山东济南实验初级中学2025-2026学年下学期增值评价基线调研七年级英语学科

2025-2026下学期增值评价基线调研 七年级英语学科 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 一、听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 1. A. We have to wear school uniforms. B. They play badminton twice a week. C. She likes drinking soft drinks. 2. A. The elephant is very clever. B. We should have a good eating habit. C. I’d like some dumplings. 3. A. Who does the dress belong to? B. How about a chicken and cabbage salad? C. Why do you like pandas? 4. A. Is it from the UK? B. Is the ping-pong Teng Fei’s? C. Are you good at jogging? 5. A. Healthy eating is important. B. No rules, no order! C. Animals are our best friends! 二、在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 6. What should Jim do? A. Eat food. B. Be quiet. C. Read loudly. 7. How often does Mary play ball games? A. Every day. B. Sometimes. C. Never. 8. How much water should the boy drink a day? A. Six cups. B. Eight cups. C. Eighteen cups. 9. When do they play ping-pong? A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday. 10. Where are the two speakers probably talking? A. In the restaurant. B. In the clothes store. C. At the cinema. 三、在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 11. What’s the man’s first choice? A. Fish soup with rice. B. Tomato and egg rice. C. Gongbao chicken. 12. What size bowl does the man order? A. Small. B. Medium. C. Large. 13. What drink does the man get? A. Tea. B. Coffee. C. Orange juice. 14. How much should the woman give back to the man? A. $ 50 B. $ 30. C. $ 20. 15. What’s the relationship between the two speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Waitress and customer. C. Mother and son. 四、在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间，听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分） 16. How often should students play sport? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. At least three times a week. 17. What should you do before exercising? A. Drink coffee. B. Warm up. C. Eat fast food. 18. Which food should you eat less? A. Vegetables. B. Fruit. C. Fast food. 19. How many hours of sleep do teenagers need? A. 5-6 hours. B. 8-10 hours. C. 12 hours. 20. What school rule is mentioned (提及) in the passage? A. Don’t run in the hallways. B. Always eat in the classroom. C. Wear clean clothes to school. 第二部分 阅读（共二节，满分50分） 一、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Rainbow Wildlife Park Study Trip Date: From 15th June to 18th July This trip will help us understand how animals live in nature and why helping wildlife is so important. Through fun and easy activities, we’ll learn how to care for the wildlife while practising our observation skills (观察技巧) by studying real animals in nature. Activities: In the Morning: 9:00 a.m. – 10:00 a.m. Animal Feeding (Giraffes & Elephants) 10:00 a.m. – 11:00 a.m. Wildlife Observation 11:00 a.m. – 12:00 p.m. Zookeeper Talk (Learn animal habits) Lunch Time: 12:00 p.m. – 1:30 p.m. In the Afternoon: 1:30 p.m. – 2:30 p.m. Wildlife in Danger Workshop 2:30 p.m. – 3:30 p.m. Lessons on Wildlife Conservation (保护) 3:30 p.m. – 4:30 p.m. Wildlife Photography Show Go Home What to Wear and Bring Comfortable walking shoes A sun hat and sun cream A notebook and a pen Water bottle Camera (not must) Park Rules Stay with your group at all times. Do not feed animals without asking. No loud noises while watching animals. Take only photos. Follow zookeepers carefully. 21. When can students go to the study trip? A. On 24th June. B. On 15th August. C. On 18th April. D. On 27th July. 22. What activity is at 11:30 a.m.? A. Animal Feeding. B. Wildlife Observation. C. Zookeeper Talk. D. Photography Show. 23. What kind of things needn’t students bring? A. Sun cream. B. A notebook. C. Water bottle. D. Photos. 24. Which of the following is NOT allowed (允许) in the park? A. Taking photos of animals. B. Feeding animals without asking. C. Watching animals quietly. D. Listening to the zookeeper’s talks. 25. What is the main purpose (目的) of this study trip? A. To play games with animals. B. To learn about wildlife conservation. C. To practise learning skills. D. To talk with zookeepers. B It’s Sports Day next month. Linda is not good at sports but her teacher asks her to run in the relay race (接力赛). Mum knows that and asks, “Can I go to your school on Sports Day, Linda?” “Sports Day is boring,” Linda says sadly. “I think it can be interesting,” says Mum. Linda knows she can’t do well in the race, so she says, “But my shoes are not that kind of running shoes.” Mum knows what Linda means. She wants to help Linda. The next day, Mum takes a dog home and says to Linda, “Your grandma has a cold. Let’s walk the dog for her!” The dog is so naughty. It runs here and there, and Linda has to run fast to take it. In the next few weeks, Mum asks Linda to walk the dog every day. Linda finds that she runs faster and faster. The day before Sports Day, Mum gives a pair of running shoes to Linda and says, “Can I go to your school and take photos of you tomorrow?” “Sure, Mum,” Linda says happily. The next day, Linda runs fast and her class wins the race. “You’re great, Linda!” Mum says. “You’re a great help to me, Mum,” says Linda. “Thank you!” 26. How does Linda feel when her mother first asks her? A. She feels tired. B. She feels excited. C. She feels happy. D. She feels sad. 27. Why doesn’t Linda want Mum to go to her school on Sports Day? A. Because she has a cold and can’t run. B. Because she thinks she can’t do well in the race. C. Because she doesn’t want Mum to see her old shoes. D. Because she doesn’t want Mum to see her teacher. 28. Why does Linda’s Mum take a dog home? A. Because she loves the dog. B. Because Linda loves the dog. C. Because she wants to help Linda. D. Because the dog likes running. 29. What does Mum give Linda the day before Sports Day? A. A pair of running shoes. B. A photo of the dog. C. Grandma’s gift. D. A sports uniform. 30. What can we learn from the story? A. Dogs are our best friends. B. We should have our hobbies. C. Love and practice can help us win. D. Walking dogs can make us good at sports. C Do you know about bees? Mikaila Ulmer, a 19-year-old girl from Texas, USA, knows them well. When Mikaila was just 4 years old, she was stung (蜇) by two bees in one week. She was sad and scared, so her mother told her something about bees. “Bees are very important to people, but they are in great danger and there are not too many bees,” she said. The news surprised Mikaila, and she started to think about bees differently. Later, she got a gift — a book about how to make lemonade (柠檬汁). She couldn’t wait to try it out. She thought of putting natural honey (蜂蜜) in the drink to make it taste good. To her surprise, it really did. Then Mikaila started to sell the lemonade outside her house and many people loved it. With help from her mother, she started her lemonade brand Me & The Bees Lemonade when she was just 11 years old. Now, the brand has hit big in the USA. More and more people know about it. Mikaila also tries to tell people about the importance of bees. Her book about bees is helping many beekeepers around the world. What’s more, she often gives away money to save bees. Good job, Mikaila! 31. Why did Mikaila start to think differently about bees? A. Because she was stung by two bees. B. Because her mother told her about the importance of bees. C. Because she wanted to help beekeepers around the world. D. Because she wanted to make lemonade with natural honey. 32. What did Mikaila put in her lemonade to make it taste good? A. Milk. B. Soda. C. Honey. D. Tea. 33. How old was Mikaila when she started her lemonade brand? A. 4 years old. B. 11 years old. C. 19 years old. D. We don’t know. 34. What does the underlined part “has hit big” in Paragraph 5 mean? A. Bad. B. Friendly. C. Popular. D. Important. 35. What can we infer from the passage? A. Mikaila started her brand only to make lots of money. B. Bees are in danger because people don’t buy honey. C. Mikaila’s work helps more people care about protecting bees. D. All people in the USA know Mikaila’s lemonade brand. D When is the last time you eat without doing anything else? Many of us eat while working, playing with phones, or walking around. Scientists call this “distracted eating”. Now we can eat anywhere, but this makes it easier to forget about our food. When Dillen, a professor at Leiden University, and her workmates do studies in the Netherlands, they find that about 70%-75% of people do other things while eating. This habit may be bad for our health. The studies show that when we don’t focus on eating, we often eat more and feel hungry again sooner. Over time, this can lead to weight gain. ________? When eating, it usually takes our bodies 20 minutes to send “full” signals (信号) to the brain. But if we’re distracted, our brains are too weak to notice these signals well. We can’t feel how full we are and may not taste food properly when these signals are absent. In one study, some people drink sweet water while working out tasks in a brain scanner (扫描仪). When the tasks are hard, they feel the sweet water is less sugary. Another study in 2021 also finds playing difficult games makes food smell weaker. Not enjoying food fully makes us unhappy. A study in 2024 shows people like fun activities less when distracted. To feel better, they might eat more. So, putting down your phone during meals could help you eat less and enjoy more! 36. Which of the following picture best describes “distracted eating”? A. B. C. D. 37. Which of the following can be put in _________? A. Why does this happen B. What do you think of this C. How can we solve this D. When do we notice this 38. If we do other things when eating, we will _________. ① eat more ② feel hungry again soon put on weight ③ feel food less tasty ④ make ourselves unhappy A. ①②③ B. ②③④ C. ①②③④ D. ①③④ 39. Which is the RIGHT structure of the passage? (①=Paragraph 1, ②=Paragraph 2, …) A. B. C. D. 40. Let’s learn about Confucius’ wisdom (孔子的智慧) on eating. Which of the following is similar to the author’s opinion? A. Do not eat out of season. B. Eat fine food, cut meat finely. C. No talking while eating and sleeping. D. Meat should be no more than the staple food (主食). 二、阅读七选五（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分） Do you ever feel like you can’t keep going when studying? Meet DeepSeek, a really smart tool. It can help you learn better! DeepSeek is like a friendly robot that knows a lot of things. 41 For example, it can answer your questions, help you understand difficult words, and even teach you how to work out maths problems. One great thing about DeepSeek is that it works very fast. You don’t need to wait for help. If you don’t know an English word, write it here, and DeepSeek will tell you the answer in seconds! 42 Another reason students love DeepSeek is that it’s always there. 43 Whether (无论) you’re at home, in the library, or even on the bus, you can always get help from DeepSeek. However, some parents and teachers worry that students might depend (依赖) too much on DeepSeek. Some think it might make students stop trying hard. 44 But if you use DeepSeek wisely, it can be a great helper. You can use it to check your answers after finishing your homework. 45 Just remember to use it the right way, and it will become your best study friend! A. For example, it is too expensive. B. It can do many things to make learning easier. C. This means you can use it anywhere and anytime. D. In a word, DeepSeek is a smart and fun tool for learning. E. They also worry that it will teach students wrong knowledge. F. For example, they might just copy (抄袭) answers without thinking. G. It even helps with maths homework by working out problems step (步骤) by step. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 一、补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A: Good afternoon. 46 B: Yes. First, some soup. Are there any vegetables in the beef soup? A: 47 B: OK. We’d like one bowl of beef soup. A: 48 B: Large, please. A: OK. What else? B: 49 That’s all. A: OK. One large bowl of beef soup, some Mapo tofu with rice. B: Yes, that’s right. 50 A: Forty-five yuan. 46. A. May I take your order? B. May I come in? C. What rules do you have? D. Can you help me? 47. A. Yes, there is some beef. B. Yes, there is some fish. C. Yes, there is some mutton. D. Yes, there are some tomatoes. 48. A. What kind would you like? B. What colour is the bowl? C. What size would you like? D. Do you like large bowls? 49. A. No, thanks. I’m full. B. Yes, I’d like to. C. That’s all. D. We’d also like some Mapo tofu with rice. 50. A. How much? B. How many? C. How far? D. How old? 二、完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Mary is a 12-year-old middle school student. In her summer holiday, she protects wild 51 with her father in Masai Mara, Kenya, Africa. She tells her teachers and classmates about that and 52 are shocked (震惊的). Her 53 has an African name — Simba. It means “lion”. He goes to work in 54 . His job is to protect animals 55 . He opens Mara Wild Animals Conservation Foundation 56 lives in the wild in Africa all year round. Her father often 57 her stories about wild animals. So she has an interest in different 58 of animals. She has an interest in beautiful giraffes, smart lions and kind and 59 elephants. Her father took her to Africa 60 the first time when she was four. She went to Africa when she was eight, after four   61  . After that, she tells her 62 and other students at school about protecting wild animals. This summer holiday, the girl goes to Africa again. “It 63 me about two months to protect wild animals there,” she says. “Every day, I follow my father to 64 in the reserve area to watch the animals. They are in danger so we do this to 65 them.” 51. A. animals B. trees C. flowers D. pets 52. A. I B. you C. we D. they 53. A. teacher B. father C. mother D. friend 54. A. Australia B. Japan C. China D. Africa 55. A. in time B. in danger C. in surprise D. in line 56. A. and B. but C. so D. or 57. A. says B. speaks C. tells D. talks 58. A. groups B. tastes C. places D. kinds 59. A. awful B. friendly C. boring D. free 60. A. for B. at C. from D. in 61. A days B. weeks C. months D. years 62. A. cousins B. classmates C. brothers D. sisters 63. A. keeps B. needs C. takes D. leaves 64. A. walk B. practise C. arrive D. relax 65. A. kill B. help C. reach D. get 三、阅读填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 It’s a good idea for children to go to a summer camp. Now let’s read some camp 66 (rule). It’s good   67   you to learn about them. No running in the camp. For children, the camp is a good place to have 68 great time. They can sing, dance or 69 (have) a picnic here. And children can plan their camp 70 (different). But it’s dangerous to run in the camp. It’s easy to fall down and you may hurt your legs or hands. Don’t eat food in tents. Children like to put some cakes or chocolates in 71 (they) tents. Some animals can smell them. It will be kind of scary 72 the animals get into the children’s tents. It’s not allowed to play with fire. Most of children are 73 (interest) in the fire. However, it is unsafe for both children and trees around the camp. Never leave the camp alone. You must stay near the camp. There are many kinds of animals in the forest. When you want to walk around, you must go with your friends or teachers. Children are very easy to get   74   (lose). No littering anywhere. You should try to keep your camp clean. In this way, everyone 75 (enjoy) the beauty of nature. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A: What does Steve have? B: ________________________________. 77. A: ________________________________ B: I play it twice a week. 78. A: ________________________________ B: Because they are strong and smart. 79. A: What can’t you do in the museum? B: ________________________________. 80. A: ________________________________? B: It’s Mary’s. 第二节 作文（满分25分） 假如你是李华，你被学校评选为美德少年（Star Student）。请你从以下三个方面介绍自己学习和生活中的好习惯，为同学们树立文明典范。 Follow rules Sports Learning habits 1．词数不少于80，开头部分已给出，不计入总词数； 2．内容须包括图中所有信息，可作适当发挥； 3．文中不得出现自己的真实姓名、班级和校名； Hi, everyone! I’m Li Hua. I’m glad to be the Star Student this year.___________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $