____66____ (balance). The environment was not the only challenge; the high altitude also tested the workers. At Tanggula Station, located over 5,000 meters above sea level, the thin air and strong UV radiation made work ____67____ (extreme) difficult. To keep us healthy, oxygen-making stations ____68____ (place) along the way. The Sky Railway is more than a train line; it connects ancient nature ____69____ modern progress. Passengers from all over the country are now enjoying the magical views — an experience that feels like ____70____ journey through the clouds, where human dreams meet nature’s wonders. 【答案】61. considered 62. who##that 63. determination 64. building 65. To ensure 66. balanced 67. extremely 68. were placed 69. with##and 70. a 【解析】 【导语】文章主要介绍了青藏铁路的建设过程、面临的挑战以及它所带来的意义。 【61题详解】 考查非谓语动词。句意：青藏铁路，被誉为“天路”，连接着西宁和拉萨，它曾被许多专家认为“不可能”建成，如今却已成为现代工程的一大奇迹。“(consider) “impossible” by many experts”作状语，consider(认为)用非谓语动词形式，与其逻辑主语it（指代The Qinghai-Tibet Railway）之间是被动关系，应用过去分词形式表被动。 【62题详解】 考查定语从句。句意：我是来自中国各地的参与修建这条铁路的工人之一。“____ came from all over China to work on this railway”是限制性定语从句，修饰先行词workers，指人，关系词将其代入定语从句中作主语，应使用关系代词who或that引导该从句。 【63题详解】 考查名词。句意：经过多年的努力，它的建成记录了我们克服巨大挑战的决心。提示词作介词宾语，用名词determination，意为“决心”，不可数名词。 【64题详解】 考查非谓语动词。句意：在修建铁路的过程中，最令人担忧的是如何保护脆弱的生态系统。提示词作介词during后宾语，用动名词building。 【65题详解】 考查非谓语动词。句意：为了确保野生动物能够自由移动，铁路下方修建了33条特殊通道。“(ensure) that wild residents could move freely”作目的状语，用动词不定式to ensure，句首单词首字母大写。 【66题详解】 考查形容词。句意：此外，为了保持环境平衡，还小心地将14万平方米的湿地迁移到了新的区域。提示词作宾语补足语，用形容词balanced，意为“平衡的”，表明逻辑主语the environment的性质。 【67题详解】 考查副词。句意：在海拔超过5000米的唐古拉车站，稀薄的空气和强烈的紫外线辐射使得工作变得极其困难。提示词修饰形容词difficult，用副词extremely作状语，意为“极其”。 【68题详解】 考查时态语态和主谓一致。句意：为了保持我们的健康，沿途设置了制氧站。place(设置)是谓语动词，与主语oxygen-making stations之间是被动关系，结合上下文可知，讲述过去的事情，应用一般过去时，主语是复数名词，谓语动词用复数形式were placed。 【69题详解】 考查介词和连词。句意：天路不仅仅是一条铁路线，它连接着古老的自然与现代的进步。connect...with/and...为固定搭配，意为“把……和……连接起来”。 【70题详解】 考查冠词。句意：来自全国各地的乘客现在正享受着这神奇的景色——一种仿佛穿越云端的旅程，人类梦想与自然奇观交汇的地方。journey(旅程)是可数名词单数，泛指“一次穿越云端的旅程”，且journey发音以辅音音素开头，应用不定冠词a修饰。 第四部分 写作(共两节;满分35分) 第一节 应用文写作(满分15分) 71. 假定你是李华。你校正在举办“校园英语节”，你负责“中国传统节日”展位的解说工作。外教Mr. Green来到你的展位前，请你向他介绍一个你最喜欢的传统节日。内容包括： 1.节日介绍； 2.节日的意义。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Hi, Mr. Green! Welcome to our booth. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I hope you have a wonderful time exploring our English Festival! 【答案】Possible version 1 Hi, Mr. Green! Welcome to our booth. I’m honored to introduce my favorite traditional festival — the Mid-Autumn Festival. Falling on the 15th day of the eighth lunar month, it is a time when the moon is at its fullest and brightest. As you can see from these displays, we celebrate it by enjoying delicious mooncakes and appreciating the moonlight with our families. Beyond the food, the festival carries a deep modern meaning: it symbolizes unity and harmony. In our fast-paced life, it provides a precious chance for family reunions and cultural reflection. I hope you have a wonderful time exploring our English Festival! Possible version 2 Hi, Mr. Green! Welcome to our booth. I’m delighted to share with you the Spring Festival, the most significant traditional festival in China. It is a time when families reunite. In the days leading up to the festival, we thoroughly clean our homes and hang red decorations to invite good fortune. On New Year’s Eve, families gather for a big dinner, and children eagerly receive red packets containing money. For us, the Spring Festival symbolizes new beginnings, hope, and the enduring bond of family. It is not just a celebration, but also a heartfelt expression of love and gratitude. I hope you enjoy exploring our English Festival! 【解析】 【导语】本篇书面表达要求考生在校园英语节展位，向外教Mr. Green介绍自己最喜欢的中国传统节日及节日意义。 【详解】1. 词汇积累 荣幸的：honored→privileged 象征：symbolize→embody 珍贵的：precious→treasured 极好的：wonderful →fantastic 2. 句式拓展 同义句转换 原句：In our fast-paced life, it provides a precious chance for family reunions and cultural reflection. 拓展句：With life becoming increasingly fast-paced, it provides a priceless chance to reunite with families and reflect on traditional culture. 【点睛】【高分句型 1】Falling on the 15th day of the eighth lunar month, it is a time when the moon is at its fullest and brightest. (运用了现在分词Falling作状语以及when引导的定语从句) 【高分句型 2】I hope you have a wonderful time exploring our English Festival! (运用了省略that的宾语从句) 第二节 读后续写(满分20分) 72. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写一段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 On a hot, still July afternoon, 17-year-old Kevin was enjoying his holiday at his grandma’s two-story countryside house, the air thick and slow around him. The peaceful day was soon broken by a loud noise of far-off thunder (雷声). Within an hour, light rain turned into a scary rainstorm. The nearby river, usually quiet, rose into a roaring brown beast. Grandma’s face turned pale as a radio announcement reported that the Millstone Dam above the town had broken. “We must move fast, Kevin!” she cried over the loud wind. Icy water began coming through the floor, rising bit by bit, Panic rose in Kevin’ s heart, but he forced himself to stay calm. “Upstairs, Grandma — we need higher ground!” Remembering his school safety drills, He grabbed (抓) a backpack and quickly put in bottled water, food, a flashlight, a whistle (口哨), and Grandma’s medicine. They walked through knee-deep water to the second floor. “Try calling for help,” Grandma urged. Kevin took the phone, but the signal was weak. He called 911 many times until a weak voice answered, saying that help was on the way. Night fell. The water reached the second floor, beating against the windowsills (窗台).To stay visible, Kevin flashed the light across the darkness while Grandma blew the whistle. The rain hid everything, but they refused to give up — they’ d made contact, and rescue was coming. Suddenly, a light danced across the water. It wasn’t thunder this time, but the roar of an engine. A bright orange rescue boat appeared, with two rescuers searching the darkness for them. 注意： 1.续写词数应为100左右； 2.续写部分为一段，开头语已为你写好。 The rescue boat stopped near the window, and a rescuer shouted, “Grab the rope!” _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】[Possible version 1] The rescue boat stopped beside the window, and a rescuer shouted, “Grab the rope!” Kevin caught the thick line and tied it around Grandma’s waist with trembling but steady hands. “Don’t be afraid. I’m right here,” he whispered to comfort her. With the rescuers’ help, Grandma was pulled safely into the rocking boat. Kevin then grabbed the emergency bag and jumped in. As they moved away through the dark, splashing water, Kevin wrapped a dry blanket around his shivering grandmother. He looked back at the house sinking in the flood and felt a great sense of relief. He was deeply thankful for the rescue team and proud that he could protect his grandmother in the scary storm. [Possible version 2] The rescue boat stopped beside the window, and a rescuer shouted, “Grab the rope!” Kevin caught the thick line, and at the same time, a rescuer handed over a bright yellow life jacket. Kevin quickly helped Grandma put the jacket on and buckled it. Then, he tied the safety rope around her waist to keep her steady. With the rescuers’ help, they were both pulled safely onto the rocking boat. As they moved away through the dark water, Kevin wrapped a dry blanket around his shivering grandmother. When they finally reached the safe center, Grandma held Kevin’s hand tightly. With a proud smile, she whispered, “You were so brave, Kevin. You stayed calm and saved us.” Kevin felt a great sense of relief, he was happy to protect his family in the storm. 【解析】 【导语】本文以洪水救援为线索展开，讲述了凯文和奶奶遭遇洪水被困二楼，最终等来救援船的故事。 【详解】1. 段落续写： 由段首句可知，本段可描写凯文协助奶奶借助绳索登上救援船，两人成功获救后，凯文照顾奶奶，内心满是庆幸与自豪的过程。 2. 续写线索：绑绳护奶奶——奶奶登船——凯文上船——照顾奶奶——回望淹水房屋——心生感慨 3. 词汇激活： 行为类 ①绑住：tie/fasten ②小声说：whisper/murmur 情绪类 ①害怕的：afraid/scared ②感激的：thankful/grateful 【点睛】[高分句型1] As they moved away through the dark, splashing water, Kevin wrapped a dry blanket around his shivering grandmother. (运用了as引导的时间状语从句) [高分句型2] He was deeply thankful for the rescue team and proud that he could protect his grandmother in the scary storm. (运用了that引导的宾语从句) 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025 ~2026学年度第二学期期中考试 高一英语试题 (试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟) 注意事项： 1.在答题纸的密封线内填写学校、班级、姓名、考号等，密封线内不要答题。 2.请将所有答案均按照题号填涂或填写在答题卡相应的答题处，否则不得分。 第一部分 听力(共两节;满分30分) 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5 小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段录音后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段录音播放两遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 When does the wildlife park open? A. At 9:00. B. At 10:00. C. At 11:00. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What does the man think of his new job? A. Stressful. B. Satisfactory. C. Easy. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What will the woman do tomorrow? A. Look after a kid. B. Go to the library. C. Join the study group. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Neighbors. B. Workmates. C. Tour guide and tourist. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 What are the speakers talking about? A. A health problem. B. A medical appointment. C. A missed breakfast. 第二节(共15 小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面 5 段录音。每段录音后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段录音前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟;听完后，每小题都有 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段录音播放两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 6. Why is the woman making the call? A. To report a loss. B. To place an order. C. To ask for information. 7. What will the woman do next? A. Go to a bank. B. Call the local branch. C. Take a vacation. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 8. How did Ms. Rogers feel last weekend? A. Tired. B. Bored. C. Cheerful. 9. What does Mr. Cooper intend to do this Sunday? A. Go for a drive. B. Telephone the farm owner. C. Take his daughter to a farm. 10. What does Ms. Rogers suggest Mr. Cooper do! A. Book in advance. B. Wait until next month. C. Check for more details. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. What does Linda offer to do for Matt? A. Introduce Alex to him. B. Give him a tour of Banford. C. Help him move house. 12. Why can’t Matt meet Linda next Tuesday? A. He needs to work late. B. He has to go home early. C. He will be on a train trip. 13. Where will Linda wait for Matt? A. In a cafe. B. In the train station. C. In a museum. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 14. What is special about the cookery workshop? A. It is held once every day. B. It is about making healthy food. C. It is popular with both adults and children. 15. What is the poster workshop held for? A. To enrich community life. B. To bring residents together. C. To teach kids the town’s history. 16. Why is the toy-making workshop just for adults? A. It requires much hard work. B. It could be dangerous for children. C. It is about making large wooden toys. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 17. What made the speaker unhappy at first? A. The bad weather. B. The early meeting time. C. The tiring bus journey. 18. How many students went on the trip? A. 10. B. 30. C. 33. 19. What did the speaker do after lunch? A. She looked for food. B. She made a shelter. C. She collected potatoes. 20. What did the speaker have for supper? A. Leftovers from lunch. B. Food prepared at home. C. Self-made soup. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Disaster Prevention and Management (DPM): A Journal for the People Picture a magazine that examines more than the physical side of disasters — like earthquake strength or rising floodwaters — and instead focuses on the “people” side of events. That’s what Disaster Prevention and Management (DPM) does. As an international journal (杂志), we explore how communities prepare, how governments respond, and how recovery can be fair and effective for everyone. What Guides Us? Two main rules guide our work: justice and equality — ensuring that everyone affected by disasters is heard, especially those who need the most support. We believe the voices and knowledge of local communities matter most, because they are the ones living through these events. Our goal is to build a bridge connecting social scientists, policymakers, and the brave people working on the front lines. What Can You Share? We welcome a wide variety of works: traditional research papers, case studies, opinion pieces, and creative styles such as: Photo essays or comic strips (漫画) Blog posts and short reports Book reviews, often including author interviews If you have a unique idea that does not fit the “usual” model, feel free to talk to our editors — they are always happy to discuss new ways of storytelling. We especially encourage early-stage researchers and those whose first language is not English to share their ideas. Details for Sending Your Work • Word Count: Under 7,000 words. • The Requirement: Your cover letter must explain how your work links back to our basic rules. • The Review: Each paper will be checked by two experts. For case studies, we ensure at least one reviewer truly understands the local situation. Ready to join us? Visit our website to check out our style guide and join our global conversation! 21. What makes DPM different from most other research journals? A. It asks for support from readers. B. It stresses how disasters affect people. C. It encourages policymakers to build bridges. D. It focuses only on the physical aspects of disasters. 22. Which of the following can you send to DPM according to the text? A. An interview going against justice. B. A case study about a local disaster. C. A research paper of ten thousand words. D. A report exploring new ways of telling stories. 23. Who might be interested in the article? A. A student learning to draw comic strips. B. Tourists who plan to visit disaster-hit areas. C. A writer with a story about people in a flood. D. A government official enjoying reading blogs. B The 2025 Nobel Prize in Literature went to László Krasznahorkai, a 71-year-old writer from Hungary. The Nobel Committee praised him for creating powerful stories that show the strength of art even in times of fear. If his name doesn’t ring a bell, you are not alone. His books are not easy to read, but his fans say they are a “workout for the brain”— hard to read but very satisfying. Krasznahorkai was born in a small town in Hungary. As a teenager, he played jazz piano in an adult band. Music taught him rhythm and patience, which later influenced his writing style. Although he first studied law to please his father, he soon changed his major to literature to follow what he really loved. Today, he is seen as one of the most important writers in the world. Before becoming a full-time writer, Krasznahorkai worked many different jobs, such as a miner and a night watchman. These experiences helped him understand the hardships and dignity (尊严) of ordinary people. They also inspired his first famous novel, Satantango, published in 1985. The book describes a dying village and made him famous for his “lava-like” sentences — slow, strong, and unstoppable. Krasznahorkai’ s imagination has no borders. He has traveled to many countries, including China. After his first visit in 1991, he became very interested in Chinese culture, especially Li Bai’s poems. In 1998, he even visited ten Chinese cities to follow the poet’s steps. His wife, an expert in Chinese studies, has always been his guide to Asian culture. When he won the prize, Krasznahorkai said that literature has its own value. It can offer hope and show that beauty still exists. His work reminds us that even in the darkest times, art can light a small candle, helping us find beauty in a messy world. 24. What does the underlined phrase “ring a bell” probably mean in the first paragraph? A. Make a loud noise. B. Sound familiar to you. C. Remind you of danger. D. Make you feel excited. 25. What are Krasznahorkai’s works like? A. They are short and easy to follow. B. They focus on stories in villages. C. They show both hardships and hope. D. They are mainly about jazz and law. 26. What is unique about Krasznahorkai’s connection to China? A. He moved to China to live with his wife. B. He wrote his first novel in a Chinese city. C. He is strongly influenced by Chinese culture. D. He became an expert in Chinese studies in 1991. 27. Which of the following can be the best title for the text? A. Art: A Small Candle in the Darkest Times B. Li Bai: A Great Inspiration for Krasznahorkai C. Difficult Books: A New Trend of the Nobel Prize D. A Writer Who Finds Beauty in Life’s Challenges C On a foggy winter day in early 2025, India’s first “Garbage Cafe” in Ambikapur feels warm and cozy. Inside, people are sitting on wooden benches, enjoying hot meals. However, these hungry customers do not pay with money. Instead, they hand over plastic waste — old bags, wrappers, or bottles. Launched in 2019, the cafe’s slogan is “More the waste, better the taste.” The idea is simple: help low-income residents earn meals while cleaning the streets. For one kilogram of plastic, a person can get a full meal including rice, vegetables, and bread. On average, the cafe feeds more than 20 people every day. This project has brought great changes to the environment. Since 2019, it has collected almost 23 tonnes (吨) of plastic. In the city, annual plastic waste has fallen from 5.4 tonnes in 2019 to just two tonnes in 2024. After being collected, the plastic is sent to local centers to be recycled. These centers also provide jobs for 480 local women, helping them earn a regular income. The successful idea has spread to other parts of India. Siliguri, in West Bengal, started a similar program in 2019, and Mysuru, in Karnataka, allows residents to trade plastic for breakfast or a full meal. Even abroad, in Cambodia, people can exchange plastic waste for rice. These projects show that local solutions can truly make a difference, proving how small, community-driven efforts can have a meaningful impact on both people and the environment. While the plastic waste collection schemes have had an impact, experts note they aren’t able to address problems such as the overproduction of plastic and non-recyclable plastic. They are like a “quick fix” for the surface of the problem, but the root causes — such as too much plastic production and consumption — still need to be solved. “It’s a good beginning,” says researcher Minal Pathak, “but bigger changes are still needed.” 28. How do customers pay for their meals at the Garbage Cafe? A. With money. B. With social support. C. With plastic waste. D. With personal service. 29. Why does the author mention the specific numbers in Paragraph 3? A. To show the research process. B. To show concern about plastic pollution. C. To explain how to recycle plastic. D. To prove the benefits of the project. 30. What does the author want to tell us by the examples in paragraph 4? A. Global teamwork is successful. B. Programs are similar everywhere. C. Little effort can achieve much. D. The cafes offer people rice as well. 31. What is Minal Pathak’ s attitude toward the project? A. Doubtful and worried. B. Satisfied and hopeful. C. Supportive but concerned. D. Unclear. D April 23 is World Book Day, a global event organized by UNESCO to encourage reading. On this day, people are invited to step away from their busy lives to lose themselves in a story. However, staying focused on a book has become much harder today because of what experts call “digital distraction (干扰).” The problem is not just a lack of free time, but a change in how our brains process information. As smartphones, tablets, and social media take up more attention, many people find it difficult to concentrate on one thing for long. Dr. Maryanne Wolf, a neuroscientist at Tufts University and author of Reader, Come Home, warns that constant digital use may be changing the way we read. While we are becoming better at scanning for quick information, we are losing the ability for “deep reading,” which is necessary for careful thinking and understanding other people’s feelings. Recent studies show some worrying trends. One study found that many teenagers today have smaller vocabularies (词汇量) and weaker reading skills than those from a century ago. In addition, the percentage of young people who read for pleasure has dropped from 37% to just 17%. While heavy schoolwork contributes to this drop, the main reason is the easy fun provided by social media. Many young people now prefer watching short videos or listening to podcasts, missing the unique experience of decoding (解码) a long text and imagining a world in their minds. Despite these challenges, printed books remain a powerful tool for our minds. Literature, in particular, is more than just a collection of stories; it helps us develop “cognitive patience”— the ability to focus and think deeply. The act of reading also guides us into the lives of different characters, helping us understand people who are different from ourselves. In this way, books allow us to see the world through others’ eyes. On World Book Day — or any day — taking time to read quietly is an important choice. Even in a noisy digital world, reading lets us connect with the deep and meaningful voices of human experience. 32. What is the author’s purpose in writing Paragraph 1? A. To explain a rule. B. To introduce an event. C. To present a problem. D. To describe busy lives. 33. What is Dr. Maryanne Wolf’s major concern? A. The lack of free time for daily reading. B. The loss of the ability to think and feel deeply. C. The high cost of owning digital products. D. The slow speed of scanning for quick information. 34. What can we infer from the studies mentioned in Paragraph 3? A. Teenagers read more today. B. Social media affects reading. C. Reading for pleasure is rising. D. Videos help build imagination. 35. What does Paragraph 4 mainly talk about? A. The mental value of books. B. The history of literature. C. The methods of deep reading. D. The power of different characters. 第二节(共5 小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 How Should I Use AI Chatbots Like ChatGPT? Some people say that AI (Artificial Intelligence) can be unpredictable and unreliable. I have seen them give wrong answers many times. But I have also seen these AI programs do amazing things that surprised me. ____36____ Here are some things that AI is especially good at right now: Explaining concepts at different levels I have been using AI as my personal tutor. If I start a new topic, I will ask it to explain the idea at a high school level so that I can understand the basics. ____37____ Using an infinitely patient tutor to guide me through new subjects feels like a “superpower” which helps me learn faster. Getting help with creative work AI can also be a good tool to help you find new ideas. If you are trying to prepare questions for an interview or write a story, AI can give you some thoughtful suggestions. ____38____ As a famous professor said, “AI provides a way of giving yourself a push when you are stuck.” Practicing for real-world tasks ____39____ When I had to have a difficult talk with a friend, I asked an AI program to play a role-playing game with me. “Pretend you are my friend, and react the way you think my friend might react,” I told it. Then I practiced the conversation. It made me feel more confident. Although chatbots cannot replace real human friendship, they can offer you basic advice and feedback without judging you. Summarizing large amounts of text One of the most powerful abilities of AI is to quickly summarize long articles. I have used AI to “read” long articles and difficult papers, after which it tells me the most important points. Usually, they can find the main ideas correctly, even if some details are missing. ____40____ A. However, it often brings us a lot of trouble in our daily life. B. If I am still confused, I will ask it to explain again at a lower level. C. I use AI to practice for tasks that I find difficult or even frightening. D. This helps people overcome difficulties and start hard projects easily. E. It saves me a lot of time when I need to deal with complex information. F. Actually, they can be very helpful if we know how to use them properly. G. Modern technology is changing the way we talk with our family members. 第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分35分) 第一节(共20小题：每小题1分，满分20分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 As a child, I was terribly shy — so silent that even in a crowded classroom, I felt like I was ____41____. To me, the world was a stage where I was the only one ____42____ words. The thought of being noticed made me feel ____43____ — a feeling that stayed with me even after I graduated from university. Four years ago, on a very hot summer afternoon, I was at a playground with friends when I ____44____ something happening. A girl about ten was ____45____ her younger sister’s arm, shouting, “Stop being silly! Get up!” The little girl lay on the hard ground, crying ____46____ like a sudden storm. Then the elder girl went away ____47____, leaving the little one alone. My friends watched in awkward ____48____, not knowing what to do. I ____49____ wanted to step forward and help her — but my usual ____50____ stopped me. Then a thought hit: Why wait for permission to do what’s ____51____? Taking a deep breath, I walked ____52____ slowly. My voice was very ____53____: “Hey, it’s okay.” I ____54____ my hand to show I was friendly. To my ____55____, she ran into my arms and held me so tightly. I could feel how ____56____ she was. In that short moment, a special connection was formed between us. Soon, the elder girl returned with their father. It ____57____ to me that he would probably be angry at a stranger hugging his child. My heart beat fast, but I didn’t ____58____. To my great relief, the man only gave a small nod. “Come on, honey,” he said gently. The girl wiped away her tears and gave me a warm smile before walking away. That day, I learned that sometimes, the bravest thing you can do is to ____59____ while you’re still afraid. In helping a stranger, I finally found my own ____60____. 41. A. unnoticed B. unfriendly C. comfortable D. popular 42. A. with B. without C. beyond D. besides 43. A. excited B. proud C. nervous D. sad 44. A. heard B. spotted C. felt D. stopped 45. A. raising B. waving C. hurting D. pulling 46. A. softly B. loudly C. silently D. quietly 47. A. happily B. quietly C. angrily D. slowly 48. A. silence B. horror C. excitement D. pain 49. A. hardly B. badly C. hurriedly D. never 50. A. overthinking B. pride C. shyness D. coldness 51. A. right B. possible C. brave D. hard 52. A. out B. back C. away D. forward 53. A. weak B. soft C. clear D. loud 54. A. threw up B. held up C. held out D. shook out 55. A. satisfaction B. amazement C. regret D. disappointment 56. A. scared B. brave C. angry D. patient 57. A. belonged B. happened C. occurred D. turned 58. A. run away B. sit down C. stand up D. go on 59. A. speak B. feel C. act D. think 60. A. secret B. voice C. success D. value 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The Sky Railway The Qinghai-Tibet Railway, known as the “Sky Railway,” connects Xining and Lhasa. Once ____61____ (consider) “impossible” by many experts, it has become a true wonder of modern engineering (工程). I was among the workers ____62____ came from all over China to work on this railway. Completed after years of effort, it stands as a record of our ____63____ (determine) to overcome huge challenges. The top concern during ____64____ (build) the railway was how to protect the easily damaged ecosystem. ____65____ (ensure) that wild residents could move freely, thirty-three special passages were built under the railway. In addition, 140,000 square meters of wetland were carefully moved to new areas to keep the environment ____66____ (balance). The environment was not the only challenge; the high altitude also tested the workers. At Tanggula Station, located over 5,000 meters above sea level, the thin air and strong UV radiation made work ____67____ (extreme) difficult. To keep us healthy, oxygen-making stations ____68____ (place) along the way. The Sky Railway is more than a train line; it connects ancient nature ____69____ modern progress. Passengers from all over the country are now enjoying the magical views — an experience that feels like ____70____ journey through the clouds, where human dreams meet nature’s wonders. 第四部分 写作(共两节;满分35分) 第一节 应用文写作(满分15分) 71. 假定你是李华。你校正在举办“校园英语节”，你负责“中国传统节日”展位的解说工作。外教Mr. Green来到你的展位前，请你向他介绍一个你最喜欢的传统节日。内容包括： 1.节日介绍； 2.节日的意义。 注意： 1.写作词数应为80个左右； 2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Hi, Mr. Green! Welcome to our booth. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I hope you have a wonderful time exploring our English Festival! 第二节 读后续写(满分20分) 72. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写一段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 On a hot, still July afternoon, 17-year-old Kevin was enjoying his holiday at his grandma’s two-story countryside house, the air thick and slow around him. The peaceful day was soon broken by a loud noise of far-off thunder (雷声). Within an hour, light rain turned into a scary rainstorm. The nearby river, usually quiet, rose into a roaring brown beast. Grandma’s face turned pale as a radio announcement reported that the Millstone Dam above the town had broken. “We must move fast, Kevin!” she cried over the loud wind. Icy water began coming through the floor, rising bit by bit, Panic rose in Kevin’ s heart, but he forced himself to stay calm. “Upstairs, Grandma — we need higher ground!” Remembering his school safety drills, He grabbed (抓) a backpack and quickly put in bottled water, food, a flashlight, a whistle (口哨), and Grandma’s medicine. They walked through knee-deep water to the second floor. “Try calling for help,” Grandma urged. Kevin took the phone, but the signal was weak. He called 911 many times until a weak voice answered, saying that help was on the way. Night fell. The water reached the second floor, beating against the windowsills (窗台).To stay visible, Kevin flashed the light across the darkness while Grandma blew the whistle. The rain hid everything, but they refused to give up — they’ d made contact, and rescue was coming. Suddenly, a light danced across the water. It wasn’t thunder this time, but the roar of an engine. A bright orange rescue boat appeared, with two rescuers searching the darkness for them. 注意： 1.续写词数应为100左右； 2.续写部分为一段，开头语已为你写好。 The rescue boat stopped near the window, and a rescuer shouted, “Grab the rope!” _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $