内容正文:
2024—2025学年度下学期七年级阶段练习(一)
英语听力
(范围:Unit 1—3)
满分30分,时间20分钟。
一、短对话理解(共8小题,每小题1.5分;满分12分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What does Mr Li do?
A. An art teacher. B. A Maths teacher. C. An English teacher.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What’s Li Xin’s telephone number?
A. 281-9716. B. 281-9175. C. 281-9176.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What are the speakers talking about?
A. A book. B. A watch. C. A map.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What will the boy learn when visiting the Palace Museum?
A. Something about China’s art.
B. Something about China’s future.
C. Something about China’s past.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Who are the speakers talking about?
A. Jim. B. Dave. C. David.
6. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Who is the girl?
A. Mike’s sister. B. Mike’s friend. C. Mike’s teacher.
7. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What can we know from the conversation?
A. The speakers meet for the first time.
B. The speakers are good friends.
C. The speakers are relatives.
8. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Where are the man’s books now?
A. On the sofa. B. On the desk. C. On the floor.
二、长对话理解(共12小题,每小题1.5分;满分18分)
听下面4段对话。每段对话后有三个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
9. Which club will Mike join?
A. The Music Club. B. The Sports Club. C. The Dancing Club.
10. How old is Mike?
A. 12. B. 13. C. 14.
11. When will Mike go to this club?
A. This Friday morning.
B. This Friday afternoon.
C. This Saturday afternoon.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
12. What are the speakers talking about?
A. The Leaning Tower of Pisa.
B. The Tower Bridge.
C. The Eiffel Tower.
13. How many years did it take to complete the building of the tower?
A. Nearly 20 years. B. Nearly 200 years. C. Nearly 220 years.
14. When did the tower reopen?
A. In 2001. B. In 1990. C. In 1178.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
15. Where are Julie and John?
A. In a zoo. B. In a park. C. In an animal hospital.
16. What are Julie’s favourite animals?
A. Lions. B. Pandas. C. Koalas.
17. What does Julie think of lions?
A. Cute. B. Cool. C. Scary.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
18. What dangerous animals does the zoo have?
A. Snakes and tigers. B. Lions and tigers. C. Snakes and lions.
19. Which animals in the zoo have a lot of visitors every day?
A. The giraffes. B. The pandas. C. The elephants.
20. What does the man think of the giraffes?
A. They are very dangerous.
B. They are very big but very lovely.
C. They are very big but very gentle.
2024—2025学年度下学期七年级阶段练习(一)
英语
(范围:Unit 1—3)
满分90分,时间90分钟。
注意事项:
1.同学们须用0.5mm黑色字迹的签字笔在本练习题规定位置填写自己的班级、姓名及练习号;
2.须在答题卡上作答;
3.本练习题包括5道大题,45道小题,共8页。
第一部分 选择题(共50分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分;满分40分)
第一节 阅读下面语言材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Maggie: I work in a bank from Monday to Friday. My house is near a park and is about ten kilometres from my office. I usually go to work by train. I usually get up at 6:30 a. m. and take the subway at 7:00 a. m. It usually takes me about thirty minutes to get to my office. The subway is quick and cheap. I am never late for work.
Jeff: I am a student. My house is near a beautiful lake. My school is across from the lake. I can walk to school across a bridge. It takes me about thirty minutes. But I often go to school by boat because it is more fun. It takes me about twenty minutes.
Betty: I'm a waitress. I work in a restaurant from Monday to Saturday. I often go to work by bus. It is about five kilometres from my house to the restaurant. It takes me about twenty-five minutes to go to work. Sometimes I am late for work because the traffic is very busy.
21. When does Maggie usually arrive at her office?
A. At 6:30 a. m. B. At 7:00 a. m. C. At 7:30 a. m. D. At 8:00 a. m.
22. Jeff often ________ to school.
A. takes a bus B. takes a boat C. rides a bike D. rides a horse
23. Betty lives about ________ kilometres from her working place.
A. five B. ten C. fifteen D. twenty
24. What can we know from the text?
A. Jeff lives close to a big river in the city.
B. Betty works at least five days per week.
C. Maggie sometimes goes to work very late.
D. The three people go to work in different ways.
B
France is the largest country in Western Europe. There are over 66 million people in France. The country is home to beautiful natural views, like the Seine River as well as cultural sites such as the Eiffel Tower. About 75 million visitors come here every year. Here are the top things to do in France.
Visit museums
No trip to France is complete without a visit to its museums, especially the world’s best-known one—the Louvre in Paris. In this four-floor building, there are 35,000 works of art, such as the painting Mona Lisa by Da Vinci and the statue (雕像) Venus de Milo. It would take nine months to enjoy all the pieces.
Have a local meal
French food is world-famous. Bread is very important in France. The most famous French bread is called “baguette”. It is long and tastes salty. Snails (蜗牛) are also a must-have here. French people eat 40,000 tons of snails every year! People always cook snails with butter and garlic (大蒜) .
Take a bike tour
What is the best way to enjoy the vineyard in Loire Valley? Take a bike tour. You can experience the real French life. You may come across some local people. A bright “Bonjour” always begins a nice talk. If you come here in July, you are lucky. The famous bicycle race Tour de France takes place at this time.
25. How many people are there in France?
A. More than 35 million. B. About 40 million.
C. More than 66 million. D. About 75 million.
26. What do we know about the Louvre in Paris?
A. It is a museum with five floors and 35,000 works of art.
B. It has a painting by Michelangelo and a statue by Da Vinci.
C. Visitors need to pay a visit to it to finish the trip to France.
D. Visitors need nine months to enjoy all the artworks in it.
27. What is the best way to experience the real French life?
A. By taking a bike tour. B. By eating French snails.
C. By visiting the museums. D. By enjoying natural views.
28. What is the main idea of the text?
A. The must-dos in France. B. The famous museums in France.
C. The natural views in France. D. The people and food in France.
C
Have you ever planted aloe vera (芦荟)? People have been growing aloe vera for thousands of years. They used it to help with health problems as long ago as 2100 BC. With long and green leaves, the plant usually grows in dry and hot places in Africa, Asia, Europe, and southern and western parts of the United States.
Aloe vera is a very hard-working plant. It can be used to help with cuts or burns. It also cleans the air around it. Bad air can come from the paint on the walls of some houses. Aloe vera can make the air clean again. It is also a good plant to have in your room at night when you sleep. The plant can take in the air you breathe out and then give off the clean air that you breathe in.
Aloe vera is popular for its long life expectancy as well. Most aloe plants live for around ten years indoors. However, if they are carefully cared for, they can live for over 20 years. Warm and dry air, lots of bright light, regular watering, and protection from pests and diseases will help them live longer.
Growing an aloe vera plant at home is very easy! You can buy a plant at the store. Put it in a place with lots of sunlight. Water your plant during spring, summer and autumn. If you want more aloe vera plants, you can just break off part of the plant and put it into the ground. Then it will grow again.
29. Why is aloe vera a “hard-working” plant?
A. Because it has long and green leaves. B. Because it lives in dry and hot places.
C. Because it helps people in many ways. D. Because it cleans the paint on the walls.
30. What is Paragraph 3 mainly about?
A. How big aloe vera can grow. B. How fast aloe vera grows.
C. How long aloe vera can live. D. How much water aloe vera needs.
31. What do you need to do if you want to plant aloe vera at home?
A. Water it a lot all year round. B. Bring it to a store in the evening.
C. Break off part of it every month. D. Place it somewhere full of sunlight.
32. In which part of a magazine can we probably find the text?
A. People. B. Nature. C. Sports. D. Travel.
D
Would you completely trust your friends if you couldn't see anything? If you are falling, do you believe they will catch you and help you stand up? Our teacher helped us to get the answer.
Our teacher is named Steven. One day, he said that he had a game for us to try. He divided us into two groups. One of the students from the first group stands in front of us with his eyes closed, and then falls backwards (向后). The second group stands behind him. Before he falls on the floor, they should catch him and not let him get hurt. Most of us were uncomfortable with this. We were afraid that they wouldn't catch us and we would hit the floor. So we didn't move. We just stood there and laughed in embarrassment (尴尬).
Finally, one student, a thin, quiet, dark-haired girl called Laura, decided to move. She crossed her arms in front of her body, closed her eyes and slowly fell backwards. She looked quiet but brave.
For a moment, I was sure she was going to fall on the floor. But before she hit the floor, the other students caught her, held her and finally helped her stand up.
"Whoa!" We were surprised and also encouraged. The girl was happy too. Seeing this, Steven smiled and said to the girl, "When you close your eyes, you can't see anything. You won't feel safe. When you are falling, the feeling gets stronger. You are not sure whether you will hit the cold, hard floor or the warm, soft hands of your friends. But if you are brave enough to trust them, they won't let you down."
33. Why didn't the students move at first?
A. Because they thought the floor was hard.
B. Because they were afraid of falling down.
C. Because they were unhappy to play the game.
D. Because they thought their friends weren't strong.
34. What did the writer think of the girl?
A. Creative. B. Strict. C. Quiet but brave. D. Strong but shy.
35. What happened to the girl in the end?
A. She got hurt by accident. B. She fell onto the cold floor.
C. The other students caught her. D. The other students laughed at her.
36. Why did the students feel encouraged?
A. Because they could trust the little girl.
B. Because they could stop the game finally.
C. Because they wanted to do something else.
D. Because they felt they could trust each other.
第二节 阅读短文,从下面所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有一个多余的选项。
Do you like travelling on your holidays? Doctors say holidays are very important for us. ____37____ And travelling to other places is the best way to rest. But if you want to have a wonderful holiday trip, you should prepare well for it. ____38____
Make an all-round plan. You should decide where you want to go and prepare everything you need to take with you. You’d better take money, a phone and some clothes.
____39____ Don’t travel by yourself. You should keep together with your friends because friends can help you when you are in need. ____40____ If you go to those places, you may get hurt. Remember to keep your cellphone turned on all the time.
If you remember these rules, I think you will have a good holiday trip.
A. Be careful on the trip.
B. Pay attention to your health.
C. Here are some rules for you to remember.
D. Always keep away from dangerous places.
E. You can have a good rest from work on your holiday.
二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,理解其大意,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Have you ever planted a few trees on Tree-planting Day? Every year, millions of people, both the young and the old, ____41____ a lot of trees. But this may not be the best way to make our world a ____42____ environment.
Last week we visited a city in Liaoning Province. We were ____43____ to find most of the trees had been burned near the hills. We asked why. The workers nearby told us that the trees ____44____ soon after they were planted because they weren’t watered well enough. So the ____45____ burned them and cleaned the place for planting ____46____ trees this year. We found a small card on one of the trees and it ____47____: “I hope this tree will grow up with me to be the backbone (栋梁) of our country.” The workers said that planting trees was important, ____48____ making them alive was more important.
Some people now have a new idea that they can donate (捐赠) some ____49____ and let professionals (专业人员) plant and take care of the trees, because their knowledge about planting trees is _____50_____. Do you think so?
41. A. water B. plant C. climb D. treat
42. A. narrow B. silent C. green D. wild
43. A. surprised B. bored C. excited D. pleased
44. A. grew B. disappeared C. communicated D. died
45. A. relatives B. workers C. leaders D. members
46. A. excellent B. perfect C. huge D. new
47. A. read B. spoke C. wrote D. told
48. A. and B. but C. so D. or
49. A. products B. branches C. money D. wood
50. A. rich B. poor C. strange D. useless
第二部分 非选择题(共40分)
三、语篇填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空,使短文通顺、连贯。
Yao Yuan is my neighbour and schoolmate. He is not only kind ____51____ also hard-working.
Yao Yuan is very active in ____52____ (I) community. At the weekend, he often helps out at ____53____ local retirement home. He ____54____ (teach) retired people to use computers and smartphones. He says, "I'm always happy ____55____ (help)!"
Yao Yuan also uses his time ____56____ (wise). Every day, he gets up at six and does different ____57____ (sport) for half an hour before breakfast. Then he listens to English programmes ____58____ the way to school. He won the school English speaking ____59____ (compete) last year.
Yao Yuan is an ____60____ (amaze) person, and I wish I could be like him.
四、阅读与表达(共4小题,41~43小题,每小题2分,44小题4分;满分10分)
阅读短文,然后根据内容回答问题。
World Architecture (建筑) Day is coming. It is on the first Monday in October. Here we list two world-famous landmarks (地标). Which one do you like to go to?
Sydney Opera House, Sydney, Australia
Architecture is art. The Sydney Opera House shows it. Danish Utzon designed it. He thought of the idea by peeling (剥皮) an orange. Today, the Sydney Opera House is the favourite place for music lovers. Every year, 2 million people come to enjoy its concerts and operas.
Big Ben, London, UK
Big Ben in London has seen the history of the city. The clock was set up in 1858. It is 13.5 tons. It’s the biggest clock in Britain. During World War II, Big Ben still stood firmly in the war. So British people take it as a symbol of courage (勇气的象征). For one and a half centuries, people have listened to its sound. They think it a long-term friend.
61. When is World Architecture Day?
____________________________________________________
62. How did Utzon think of the idea to design the Sydney Opera House?
____________________________________________________
63. What do British people regard Big Ben as?
____________________________________________________
64. What do you think is the landmark building in your city? Why? (Write 30 words or more.)
____________________________________________________
五、书面表达(满分20分)
65. 假定你是学生李辉,2025年3月12日是我国第47个植树节,为了提高学生保护树木和环境的意识,你们学校举办了植树节系列活动。请根据以下内容提示,用英文向你的英国朋友Nathan写信介绍此次活动并分享你的活动心得。内容包括:
(1) 时间:3月12日下午;
(2) 活动:参加有关如何保护树木的讲座;和同学一起种树;
(3) 活动心得:进一步了解了树木的重要性。
注意:
(1) 词数80~100,开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数;
(2) 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
(3) 文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称。
Dear Nathan,
I hope you’re doing well. I’m writing to share a piece of exciting news with you.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hui
2024—2025学年度下学期七年级阶段练习(一)
英语听力
(范围:Unit 1—3)
满分30分,时间20分钟。
一、短对话理解(共8小题,每小题1.5分;满分12分)
听下面8段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】B
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】C
【4题答案】
【答案】C
【5题答案】
【答案】B
【6题答案】
【答案】A
【7题答案】
【答案】A
【8题答案】
【答案】B
二、长对话理解(共12小题,每小题1.5分;满分18分)
听下面4段对话。每段对话后有三个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
【9~11题答案】
【答案】9. B 10. C 11. B
【12~14题答案】
【答案】12. A 13. B 14. A
【15~17题答案】
【答案】15. A 16. B 17. C
【18~20题答案】
【答案】18. C 19. B 20. C
2024—2025学年度下学期七年级阶段练习(一)
英语
(范围:Unit 1—3)
满分90分,时间90分钟。
注意事项:
1.同学们须用0.5mm黑色字迹的签字笔在本练习题规定位置填写自己的班级、姓名及练习号;
2.须在答题卡上作答;
3.本练习题包括5道大题,45道小题,共8页。
第一部分 选择题(共50分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分;满分40分)
第一节 阅读下面语言材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【21~24题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. B 23. A 24. B
B
【25~28题答案】
【答案】25. C 26. D 27. A 28. A
C
【29~32题答案】
【答案】29. C 30. C 31. D 32. B
D
【33~36题答案】
【答案】33. B 34. C 35. C 36. D
第二节 阅读短文,从下面所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有一个多余的选项。
【37~40题答案】
【答案】37. E 38. C 39. A 40. D
二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,理解其大意,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【41~50题答案】
【答案】41. B 42. C 43. A 44. D 45. B 46. D 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. A
第二部分 非选择题(共40分)
三、语篇填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
【51~60题答案】
【答案】51. but
52. my 53. a
54. teaches
55. to help
56. wisely 57. sports
58. on 59. competition
60. amazing
四、阅读与表达(共4小题,41~43小题,每小题2分,44小题4分;满分10分)
【61~64题答案】
【答案】61. It is on the first Monday in October.
62. By peeling an orange.
63. A symbol of courage.
64. (合理即可) I think Shenyang Shengjing Opera House is the landmark in my city. It is in the shape of a diamond. It looks much more beautiful at night when all the lights on it are turned on. The opera is near the Hun River and it tells the story about my city to the visitors.
五、书面表达(满分20分)
【65题答案】
【答案】Possible version:
Dear Nathan,
I hope you’re doing well. I'm writing to share a piece of exciting news with you.
It is about the 47th Tree Planting Day on March 12th. Our school held activities to teach students about protecting the environment.
On the afternoon of March 12th, we first attended a lecture on how to protect trees. Then my classmates and I planted trees together. We also learned about some proper ways of caring for trees. Additionally, we participated in a school clean-up to improve our surroundings. By joining this event, I learned more about the importance of trees. Besides, I realized we should take action to protect them now.
I’m looking forward to hearing about your experiences too.
Yours,
Li Hui
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$2024到2025学年度下学期七年级阶段练习一,英语听力满分30分,时间20分钟,一短对话理解共八小题,每小题1点5分,满分12分。听下面8段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅。读一遍。One, which teacher do you like best, amy? mr. Lee, he is my maths teacher. His classes are always full of fun. Two, what's your telephone number? This is two, eight, one nine, one seven, six. Three, look, what's this in english . is a map. For I want to learn something about china's past. Where should I go? In the center of beijing, there are many museums. You can visit the palace museum. I'm sure you will get what you want. Five is this gym? No. he isn't. He is dave. Six is the girl your friend mike? No. he isn't. SHE is my sister. Seven, hello, i'm bob. What's your name? My . name's Alice. Nice to meet you. Eight, where are my books? They were on the sofa this morning, but now they are on the desk. 二长对话理解共12小题,每小题1点5分,满分18分。听下面四段对话,每段对话后有三个小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍,听第九段材料,回答第9至11题。Good morning. Can I help you? Good morning. I want to join a club. Can you give me some advice? How about the dancing club? I can dance at all, but i'm good at sports. Then I think you can join the sports club. What sport can you play? I can play basketball very well. What's your name and how old are you? My name is mike. I'm fourteen. Are you in grade seven? Yes, i'm in class two grade. okay. Then you can come to the sports club this friday afternoon. Thank you. See you on friday. Good morning. Can I help you? Good morning. I want to join a club. Can you give me some advice? How about the dancing club? I can't dance at all, but i'm good at sports. Then I think you can join the sports club. What sport can you play? I can play basketball very well. What's your name and how old are you? My name is mike. I'm fourteen. Are you in grade seven? Yes, i'm in class two grade. okay. Then you can come to the sports club this friday afternoon. Thank you. See you on friday. 听第十段材料,回答第12至14题。I really enjoy my trip to italy. I visited the leaning tower of pisa. Wow, it's really fantastic. When was IT built? The building of the tower began in eleven seventy three, and IT took nearly two hundred years to complete. But how did IT lean? Well, in eleven seventy eight, when I got to the third floor, IT started to lean. The builders tried to straight in IT. but they failed. IT must be dangerous. Actually, IT was closed in nineteen ninety for safety reasons, but IT reopened in two thousand, one with the help of experts. Anyway, I can't wait to visit IT. I really enjoy my trip to italy. I visited the leaning tower of pizza. Wow, it's really fantastic. When was IT built? The building of the tower began in eleven seventy three, and IT took nearly two hundred years to complete. But how did IT lean? Well, in eleven seventy eight, when I got to the third floor, IT started to lean. The builders tried to straight in IT. but they failed. IT must be dangerous. Actually, IT was closed in nineteen ninety for safety reasons, but IT reopened in two thousand, one with the help of experts. Anyway, I can't wait to visit IT. 听第十一段材料,回答第15至17题。Wow, the zoo is so big. What animal do you want to see first? Julie. let's see the pandas as john. They are my favorite animals. Why do you like them? Because they are kind of interesting. Where are they from? They are from china. They're the symbol of china. Many people around the word travel to china to see them. Well, I like koalas and lions. Why do you like them? Because koalas are very cute and lions look very cool. I like koalas too. I hope to see them in australia one day, but I don't like lions because they are scary. Wow, the zoo is so big. What animal do you want to see first? Julie. let's see the pandas as john. They are my favorite animals. Why do you like them? Because they are kind of interesting. Where are they from? They are from china. They're the symbol of china. Many people around the world travel to china to see them. Well, I like koalas and lions. Why do you like them? Because koalas are very cute and lions look very cool. I like koalas too. I hope to see them in australia one day, but I don't like lions because they are scary. 听第十二段材料,回答第18至20题。Do you have any big animals in your zoo? Yes, we do. We have elephants and giraffes. What about dangerous animals? Do you have any of them? We have both snakes and lions. Which animal do people like best in the zoo? Well, many people come to see the pandas as they have round bodies and are very lovely. They have a lot of visitors every day. which is your favorite animal. I like giraffe best. They're very big, but very gentle. Do you have any big animals in your zoo? Yes, we do. We have elephants and giraffe. What about dangerous animals? Do you have any of them? We have both snakes and lions. Which animal do people like best in the zoo? Well, many people come to see the pandas. They have round bodies and are very lovely. They have a lot of visitors every day. which is your favorite animal. I like giraffe best. They're very big but very gentle.