山东省济南市历下区2025-2026学年七年级下学期4月英语学情调研

济南市历下区2025至2026学年第二学期七年级学情调研英语听力测试现在开始。第一节，听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子，每个句子。读一遍。One, she's flat. Two, arrive on time. Spray, can you put on the . seat belt for? He doesn't like snakes. Five, how do penguins look? 第二节在录音中你将听到5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案，每段对话读两遍。Six, mom and hungry, is a pizza ready? Wait a minute. IT will be soon. Mom, i'm hungry. Is the pizza ready? Wait a minute. IT will be soon. Seven, whose notebook is this? Is that yours. mary? No man is pink. I think it's Jones because he . lacks black. Oh yes, look, his name is on IT. Whose notebook is this? Is that yours. mary? No man is pink. I think it's Jones because he lacks black. Oh yes. Look, his name is on IT. Eight, your tennis racket looks well used. Do you play often? any? Yes, every tuesday and friday. that's great. Maybe we can play together next time. Your tennis racket looks well used. Do you play often? any? Yes, every tuesday and friday. that's great. Maybe we can play together next time. Nine, lets go and see the monkeys. They're my favorite animals. Why do you like them? Because I like to watch them climbing up and down. It's funny. Let's go and see the monkeys. They are my favorite animals. Why do you like them? Because I like to watch them climbing up and down. It's funny. Ten, hey, what book are you reading? Please be quiet. Everyone is reading and studying here. Oh, sorry. Hey, what book . are you reading? Please be quiet. Everyone is reading and studying here. Oh, sorry. 第三节在录音中你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前你将有40秒钟的读题时间，听完后你将有40秒钟的答题时间，对话读两遍。The first time. Hey, mike. you look so strong. Did you exercise . on winter holiday? Yes, Sarah, I played basketball for two hours every day. Every day. cool. Playing basketball is a good way to build a strong body. Dy. you are right. I'm even taller than before. What about you. Sarah? I'm not really a sports lover. I hardly exercise. I like cooking at home. really. What are you good . at making mutton and onion dumplings? Wow, you're amazing. Look, it's almost twelve o'clock. Let's go for lunch. Sure, I want to eat hamburgers . and ice cream, but they have lots of sugar and fat. That's true. Do you have any good ideas? How about hot pot? I know there is a new restaurant on center street. great. We can take the subway. There is only six hundred meters. Why not work there? No problem. Let's go the second time. Hey, mike, you look so strong. Did you exercise on winter holiday? Yes, Sarah, I played basketball for two hours every day. everyday. cool. Playing basketball is a good way to build a strong body. You are right. I'm even taller than before. What about you? Sa. i'm not really a sports lover. I hardly exercise. I like cooking at home. really. What are you good . at making mutton and onion dumplings? Wow, you are amazing. Look, it's almost twelve o'clock. Let's go for lunch. Sure, I want to eat hamburgers and ice cream. but they have lots of sugar and fat. That's true. Do you have any good ideas? How about hot pot? I know there's a new restaurant on center street. great. We can take the subway. There is . only six hundred meters. Why not walk there? No problem. Let's go. 第四节在录音中你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前你将有40秒钟的读题时间，听完后你将有40秒钟的答题时间，短文读。两遍。The first time, hello everyone, i'm yummy. I like animals very much. Every saturday afternoon, my friends and I go to the sunshine animal home. It's a place that takes care of homeless dogs and cats. The home is not very big, but clean and warm. There are twenty dogs and fifteen cats living there now. They are all very cute, but they need our love and care. When we arrive, the first thing we do is to clean the animal rooms. After that, we make sure they have fresh food and clean water. Then comes the best part we get to play with them. This is my favorite. The cats are usually quiet, while the dogs are active, happily running around. It's always so much fun. However, there are some important roles we must follow. For example, we can't make loud noises. The workers tell us that animals can get scared easily. A loud noise might make them feel afraid and nervous. What's more, we must be careful and kind to them, saying, the animal's happy faces makes me fall of energy. I really like IT. I hope everyone can join . us the second time. Hello everyone, i'm yummy. I like animals very much. Every saturday afternoon, my friends and I go to the sunshine animal home. It's a place that takes care of homeless stocks and cats. The home is not very big, but clean and warm. There are twenty dogs and fifteen cats living there now. They are all very cute, but they need our love and care. When we arrive, the first thing we do is to clean the animal rooms. After that will make sure they have fish food and clean water. Then comes the best part we get to play with them. This is my favorite. The cats are usually quiet, where the dogs are active, happening, running around. It's always so much fun. However. there are . some important rules because we must follow. For example, we can make lot noise. The workers tell us that animals can get scared easily. A loud noise might make them feel afraid and nervous. What's more, we must be careful and kind to them. Seeing the animals happy faces makes me full of energy. I really like IT. I hope everyone can tell us. 听力测试到此结束，请做必答题。 七年级英语学情调研（2026.04） 本试卷共8页，满分为150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2. 回答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. You’re right. B. She’s polite. C. That’s interesting. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Arrive on time. B. Talk quietly, please. C. Walk in the hallway. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Is that your baseball bat? B. Does he like eagles? C. Can you put on the seat belt? 4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. I can’t find my glasses. B. You mustn’t eat in class. C. He doesn’t like snakes. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. How do penguins look? B. What rules do we follow? C. Whose gloves are these? 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. What would the boy like to have? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Fish soup. B. Dongpo pork. C. Pizza. 7. What colour is Mary’s notebook? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Red. B. Black. C. Pink. 8. How often does Anne play tennis? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 9. What does the girl think of the monkeys? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. Playful. B. Friendly. C. Scary. 10. Where are the speakers now? 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 A. In the library. B. In the restaurant. C. On the sports field. 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 11. What sport did Mike play on winter holiday? A. Football. B. Basketball. C. Badminton. 12. How does Mike feel about the sport? A. It’s easy for him. B. It makes him tired. C. It helps him grow taller. 13. What does Sarah like doing? A. Cooking. B. Exercising. C. Shopping. 14. What do they choose to eat for lunch? A. Dumplings. B. Hamburgers. C. Hot pot. 15. How will they go to the restaurant? A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By subway 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】 16. When do they go to the Sunshine Animal Home? A. Every Monday morning. B. Every Saturday afternoon. C. Every Sunday evening. 17. How many animals are there at the Sunshine Animal Home? A. 15. B. 20. C. 35. 18. What does Yaming like to do best there? A. Clean the animal rooms. B. Give food to animals. C. Play with the animals. 19. Which of the rules does Yaming talk about? A. They can’t walk the dogs. B. They must talk quietly. C. They should bring some cat food. 20. How does Yaming feel about this activity? A. Wonderful. B. Surprised. C. Nervous. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Look! This DIY mini-garden is very fun and cute. You can turn an old teacup into a beautiful garden with small plants! Add magic with small toys, balloons and so on. It’s a great way to use old things again. Make Your Own Teacup Garden Art What you need How to make ·An old teacup ·Small plants ·Small balloons and toys ·Colourful stones (石头) ·Potting soil (土) ·A hot glue gun Step 1 Wash your teacup with water carefully. Make sure it’s clean and dry. Step 2 Put some colourful stones in the teacup. This helps water run away. Step 3 Put potting soil on the top of the stones. Step 4 Choose small plants like succulents (多肉) and put them in the soil. Step 5 Add fun things like small balloons, toys or paint your teacup to make it special! Tips Try different stones and plants for a special look. If you need to, ask your mom or dad to help make a hole at the bottom of the cup so water can run away. 21. Which is NOT in the “What you need” list? A. Small plants. B. Paper flowers. C. Colourful stones. D. A hot glue gun. 22. What is the first step to make a teacup garden? A. Wash the teacup carefully. B. Paint your teacup. C. Water the plants in the teacup. D. Put soil in the teacup. 23. Why do you put stones first in the teacup? A. To feed the plants. B. To make it look beautiful. C. To keep the cup clean. D. To help water go away easily. 24. What do we know from this text? A. You must use a new teacup. B. The plants don’t need any water. C. This activity is for kids to have fun. D. You can only use one kind of stone. 25. Where is the text probably from? A. A newspaper. B. A storybook. C. A sports magazine. D. A travel guide. B In a forest lives a small squirrel named Zip. He has a fat tail and moves quickly, but he often feels sad. While his friends seem to have amazing skills, Zip believes he is “just so-so” because he is too small. On a sunny morning, the forest animals get together for their yearly “Forest Olympics”. Zip sits quietly on a branch (树枝), watching the games. Zoom, the bear, is very strong. He can lift a huge rock. Fiona, the fox, is the fastest runner. She runs through the grass like orange lightning. Oliver, the owl (猫头鹰), is very clever, knowing everything about the forest. “I wish I could be as strong as Zoom, or as fast as Fiona,” Zip thinks. Suddenly, a gust of wind blows Zoom’s favourite hat onto a thin, high branch. Zoom tries to climb, but he is too heavy. Fiona tries to jump, but she cannot get the branch. Oliver tries to fly, but he cannot see well in the sun. All of them feel helpless. “Let me try!” Zip cries. He is not strong or tall, but he is nimble (灵活的). He jumps to the shaking branch easily. With his small hands, he catches the hat and runs down safely. “Thank you, Zip! ________”, Zoom gives Zip a warm hug. Zip dances happily. He finally sees that being small is not a bad thing. He learns that everyone is special and different, even the smallest animal can make a big difference. 26. How does Zip feel at the beginning of the story? A. Excited. B. Interested. C. Sad. D. Angry. 27. Who is smart according to paragraph 2? A. Zip. B. Zoom. C. Fiona. D. Oliver. 28. Why do the animals feel helpless in paragraph 4? A. Because the game is over. B. Because they are too heavy. C. Because they can’t get the hat. D. Because the wind is so strong. 29. Which is the best sentence for the blank ________ in the last paragraph? A. Your small size is your power. B. You run so slowly. C. I can do it better than you. D. Being small is useless. 30. What does the story want to tell us? A. Never too old to learn. B. Small animals are the best. C. Practice makes perfect. D. Everyone has their own skills. C In 2016, a video called China’s Van Gogh (《中国梵高》) made Dafen village popular. It’s a small village in Shenzhen. From Van Gogh to Picasso, the village made almost 70% of the world’s art copies (复制品). No wonder people call it the “capital of copy paintings”. But things are not easy for Dafen these years. Since 2018, its art sales have gone down. In 2020, sales even dropped by half. The village had to face a fact: It was time to change. So, the painters began to try new ways to make a living (谋生). Instead of copying, many painters started to create their new works. Zhao Xiaoyong was one of them. Eight years ago, he started making his own art. And this year, he had his first show in Shenzhen. There were about 40 of his new works on the show. Zhao is just one of many in the village. Dafen used to have over 1,800 workshops, but many of them have closed over the years. The rest no longer sell cheap copies. They now take high-class orders like painting people’s faces, or make their own art. Dafen is getting more and more popular among young people and visitors. Many workshops have become coffee shops or art stores. For only 50 yuan, visitors can try painting or even making their own clay works. Dafen village is opening a new and exciting story. What will it become next? Will it keep changing? Or will it be forgotten? Only time can tell. 31. What made Dafen village popular in 2016? A. A famous painter. B. A video about the village. C. Many new art shops. D. The high prices of paintings. 32. What is the main idea of paragraph 2? A. Dafen had many new workshops. B. Dafen had problems and must change. C. The art sales in Dafen became better. D. Painters in Dafen didn’t want to work. 33. Why did Zhao Xiaoyong start making his own art? A. Because his family didn’t help him. B. Because copying paintings was very easy. C. Because he had no free time to paint. D. Because he wanted a new way to make a living. 34. What can visitors do in Dafen village according to the passage? ①Make a painting. ②Drink coffee. ③Make clay works. ④Open an art store. A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ②③④ D. ①③④ 35. What can we learn about Dafen’s future? A. People will forget Dafen very soon. B. Dafen will be the best place for visitors. C. Dafen’s future is unknown but changing. D. Artists there will only make copy paintings. D Afternoon Nap (午睡) by Wang Anshi (Song Dynasty) The sun at the eaves turns slowly to shade, a fine wind blows across the bed. Free and easy, the lingering noon dream— from where, a golden oriole? The poem (诗) describes that Wang Anshi was woken up from his nap by a bird. The afternoon nap is always important in China. Data from iiMedia Research Group shows 67.38% of the Chinese population often take an afternoon nap, 30.49% sometimes do and only 2.13% of people never do. People of different ages and places have different napping habits. For the old, taking a nap after lunch is very common because many do not have to go to work, so they don’t worry about when to take a nap or for how long. On the other hand, taking a nap is encouraged in schools, but not mandatory. Students themselves can choose to take a nap or not. Some schools try to make it easier for students to take a nap. For example, they turn reading rooms or gyms into napping rooms. They even prepare folding beds or sleeping mats for students. Some places in China have a stronger nap culture than others. According to a survey in 2022, more than 60% of people in Shanxi, Chongqing, Anhui and Guangdong take an afternoon nap. In other places, such as Zhejiang and Shanghai, the culture is not so strong. This nap culture is also a big business. There are thousands of things made for napping online, such as special pillows for children and office workers, different kinds of folding beds and more. In Traditional Chinese Medicine, it is believed that taking a nap can be good for health. Today, health is an important problem for many. Some choose to do sports while others change their lifestyles by eating healthier or going to bed earlier. This may be why more and more people are getting to know the value (价值) of an afternoon nap. 36. How does the writer start the passage? A. By telling a story. B. By making a list. C. By asking a question. D. By using a poem. 37. What percent of people often nap according to iiMedia Research Group? A. 67.38%. B. 30.49%. C. 2.13%. D. 60%. 38. What does the underlined word “mandatory” mean in Chinese? A. 过时的 B. 流行的 C. 强制的 D. 平衡的 39. What do some schools do to help students take a nap according to the passage? A. Ask students to join clubs. B. Prepare lots of beds and mats. C. Give students less homework. D. Play soft music while napping. 40. What can we learn from the passage? A. All schools let students nap for a long time. B. Napping is a part of Chinese life and culture. C. People in Zhejiang nap more than those in Shanxi. D. The afternoon nap is only popular among old people. 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Many people say dolphins are smart. They seem to be able to think, understand, and learn things quickly. But are they as smart as humans, or are they just like cats and dogs? Dolphins use their brains quite differently from the way people do. But scientists say dolphins and humans are the same in some ways. ____41____ Dolphins can talk to each other. Like humans, every dolphin has its own “name”. The name is a special whistle (鸣叫声). Each dolphin chooses it before the age of one. Dolphins are like people in other ways, too. They talk about many things, such as their age, their feelings, and when there is danger. ____42____ It is not easy for humans to understand dolphin conversation. No one “speaks dolphin” yet, but some scientists are working hard to learn. ____43____ Dolphins live in groups. They often play games with other dolphins from different groups. Sometimes they play with seaweed and throw them back and forth. Scientists believe that playing together is something only clever animals can do. Dolphins are good at teamwork. Dolphins and humans are similar in another important way: ____44____ For example, in southern Brazil, dolphins use a smart way to get food. When there are fish near a boat, dolphins use body language to tell the fishermen to put nets (网) in the water. ____45____ Dolphins help them because they can eat some of the fish that run away from the nets. A. Dolphins like to play together. B. Let’s learn something about them. C. They also use sounds and body language to talk. D. Most dolphins are small, less than 3 meters long. E. They both make plans to get the things they want. F. With dolphins’ help, fishermen can catch a lot of fish. G. Dolphins keep swimming slowly while they are sleeping. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Waiter: Welcome to our restaurant. Here’s the menu. ____46____ Mum: I’d like Beijing roast duck. What about you, Lisa? Lisa: I’m not sure. What is the special today? Waiter: ____47____ It’s our must-try. Lisa: Sounds good. Waiter: Would you like something to drink? Lisa: Yes, a glass of orange juice. And you, Mum? Mum: ____48____ Tea goes well with meat. Waiter: OK. Which would you like with your meal, rice or mantou? Lisa: Rice, please. Can I have ice-cream after dinner, Mum? Mum: ____49____ It’s too cold for you. Lisa: Well, yogurt instead, please. Waiter: OK. So Beijing roast duck, Gongbao chicken, orange juice, green tea, rice and yogurt. Mum: That’s right. ____50____ Waiter: Yes, we have Mapo tofu. It’s delicious. Mum: OK. I’ll get that. Waiter: Wait a minute. Have a good meal 46. A. What color is your dress? B. Where do you live? C. What would you like to eat? D. When do you arrive? 47. A. You must park the car here. B. You can try Gongbao chicken. C. You should be back by 8 p.m. D. You have to go to another hotel. 48. A. I want to buy a cake. B. I need eggs and beans. C. I never eat chocolate. D. I’d like a cup of green tea. 49. A. You name it! B. I’m afraid not. C. You’re welcome. D. I don’t know. 50. A. Do you have anything with tofu? B. Can we go home now? C. Must we take out the rubbish first? D. Is there a park near here? 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 “Wake up!” Sam shouts when he shakes his sleeping father. Sam loves Father’s Day. ____51____ he always spends the fun day with Dad. Last year, they went to a water park. The year before, they watched a football game. “Alright,” Dad says. He gets out of his bed into the wheelchair (轮椅). “Hurry, Dad,” Sam says. “Mum makes your favorite food—blueberry pancakes!” Dad ____52____ Sam down the hall and into the kitchen. Mum is putting yogurt on the pancakes. “What ____53____ do we have today?” Mum asks. “Maybe we can go fishing,” Dad says. “Or we can watch the new superhero movie!” Sam shouts. They both love superhero stories. Just then, the phone rings. Sam hears Dad say, “Right now? I’ll be there soon.” Sam’s heart ____54____. He knows Dad will say he has to work. Dad always gets work calls at bad times. “I’m sorry, but I must go to work,” Dad tells Sam. “But it’s Father’s Day! We always stay together!” Sam says unhappily. “I know, son. But this work is very ____55____,” Dad replies. Then Dad thinks up a good idea, “Why don’t you come ____56____ me?” “Really?” Sam says in surprise. “I’d love to!” He never sees Dad at work, and he really wants to ____57____ time with Dad. Dad leads Sam past a door with “Workers Only” on it. Inside, there are nurses and a nervous zookeeper. All of them are happy to see Dad. A large black and white panda Yuanbao lies on the ground, looking ____58____. “This is my patient, Sam. I ____59____ the panda every day. She is going to have babies.” Dad says quietly. Then he gets to Yuanbao slowly. He gives ____60____ some medicine and touches the soft fur. After an hour, Dad holds two small pink panda babies. He cleans them, and ____61____ them warm formula (配方奶). “Come here, Sam,” Dad calls. “Meet the zoo’s new cute babies.” Sam watches them through the window ____62____. “This is the best Father’s Day ever!” he smiles. “You are my ____63____, Dad!” Sam feels so warm and happy. Spending the day with Dad at work is more ____64____ than going to a park or watching a movie. This Father’s Day gives him a perfect ____65____. He will keep this great memory in his heart forever. 51. A. or B. because C. but D. before 52. A. looks B. walks C. follows D. turns 53. A. plans B. rules C. books D. food 54. A. flies B. opens C. rests D. falls 55. A. interesting B. important C. boring D. dangerous 56. A. out B. up C. in D. with 57. A. learn B. spend C. read D. show 58. A. relaxed B. excited C. amazed D. worried 59. A. belong to B. learn from C. look after D. pay for 60. A. her B. him C. you D. them 61. A. feeds B. lends C. leaves D. helps 62. A. healthily B. angrily C. heavily D. carefully 63. A. nurse B. zookeeper C. superhero D. cook 64. A. meaningful B. difficult C. usual D. awful 65. A. question B. gift C. match D. order 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Beverly Goines, a grandmother, is doing something truly amazing. She is helping the children in her neighbourhood learn how ____66____ (read) with great love. “One day, some young boys came to ____67____ (I) door, hoping to read storybooks together. ____68____, I find they can’t read very well.” Mrs Goines says. So she sets up ____69____ club to help the children learn to read happily. Every day, lots of children come to her club to read books. She ____70____ (teach) them the pronunciation and helps them with difficult words. To make learning more fun, she also writes some books by herself for children ____71____ 4 to 11 years old. One of her most popular books is The Quarterback from the River Bank. It tells a ____72____ (love) story about friendship between two little boys. All the children love it very much. To help children remember what they’ve read, she ____73____ (usual) adds some reading tips at the end of her books. “Reading is the key to make their ____74____ (dream) come true,” Mrs Goines says. “Learning to read takes time, but every small step they take is a big win. I can always ____75____ (stay) right beside the children, cheering them on every step of the way.” 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A: ___________________? B: They are from China. 77. A: What do you have for breakfast, Steve? B: ___________________. 78. A: Excuse me, sir. ___________________. B: I’m sorry. I didn’t notice the sign. 79. A: What does Chen Jie want to do to lose weight? B: ___________________. 80. A: ___________________? B: It can do kung fu. 第二节 作文（满分25分） 81. 为了引导中学生践行“健康第一”的成长理念，学校英语社团将举办以“Health First”为主题的演讲比赛。假定你是李华，请你结合自身实际，用英语写一篇演讲稿，分享你的运动和饮食习惯，并谈谈你对“健康第一”理念的理解。 注意： 1. 词数100左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数； 2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3. 不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。 Dear teachers and students, I’m Li Hua. Today I’m very happy to share my ideas about Health First with you. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 七年级英语学情调研（2026.04） 本试卷共8页，满分为150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2. 回答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】A 【3题答案】 【答案】C 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】A 第二节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 【6题答案】 【答案】C 【7题答案】 【答案】C 【8题答案】 【答案】B 【9题答案】 【答案】A 【10题答案】 【答案】A 第三节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. B 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. B 第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. A 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. A B 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26. C 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. D C 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. B 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. C D 【36~40题答案】 【答案】36. D 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. B 第二节 阅读七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 【41~45题答案】 【答案】41. B 42. C 43. A 44. E 45. F 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【46~50题答案】 【答案】46. C 47. B 48. D 49. B 50. A 第二节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 【51~65题答案】 【答案】51. B 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. D 57. B 58. D 59. C 60. A 61. A 62. D 63. C 64. A 65. B 第三节 阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【66~75题答案】 【答案】66. to read 67. my 68. However 69. a 70. teaches 71. from 72. lovely 73. usually 74. dream##dreams 75. stay 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 【76~80题答案】 【答案】76. Where are the tigers from?/Where are the two tigers from? 77. I have a sandwich and a box of milk for breakfast./I have some milk and a sandwich. 78. You can’t take photos here./Please don’t take pictures here. 79. She wants to skip rope./She wants to jump rope. 80. What can the robot do?/What can this robot do? 第二节 作文（满分25分） 【81题答案】 【答案】 Dear teachers and students, I’m Li Hua. Today I’m very happy to share my ideas about Health First with you. To stay healthy, I keep good habits. Every morning, I run for 20 minutes to build up my body. After school, I often play badminton with my classmates, which helps me relax and stay fit. For meals, I eat more vegetables and fruits, and avoid too much junk food. I drink milk every day to get enough calcium. I also sleep early to get enough rest every night. I believe health is the most important thing for us. Without good health, we can’t study or enjoy life well. So let’s put health first and keep healthy habits every day! 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $