精品解析：山西朔州市怀仁市云洲职业中学2025-2026学年下学期期中考试高一英语试卷

怀仁市云洲职业中学2025-2026学年下学期期中考试 高一英语试卷 考试时间：90分钟 满分：100分 一、语音 (本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共计10分) 从 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出划线部分发音不同的一项。 1. A. fresh B. lend C. infect D. excellent 2. A. theme B. through C. think D. though 3. A. pleasant B. reason C. weather D. measure 4. A. moon B. food C. flood D. cool 5. A. budget B. rude C. suck D. unfair 6. A. otherwise B. bring C. drive D. hide 7. A. hobby B. daily C. happy D. why 8. A. change B. hang C. glad D. add 9. A. exact B. ancient C. decorate D. increase 10. A. stopped B. worked C. stayed D. looked 二、单项选择题 (本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共计30分) 从 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出空白处的最佳选项。 11. My sister has two ________ and a bottle of ________ in her bag. A. tomato; milk B. tomatoes; milk C. tomato; milks D. tomatoes; milks 12. ________ old man over there is a famous vocational school teacher. A. A B. An C. The D. / 13. — How far is it from your home to school? — It’s about ________ walk. A. ten minute B. ten minutes C. ten minute’s D. ten minutes’ 14. My brother and I bought two pens. ________ is blue and ________ is black. A. My; his B. Mine; his C. Me; him D. Myself; himself 15. About ________ of the students in our school are from small villages. A. two third B. two thirds C. second third D. two three 16. The Yellow River is one of ________ rivers in China. A. long B. longer C. the longest D. longest 17. There ________ a football match in our school playground this afternoon. A. will have B. is going to have C. will be D. is going to has 18. He has made a great contribution ________ protecting the environment around the world. A. to B. for C. in D. with 19. A new vocational training center ________ in our city next year. A. will build B. will be built C. builds D. is built 20. We should ________ our classroom clean and tidy every day. A. take care B. keep C. keep up D. keep on 21. The classroom ________ every day. It’s very clean now. A. cleans B. cleaned C. was cleaned D. is cleaned 22. Don’t worry. I will ________ you ________ when you arrive at the train station. A. put; up B. pick; up C. wake; up D. give; up 23. He won the first prize in the competition, ________ made his parents very proud. A. which B. that C. what D. where 24. — What ________ you ________ at this time yesterday? — I was practicing nursing skills in the lab. A. are; doing B. were; doing C. did; do D. have; done 25. Great changes ________ in our hometown since 2020. A. take place B. took place C. have taken place D. will take place 26. When ________ a new word, you’d better look it up in a dictionary at once. A. meeting B. meet C. met D. to meet 27. Eric is busy in ________ the position of General Manager these days. A. calling for B. using up C. applying for D. caring for 28. If it ________ tomorrow, we will put off the sports meeting. A. rain B. rains C. will rain D. rained 29. If you have any questions, please ________ your hand in class. A. put up B. put on C. put off D. put away 30. It’s raining outside. Put on your raincoat, ________ you will get wet. A. and B. or C. but D. so 31. I’m looking forward to ________ the new intelligent car factory. A. visit B. to visit C. visited D. visiting 32. The little boy likes to ________ his new toy car in front of his classmates. A. show off B. show up C. show in D. show around 33. My teacher encourages me ________ part in the English speech contest. A. take B. taking C. to take D. took 34. This is the factory ________ my father worked ten years ago. A. which B. where C. who D. whose 35. It’s important for us ________ professional skills hard. A. learn B. learning C. to learn D. learned 36. Could you tell me ________ the nearest vocational school is? A. where B. how C. what D. when 37. I will call you ________ I arrive at the train station. A. as soon as B. while C. until D. since 38. The girl ________ in red is my classmate. She is good at computer science. A. dressed B. dressing C. dress D. to dress 39. — I’m sorry I broke your ruler. — ________. I have another one. A. You’re welcome B. It’s a pleasure C. Never mind D. That’s right 40. I’m sorry that I’m not familiar ________ this computer software. Could you help me? A. to B. with C. for D. by 三、完型填空 (本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共计15分) 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出空白处的最佳选项。 Quanzhou, China My favourite time of the year is Chinese New Year’s ____41____. Our family usually has a reunion dinner. We eat Niangao, which is a kind of rice cake that I love. In our tradition, it’s an offering to the Kitchen God. We also watch the Spring Festival Gala Evening on TV, ____42____ we call Chunwan. There ____43____ dancing, singing, drama, and some comedies. On this night, we can ____44____ late, usually until the next morning. Before going to bed, we often write down our wishes ____45____ the new year on red paper. Penang, Malaysia George Town, which is the capital city of ____46____, really comes alive at Chinese New Year. Around December, there’s the delightful Chingay parade. We also go to Kek Lok Si, which is a really important Buddhist temple. Monks visit it all the way from Thailand every year. Usually, the temple closes before dark, ____47____ at Chinese New Year, it opens in the evening and ____48____ with thousands of lanterns and lights. My grandma always tells me stories about the temple ____49____ we are walking around the lanterns. San Francisco, USA My family is ____50____ from China, but I grew up here in California. We still follow traditions around Chinese New Year. My family always give me Hongbao, which is a red envelope ____51____ money in it. Relatives give ____52____ to unmarried children in the family. Every year, the streets are always full of the sound of firecrackers, which scares away monsters. It’s always a joyful and fun time. Last year, we even invited our American neighbors to join us, and they said it was ____53____ most interesting festival they had ever experienced. This year, we plan to make dumplings together, ____54____ is one of the most important foods for Chinese New Year. No matter where we are, Chinese New Year always connects us ____55____ our roots and family. 41. A. Day B. Week C. Eve D. Month 42. A. the B. which C. when D. where 43. A. is B. are C. was D. were 44. A. get up B. put up C. tie up D. stay up 45. A. for B. to C. with D. at 46. A. Penang B. Thailand C. China D. the USA 47. A. and B. but C. or D. as 48. A. decorates B. was decorated C. is decorated D. decorated 49. A. if B. while C. because D. since 50. A. originally B. original C. origin D. origination 51. A. of B. for C. without D. with 52. A. it B. a C. they D. them 53. A. a B. an C. the D. / 54. A. that B. which C. who D. where 55. A. to B. from C. for D. with 四、阅读理解 (本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共计30分) 从 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出空白处的最佳选项。 A Sixty-year-old grandmother, Fiona McFee, is going to stop working next year and she decided to realize a childhood dream and sail around the coast of Scotland in a small boat. Although the inside of the boat is very cozy, it has no running water or electricity. Fiona says she can live without these things but she plans to take her small CD player, her hot water bottle and a bag of books to make sure life isn’t too uncomfortable. We asked her if she was afraid of being at sea for so long. She said, “Well, I’m going to take a good compass. Anyway, I’m not afraid of death because I love the sea — I just hope it loves me.” Fiona certainly has plenty of energy. In her spare time, she enjoys playing the piano, rock-climbing, canoeing and dancing. Although she is sixty, she doesn’t want to have a quiet and peaceful life. “I’m looking forward to having fun in the rest of my life and that’s exactly why I’d like to be a sailor for a while.” 56. The underlined word “cozy” in the first paragraph means ________. A. dirty B. comfortable C. dark D. narrow 57. When Fiona McFee said, “I just hope it loves me.” What did she mean? A. Of course, it loves me, since I love it. B. I hope it will save my life when I am in time of danger. C. I hope it will bring me a safe sailing as a return for my love of it. D. I hope it will provide me with enough food during the sailing. 58. Why would she like to have the sail? A. She thinks it will be very exciting. B. She has decided to realize a childhood dream. C. She likes sports and enjoys canoeing. D. She wants to escape from her busy work. 59. What kind of person is Fiona McFee? A. Someone who is very proud and sure of her success. B. Someone who doesn’t like take risks. C. Someone who is open, honest and brave. D. Someone who is shy and afraid of challenges. 60. What is the best title for this passage? A. An Old Woman Sailor B. An Unusual Dream C. Life Begins at Sixty D. A Hard Sailing Trip B Home> Travel Guide > Tour How to Plan Your First-Time Family Trip to the UK We are here to help you answer these questions: * How long to travel? * Where to go? * When to travel? * What activities to do? * How much to spend? * Where to live? * How to travel? Britain is a great family-friendly country for tourists. ► How Long to Travel? 12 — 14 days is advised for a family trip to the UK. However, if your vacation time is short, 7-9 days is enough for Britain’s most popular cities like London, Edinburgh, Manchester and Cardiff. ► When to Travel? The UK has pretty much a two-season climate. Spring and autumn are both very short. Visiting the United Kingdom in Summer (May to September) Summer is the high season. Prices for hotels, flights, and local tours are at their most expensive. But with the high price, you will get: ● Very long days, so more time for touring and outdoor activities. Through mid-August, sunset is not until after 10 p.m. in some parts of the country. ● English gardens at their best. ● Different Edinburgh Festivals. ● Lots of music festivals. Visiting the United Kingdom in Winter (November to March) Prices are the lowest, but the days are also the shortest. Sunset is usually before 5 p.m. in December and January. However, if you enjoy indoor activities, shopping, museums, theaters, dining out, and nightlife, you can save a lot and have a very good time in winter. Here’s some of what you can look forward to: ● The best and the newest plays in theaters in all the big cities. ● Wonderful Christmas concerts in the UK’s historic churches. ● Fire festivals in England and Scotland. 61. What can you learn about traveling to Britain from this text? A. What food to eat. B. What gifts to buy. C. What clothes to wear. D. What activities to do. 62. How long should you at least travel in Britain? A. 7 days. B. 9 days. C. 12 days. D. 14 days. 63. What can you do if you travel to Britain in summer? a. Visit gardens. b. Enjoy the latest plays. c. Join in Edinburgh Festivals. d. Join in fire festivals. e. Go to music festivals. f. Enjoy Christmas concerts. A. abc. B. ace. C. bde. D. acf. 64. What’s the advantage of traveling to Britain in winter? A. You can enjoy sunset at 8 pm. B. You can make more friends. C. You can spend less money on hotels. D. You can do all kinds of winter sports. 65. Who may be most interested in the text? A. The Greens who live in London. B. The Chens who have never been to Britain. C. Mary, a foreign student studying in Britain. D. Susan who isn’t interested in the history of Britain. C Dear Sir/ Madam, I would like to apply for the job of tour leader for your Overland Africa tours. I have had lots of useful experience for this role. I have spent five months in Africa. In 2023, I visited Ethiopia, Kenya and Tanzania. I used local transport and organized my own housing, food and visas. I enjoyed meeting local people and learning about local traditions. I read and learned a lot about the culture and wildlife, and I even learned some local languages. This trip taught me to be independent and to organize travel arrangements. I have also worked as a leader at a children’s summor camp in the south of England. I worked there in 2022. I led activities for children aged 9-12. For this work, I received training in climbing and first aid. During this time. I developed many useful skills. For example, I learned how to be helpful and positive, and I also learned to amuse people and help them make friends when they are with strangers. Finally, I have completed the Active Youth Challenge. I did this while I was at high school in 2021. I firstly helped at a social club for the elderly, where I chatted and played games with the members. The experience taught me to be patient and friendly, Secondly, I had to learn something by myself. I learned car repairing and some other useful skills. Thirdly, I organized a four-day camping and hiking trip in the Scottish mountains with other students. This experience taught me about camping equipment and how to deal with problems like bad weather and getting lost. I believe I have lots of useful experience to work as an Overland Tour Guide. I would love the opportunity to tell you more about my skills at an interview. Yours faithfully. Martin Brown 66. While in Africa, the author learned to be ________. A. careful B. friendly C. independent D. helpful 67. Which is the right order of the author’s following experiences? ①He led activities for children. ②He visited Tanzania. ③He learned to repair cars. A. ①②③ B. ①③② C. ③①② D. ③②① 68. Where did the author receive first aid training? A. In England. B. In Kenya. C. In Ethiopia. D. In Scotland. 69. What is the author’s purpose of writing this text? A. To record his days. B. To apply for a job. C. To give a speech on traveling. D. To introduce himself in an interview. 70. The author talks about his experiences ________. A. by reasoning B. by comparing C. by asking questions D. by giving examples 五、英文写作 (15分) 71. 假定你是李华，受邀参加学校组织的“How to live a healthy life”经验活动分享。请写一篇英文演讲稿，通过自己的亲身经历，分享运动、饮食、睡眠、心态等方面建议，呼吁同学们保持身体健康。词数60 — 80左右。 _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 怀仁市云洲职业中学2025-2026学年下学期期中考试 高一英语试卷 考试时间：90分钟 满分：100分 一、语音 (本大题共10小题，每小题1分，共计10分) 从 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出划线部分发音不同的一项。 1. A. fresh B. lend C. infect D. excellent 2. A. theme B. through C. think D. though 3. A. pleasant B. reason C. weather D. measure 4. A. moon B. food C. flood D. cool 5. A. budget B. rude C. suck D. unfair 6. A. otherwise B. bring C. drive D. hide 7. A. hobby B. daily C. happy D. why 8. A. change B. hang C. glad D. add 9. A. exact B. ancient C. decorate D. increase 10. A. stopped B. worked C. stayed D. looked 【答案】1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. C 【解析】 【1题详解】 excellent划线部分发音是/ə/，其余各项划线部分发音都是/e/。 【2题详解】 though划线部分发音是/ð/，其余各项划线部分发音都是/θ/。 【3题详解】 reason划线部分发音是/iː/，其余各项划线部分发音都是/e/。 【4题详解】 flood划线部分发音是/ʌ/，其余各项划线部分发音都是/uː/。 【5题详解】 rude划线部分发音是/uː/，其余各项划线部分发音都是/ʌ/。 【6题详解】 bring划线部分发音是/ɪ/，其余各项划线部分发音都是/aɪ/。 【7题详解】 why划线部分发音是/aɪ/，其余各项划线部分发音都是/ɪ/。 【8题详解】 change划线部分发音是/eɪ/，其余各项划线部分发音都是/æ/。 【9题详解】 ancient划线部分发音是/ʃ/，其余各项划线部分发音都是/k/。 【10题详解】 stayed划线部分发音是/d/，其余各项划线部分发音都是/t/。 二、单项选择题 (本大题共30小题，每小题1分，共计30分) 从 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出空白处的最佳选项。 11. My sister has two ________ and a bottle of ________ in her bag. A. tomato; milk B. tomatoes; milk C. tomato; milks D. tomatoes; milks 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：我姐姐的包里有两个西红柿和一瓶牛奶。 tomato西红柿（单数）；milk牛奶，不可数名词； tomatoes西红柿复数。第一空，数词two后接可数名词复数，tomato的复数形式tomatoes；第二空，milk为不可数名词，无复数形式，仍用milk。 12. ________ old man over there is a famous vocational school teacher. A. A B. An C. The D. / 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：那边的那个老人是一位著名的职业学校老师。 根据“over there”可知，此处特指“那边的那位老人”，故用定冠词The。 13. — How far is it from your home to school? — It’s about ________ walk. A. ten minute B. ten minutes C. ten minute’s D. ten minutes’ 【答案】D 【解析】 【详解】句意：——从你家到学校有多远？——步行大约十分钟。 表示“十分钟的步行路程”可用名词所有格形式ten minutes’ walk或者复合形容词形式ten-minute walk。 14. My brother and I bought two pens. ________ is blue and ________ is black. A. My; his B. Mine; his C. Me; him D. Myself; himself 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：我和哥哥买了两支钢笔，我的（钢笔）是蓝色的，他的（钢笔）是黑色的。 My是形容词性物主代词，后面需接名词；his可作名词性物主代词，指代“他的钢笔”；Me和him是人称代词宾格，不能作主语；Myself和 himself是反身代词。两个空格都需用名词性物主代词作主语，故用Mine和his。 15. About ________ of the students in our school are from small villages. A. two third B. two thirds C. second third D. two three 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：在我们学校，大约三分之二的学生来自小村庄。 英语中分数表达规则为：分子用基数词（如 two），分母用序数词（如 third），当分子大于1时，分母需加-s（即 thirds）。因此选项B符合规则，表示“三分之二”。 16. The Yellow River is one of ________ rivers in China. A. long B. longer C. the longest D. longest 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：黄河是中国最长的河流之一。 “one of the + 形容词最高级 + 名词复数”为固定结构，表示“最……的……之一”，此处应用the + 形容词最高级。 17. There ________ a football match in our school playground this afternoon. A. will have B. is going to have C. will be D. is going to has 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：今天下午我们学校操场上将有一场足球比赛。 There be句型表示存在，其将来时固定结构为“There will be”或“There is/are going to be”。 18. He has made a great contribution ________ protecting the environment around the world. A. to B. for C. in D. with 【答案】A 【解析】 【详解】句意：他为保护世界各地的环境做出了巨大贡献。 “make a contribution to”是固定短语，意为“为……做贡献”，所以空处应用介词to。 19. A new vocational training center ________ in our city next year. A. will build B. will be built C. builds D. is built 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：明年我们城市将建一个新的职业培训中心。 题干中有时间状语next year，表示将来时；主语a new vocational training center是物，与动词build构成被动关系（中心被建造）。因此，需使用一般将来时的被动语态，结构为：will be + 过去分词（built）。 20. We should ________ our classroom clean and tidy every day. A. take care B. keep C. keep up D. keep on 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：我们应该每天保持教室干净整洁。 take care当心；keep保持；keep up跟上；keep on继续。根据“our classroom clean and tidy”可知，此处应用keep构成“keep+宾语+形容词”结构，表示“使某物保持某种状态”，故用keep。 21. The classroom ________ every day. It’s very clean now. A. cleans B. cleaned C. was cleaned D. is cleaned 【答案】D 【解析】 【详解】句意：教室每天都打扫，现在非常干净。 时间状语every day表示习惯性动作，需用一般现在时；主语The classroom与动词clean之间为被动关系（教室是被打扫的对象），因此应用被动语态。一般现在时被动语态的结构为“am/is/are + 过去分词”，主语为单数，故用is cleaned。 22. Don’t worry. I will ________ you ________ when you arrive at the train station. A. put; up B. pick; up C. wake; up D. give; up 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：别担心。当你到达火车站时，我会接你。 put up张贴/搭建；pick up捡起/接载；wake up醒来/叫醒；give up放弃。根据“at the train station”可知，在火车站“到达”的场景下，“接载”最符合语境（表示去车站接人）。 23. He won the first prize in the competition, ________ made his parents very proud. A. which B. that C. what D. where 【答案】A 【解析】 【详解】句意：他在比赛中获得了第一名，这使他的父母非常自豪。 分析句子可知，空处引导一个非限制性定语从句，修饰整个主句“He won the first prize in the competition”（指代事件），并在从句中作主语，应用which指代前述整个句子，符合语法规则。 24. — What ________ you ________ at this time yesterday? — I was practicing nursing skills in the lab. A. are; doing B. were; doing C. did; do D. have; done 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：——昨天这个时候你在做什么？——我在实验室练习护理技能。 题干中“at this time yesterday”（昨天这个时间）表示过去具体时间点，需用过去进行时（was /were + doing）提问，与答句“I was practicing ...”时态一致。 25. Great changes ________ in our hometown since 2020. A. take place B. took place C. have taken place D. will take place 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：自2020年以来，我们的家乡发生了巨大的变化。 根据“since 2020”可知，句子应用现在完成时（have /has done）。 26. When ________ a new word, you’d better look it up in a dictionary at once. A. meeting B. meet C. met D. to meet 【答案】A 【解析】 【详解】句意：当遇到生词时，你最好立刻查字典。 在时间状语从句中，当从句主语与主句主语一致（此处均为you），且动作主动发生时，可省略主语并将动词变为现在分词形式（-ing），meeting表示主动进行的动作，符合省略规则。 27. Eric is busy in ________ the position of General Manager these days. A. calling for B. using up C. applying for D. caring for 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：Eric这几天在忙于申请总经理的职位。 calling for要求；using up用完；applying for申请；caring for关心。根据“Eric is busying in ... the position of General Manager”结合语境，可知申请职位是最合理的动作。 28. If it ________ tomorrow, we will put off the sports meeting. A. rain B. rains C. will rain D. rained 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：如果明天下雨，我们将推迟运动会。 if引导的条件状语从句遵循“主将从现”，当主句使用一般将来时（will put off）时，从句需用一般现在时表示将来动作，主语it为第三人称单数，谓语动词应使用第三人称单数形式rains。 29. If you have any questions, please ________ your hand in class. A. put up B. put on C. put off D. put away 【答案】A 【解析】 【详解】句意：如果你有任何问题，请在课堂上举手。 put up举起；put on穿上；put off推迟；put away收起来。根据“If you have any questions”可知，有问题应该是在课堂上举手示意，故用put up。 30. It’s raining outside. Put on your raincoat, ________ you will get wet. A. and B. or C. but D. so 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：外面正在下雨。穿上你的雨衣，否则你会被淋湿。 and和；or否则；but但是；so因此。根据“Put on your raincoat”和“you will get wet”可知，此处意思是“穿上你的雨衣，否则你会淋湿”，此处为“祈使句+or+简单句”的结构。 31. I’m looking forward to ________ the new intelligent car factory. A. visit B. to visit C. visited D. visiting 【答案】D 【解析】 【详解】句意：我期待参观新的智能汽车工厂。 短语look forward to中的to是介词，后需接名词或动名词（-ing 形式），表示“期待做某事”，故应用visiting作介词to的宾语。 32. The little boy likes to ________ his new toy car in front of his classmates. A. show off B. show up C. show in D. show around 【答案】A 【解析】 【详解】句意：这个小男孩喜欢在同学面前炫耀他的新玩具车。 show off炫耀；show up出现；show in领入；show around带领参观。根据句意，小男孩在同学面前展示新玩具车的行为是为了“炫耀”。 33. My teacher encourages me ________ part in the English speech contest. A. take B. taking C. to take D. took 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：我的老师鼓励我参加英语演讲比赛。 固定短语encourage sb. to do sth.意为“鼓励某人做某事”，因此此处应用动词不定式to take。 34. This is the factory ________ my father worked ten years ago. A. which B. where C. who D. whose 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：这是我父亲十年前工作的工厂。 分析句子可知，空处引导定语从句，先行词the factory表示地点，在从句中充当地点状语，需用关系副词where引导从句。 35. It’s important for us ________ professional skills hard. A. learn B. learning C. to learn D. learned 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：对我们来说，努力学习专业技能是很重要的。 固定句型“It’s +形容词+ for sb.+ to do sth.”表示“对某人来说，做某事是……的”，该句型中It作形式主语，to do不定式作真正主语。 36. Could you tell me ________ the nearest vocational school is? A. where B. how C. what D. when 【答案】A 【解析】 【详解】句意：你能告诉我最近的职业学校在哪里吗？ 分析句子结构可知，空处引导宾语从句，根据“the nearest vocational school is”可知，这里是询问地点，因此where符合语境。 37. I will call you ________ I arrive at the train station. A. as soon as B. while C. until D. since 【答案】A 【解析】 【详解】句意：我一到火车站就给你打电话。 as soon as一……就……；while当……时；until直到……为止；since自从。句中“I will call you”和“I arrive at the train station”之间存在时间上的先后顺序，即一到火车站就打电话，所以空处应用as soon as引导时间状语从句。 38. The girl ________ in red is my classmate. She is good at computer science. A. dressed B. dressing C. dress D. to dress 【答案】A 【解析】 【详解】句意：那个穿红衣服的女孩是我的同学。她擅长计算机科学。 固定搭配：be dressed in + 颜色/衣物表示“穿着……（衣服）”，此处过去分词短语dressed in red作后置定语修饰the girl。 39. — I’m sorry I broke your ruler. — ________. I have another one. A. You’re welcome B. It’s a pleasure C. Never mind D. That’s right 【答案】C 【解析】 【详解】句意：——很抱歉我弄坏了你的尺子。——没关系。我还有一把。 You’re welcome不客气；It’s a pleasure乐意效劳；Never mind没关系；That’s right没错。根据“I have another one.”可知，此处表示安慰对方，故用Never mind。 40. I’m sorry that I’m not familiar ________ this computer software. Could you help me? A. to B. with C. for D. by 【答案】B 【解析】 【详解】句意：我很抱歉我不熟悉这个电脑软件。你能帮我吗？ be familiar with是固定搭配，表示“对……熟悉”。 三、完型填空 (本大题共15小题，每小题1分，共计15分) 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出空白处的最佳选项。 Quanzhou, China My favourite time of the year is Chinese New Year’s ____41____. Our family usually has a reunion dinner. We eat Niangao, which is a kind of rice cake that I love. In our tradition, it’s an offering to the Kitchen God. We also watch the Spring Festival Gala Evening on TV, ____42____ we call Chunwan. There ____43____ dancing, singing, drama, and some comedies. On this night, we can ____44____ late, usually until the next morning. Before going to bed, we often write down our wishes ____45____ the new year on red paper. Penang, Malaysia George Town, which is the capital city of ____46____, really comes alive at Chinese New Year. Around December, there’s the delightful Chingay parade. We also go to Kek Lok Si, which is a really important Buddhist temple. Monks visit it all the way from Thailand every year. Usually, the temple closes before dark, ____47____ at Chinese New Year, it opens in the evening and ____48____ with thousands of lanterns and lights. My grandma always tells me stories about the temple ____49____ we are walking around the lanterns. San Francisco, USA My family is ____50____ from China, but I grew up here in California. We still follow traditions around Chinese New Year. My family always give me Hongbao, which is a red envelope ____51____ money in it. Relatives give ____52____ to unmarried children in the family. Every year, the streets are always full of the sound of firecrackers, which scares away monsters. It’s always a joyful and fun time. Last year, we even invited our American neighbors to join us, and they said it was ____53____ most interesting festival they had ever experienced. This year, we plan to make dumplings together, ____54____ is one of the most important foods for Chinese New Year. No matter where we are, Chinese New Year always connects us ____55____ our roots and family. 41. A. Day B. Week C. Eve D. Month 42. A. the B. which C. when D. where 43. A. is B. are C. was D. were 44. A. get up B. put up C. tie up D. stay up 45. A. for B. to C. with D. at 46. A. Penang B. Thailand C. China D. the USA 47. A. and B. but C. or D. as 48. A. decorates B. was decorated C. is decorated D. decorated 49. A. if B. while C. because D. since 50. A. originally B. original C. origin D. origination 51. A. of B. for C. without D. with 52. A. it B. a C. they D. them 53. A. a B. an C. the D. / 54. A. that B. which C. who D. where 55. A. to B. from C. for D. with 【答案】41. C 42. B 43. A 44. D 45. A 46. A 47. B 48. C 49. B 50. A 51. D 52. D 53. C 54. B 55. D 【解析】 【导语】本文以春节为主题，分别讲述了三处不同地区的春节习俗：中国本土、马来西亚槟城、美国旧金山。全文展现了海内外华人多样的春节风俗，体现春节凝聚亲情、联结民族根源的重要意义。 【41题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：一年中我最喜欢的时刻是除夕。 Day天；Week周；Eve前夕；Month月。Chinese New Year’s Eve 是固定搭配“除夕”。 【42题详解】 考查非限制性定语从句。句意：我们还在电视上看春晚，我们称之为春晚。 分析句子可知，此处引导非限制性定语从句，指代前文“the Spring Festival Gala Evening”指物，应用which。 【43题详解】 考查时态。句意：（节目里）有舞蹈、歌唱、戏剧和一些喜剧表演。 此处是there be就近原则，后面第一个名词dancing是不可数，看作单数，全文用的一般现在时，故用is。 【44题详解】 考查动词短语。句意：在这天晚上，我们可以熬夜到很晚，通常直到第二天早上。 get up起床；put up张贴；tie up系紧；stay up late熬夜。根据“we can ... late, usually until the next morning.”可知，是指熬夜。 【45题详解】 考查介词词义辨析。句意：睡前，我们常在红纸上写下新年愿望。 for表对象；to到；with和；at在。此处表示对新年的祝愿应用for。 【46题详解】 考查名词词义辨析。句意：槟城的首府乔治市在春节期间格外热闹。 Penang槟城；Thailand泰国；China中国；the USA美国。第二段段首点明地点Penang（槟城），首府当然是槟城。 【47题详解】 考查连词词义辨析。句意：这座寺庙通常天黑前关闭，但在春节期间会夜间开放。 and和；but但是；or或；as当。根据前半句“天黑前关门”，后半句“春节晚上开放”可知，此处表转折用but。 【48题详解】 考查被动语态。句意：寺庙夜晚开放，挂满成千上万的灯笼与灯饰。 寺庙是被装饰，应用一般现在时的被动：is decorated with。 【49题详解】 考查时间状语从句。句意：我们逛灯笼的时候，奶奶总会给我讲这座寺庙的故事。 if如果；while当……的时候；because因为；since既然。根据句意可知，我们逛灯笼的时候，奶奶总会给我讲这座寺庙的故事。应用while。 【50题详解】 考查固定短语。句意：我的家人原籍是中国，但我在加州长大。 originally最初，副词；original原始的，形容词；origin起源，名词；origination发源，名词。短语be originally from意为“原籍是……”符合语境。 【51题详解】 考查介词词义辨析。句意：红包就是里面装着钱的红色信封。 of ……的；for为了；without没有；with有。根据“... money in it. (有钱在里面)”结合常识可知，红包就是里面装有钱的红色信封。 【52题详解】 考查代词词义辨析。句意：亲戚们会把红包发给家里未婚的孩子。 it它；a一个；they他们，主格；them他们，宾格。根据“unmarried children”可知，红包不止一个，作give的宾语，应用宾格形式them。 【53题详解】 考查冠词词义辨析。句意：他们说这是他们经历过最有趣的节日。 形容词最高级most interesting前必须加定冠词the。 【54题详解】 考查非限制性定语从句。句意：今年我们打算一起包饺子，饺子是春节最重要的食物之一。 分析句子可知，此处引导非限制性定语从句，指代前面事物dumplings，用which。 【55题详解】 考查固定搭配。句意：无论身在何方，春节总能让我们铭记根源、心系家人。 to到；from从；for为了；with和。固定搭配connect sb. with sth.“把……与……联系起来”。 四、阅读理解 (本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共计30分) 从 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出空白处的最佳选项。 A Sixty-year-old grandmother, Fiona McFee, is going to stop working next year and she decided to realize a childhood dream and sail around the coast of Scotland in a small boat. Although the inside of the boat is very cozy, it has no running water or electricity. Fiona says she can live without these things but she plans to take her small CD player, her hot water bottle and a bag of books to make sure life isn’t too uncomfortable. We asked her if she was afraid of being at sea for so long. She said, “Well, I’m going to take a good compass. Anyway, I’m not afraid of death because I love the sea — I just hope it loves me.” Fiona certainly has plenty of energy. In her spare time, she enjoys playing the piano, rock-climbing, canoeing and dancing. Although she is sixty, she doesn’t want to have a quiet and peaceful life. “I’m looking forward to having fun in the rest of my life and that’s exactly why I’d like to be a sailor for a while.” 56. The underlined word “cozy” in the first paragraph means ________. A. dirty B. comfortable C. dark D. narrow 57. When Fiona McFee said, “I just hope it loves me.” What did she mean? A. Of course, it loves me, since I love it. B. I hope it will save my life when I am in time of danger. C. I hope it will bring me a safe sailing as a return for my love of it. D. I hope it will provide me with enough food during the sailing. 58. Why would she like to have the sail? A. She thinks it will be very exciting. B. She has decided to realize a childhood dream. C. She likes sports and enjoys canoeing. D. She wants to escape from her busy work. 59. What kind of person is Fiona McFee? A. Someone who is very proud and sure of her success. B. Someone who doesn’t like take risks. C. Someone who is open, honest and brave. D. Someone who is shy and afraid of challenges. 60. What is the best title for this passage? A. An Old Woman Sailor B. An Unusual Dream C. Life Begins at Sixty D. A Hard Sailing Trip 【答案】56. B 57. C 58. B 59. C 60. C 【解析】 【导语】本文讲述了一位60岁的老奶奶Fiona McFee决定实现童年梦想，独自驾船环游苏格兰海岸的故事，展现了她积极乐观、勇敢无畏的生活态度。 【56题详解】 词句猜测题。根据第一段“Although the inside of the boat is very cozy, it has no running water or electricity. Fiona says she can live without these things but she plans to take her small CD player, her hot water bottle and a bag of books to make sure life isn’t too uncomfortable. (虽然船的内部非常cozy，但没有自来水和电。Fiona说她可以在没有这些东西的情况下生活，但她计划带上她的小CD播放机、热水袋和一袋书，以确保生活不会太不舒服。)”可知，虽然没有水电，但她带了东西来保证生活舒适，因此“cozy”在这里指的是comfortable“舒适的”。 【57题详解】 推理判断题。根据第二段“Anyway, I’m not afraid of death because I love the sea — I just hope it loves me. (无论如何，我不怕死，因为我爱大海——我只是希望它也爱我。)”可知，这句话表达了她对大海的热爱，并希望大海能回报她一份平安，即希望大海能保佑她航行安全。 【58题详解】 细节理解题。根据第一段“Sixty-year-old grandmother, Fiona McFee, is going to stop working next year and she decided to realize a childhood dream and sail around the coast of Scotland in a small boat. (60岁的老奶奶Fiona McFee明年将停止工作，她决定实现童年的梦想，驾着小船环游苏格兰海岸。)”可知，她想去航海是为了实现童年的梦想。 【59题详解】 推理判断题。根据第二段“Anyway, I’m not afraid of death because I love the sea — I just hope it loves me. (无论如何，我不怕死，因为我爱大海——我只是希望它也爱我。)”以及最后一段“Although she is sixty, she doesn’t want to have a quiet and peaceful life. (虽然她已经60岁了，但她不想过平静安宁的生活。)”可知，她敢于挑战，思想开放，并且诚实地表达自己对大海的热爱和对死亡的无畏，因此她是一个开放、诚实且勇敢的人。 【60题详解】 主旨大意题。根据全文内容，特别是第二段“Although she is sixty, she doesn’t want to have a quiet and peaceful life. “I’m looking forward to having fun in the rest of my life and that’s exactly why I’d like to be a sailor for a while.” (虽然她已经六十岁了，但她并不想过那种平静安逸的生活。“我很期待在余生里找点乐子，这也正是我想当一阵子水手的原因。”)”可知，本文主要介绍了60岁的老奶奶Fion a McFee计划实现儿时的梦想，乘小船环绕苏格兰海岸航行，展现了她的勇敢和对生活的热爱，因此最佳标题为“Life Begins at Sixty (人生从六十岁开始)”。 B Home> Travel Guide > Tour How to Plan Your First-Time Family Trip to the UK We are here to help you answer these questions: * How long to travel? * Where to go? * When to travel? * What activities to do? * How much to spend? * Where to live? * How to travel? Britain is a great family-friendly country for tourists. ► How Long to Travel? 12 — 14 days is advised for a family trip to the UK. However, if your vacation time is short, 7-9 days is enough for Britain’s most popular cities like London, Edinburgh, Manchester and Cardiff. ► When to Travel? The UK has pretty much a two-season climate. Spring and autumn are both very short. Visiting the United Kingdom in Summer (May to September) Summer is the high season. Prices for hotels, flights, and local tours are at their most expensive. But with the high price, you will get: ● Very long days, so more time for touring and outdoor activities. Through mid-August, sunset is not until after 10 p.m. in some parts of the country. ● English gardens at their best. ● Different Edinburgh Festivals. ● Lots of music festivals. Visiting the United Kingdom in Winter (November to March) Prices are the lowest, but the days are also the shortest. Sunset is usually before 5 p.m. in December and January. However, if you enjoy indoor activities, shopping, museums, theaters, dining out, and nightlife, you can save a lot and have a very good time in winter. Here’s some of what you can look forward to: ● The best and the newest plays in theaters in all the big cities. ● Wonderful Christmas concerts in the UK’s historic churches. ● Fire festivals in England and Scotland. 61. What can you learn about traveling to Britain from this text? A. What food to eat. B. What gifts to buy. C. What clothes to wear. D. What activities to do. 62. How long should you at least travel in Britain? A. 7 days. B. 9 days. C. 12 days. D. 14 days. 63. What can you do if you travel to Britain in summer? a. Visit gardens. b. Enjoy the latest plays. c. Join in Edinburgh Festivals. d. Join in fire festivals. e. Go to music festivals. f. Enjoy Christmas concerts. A. abc. B. ace. C. bde. D. acf. 64. What’s the advantage of traveling to Britain in winter? A. You can enjoy sunset at 8 pm. B. You can make more friends. C. You can spend less money on hotels. D. You can do all kinds of winter sports. 65. Who may be most interested in the text? A. The Greens who live in London. B. The Chens who have never been to Britain. C. Mary, a foreign student studying in Britain. D. Susan who isn’t interested in the history of Britain. 【答案】61. D 62. A 63. B 64. C 65. B 【解析】 【导语】本文围绕首次英国家庭旅行展开，依次介绍了英国旅行的建议时长、最佳出行季节。分别对比了夏季与冬季去英国旅行的优缺点、特色活动等，为计划前往英国旅行的家庭提供全面参考。 【61题详解】 细节理解题。根据“How to Plan Your First-Time Family Trip to the UK”中的问题包括“How long to travel? Where to go? When to travel? What activities to do? How much to spend? Where to live? How to travel? (旅行时长？ 目的地是哪里？何时出行？ 参加哪些活动？花多少钱？住在哪里？如何旅行？)”可知，从文中，我们能了解到关于去英国旅行的时长，目的地，何时出行，参加哪些活动，花多少钱，住在哪里，和如何旅行。 【62题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Britain is a great family-friendly country for tourists.”中“if your vacation time is short, 7-9 days is enough for Britain’s most popular cities like London, Edinburgh, Manchester and Cardiff. (如果你的假期时间很短，那么7到9天的时间就足以游览英国最受欢迎的城市，如伦敦、爱丁堡、曼彻斯特和卡迪夫。)”可知，在英国旅行你至少要7天。 【63题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Visiting the United Kingdom in Summer”中“English gardens at their best. Different Edinburgh Festivals. Lots of music festivals. (最美丽的英式花园。不同的爱丁堡艺术节。大量的音乐节。)”可知，如果你夏天去英国旅行，你可以参观花园，参加爱丁堡节庆活动和参加音乐节。 【64题详解】 细节理解题。根据“Visiting the United Kingdom in Winter”中“Prices are the lowest, (价格最低，)”可知，冬天去英国旅行的优点是价格最低，可以省钱。 【65题详解】 推理判断题。根据题目“How to Plan Your First-Time Family Trip to the UK (如何规划你的首次英国家庭之旅)”可知，从没去过英国的家庭可能会感兴趣。 C Dear Sir/ Madam, I would like to apply for the job of tour leader for your Overland Africa tours. I have had lots of useful experience for this role. I have spent five months in Africa. In 2023, I visited Ethiopia, Kenya and Tanzania. I used local transport and organized my own housing, food and visas. I enjoyed meeting local people and learning about local traditions. I read and learned a lot about the culture and wildlife, and I even learned some local languages. This trip taught me to be independent and to organize travel arrangements. I have also worked as a leader at a children’s summor camp in the south of England. I worked there in 2022. I led activities for children aged 9-12. For this work, I received training in climbing and first aid. During this time. I developed many useful skills. For example, I learned how to be helpful and positive, and I also learned to amuse people and help them make friends when they are with strangers. Finally, I have completed the Active Youth Challenge. I did this while I was at high school in 2021. I firstly helped at a social club for the elderly, where I chatted and played games with the members. The experience taught me to be patient and friendly, Secondly, I had to learn something by myself. I learned car repairing and some other useful skills. Thirdly, I organized a four-day camping and hiking trip in the Scottish mountains with other students. This experience taught me about camping equipment and how to deal with problems like bad weather and getting lost. I believe I have lots of useful experience to work as an Overland Tour Guide. I would love the opportunity to tell you more about my skills at an interview. Yours faithfully. Martin Brown 66. While in Africa, the author learned to be ________. A. careful B. friendly C. independent D. helpful 67. Which is the right order of the author’s following experiences? ①He led activities for children. ②He visited Tanzania. ③He learned to repair cars. A. ①②③ B. ①③② C. ③①② D. ③②① 68. Where did the author receive first aid training? A. In England. B. In Kenya. C. In Ethiopia. D. In Scotland. 69. What is the author’s purpose of writing this text? A. To record his days. B. To apply for a job. C. To give a speech on traveling. D. To introduce himself in an interview. 70. The author talks about his experiences ________. A. by reasoning B. by comparing C. by asking questions D. by giving examples 【答案】66. C 67. C 68. A 69. B 70. D 【解析】 【导语】这是一篇应用文。本文是马丁·布朗申请非洲旅行领队职位的求职信。 【66题详解】 细节理解题。根据第二段中“This trip taught me to be independent and to organize travel arrangements. (这次旅行教会了我独立和组织旅行安排。)”可知，作者的非洲之旅教会了作者独立。故选C。 【67题详解】 细节理解题。根据第四段中“I did this while I was at high school in 2021 ... I learned car repairing and some other useful skills. (我是在2021年读高中的时候做的……我学会了修车和其他一些有用的技能。)”和第三段中“I have also worked as a leader at a children’s summor camp in the south of England. I worked there in 2022. (我还在英格兰南部的一个儿童夏令营担任过领队。我于2022年在那里工作。)”及第二段中“In 2023, I visited Ethiopia, Kenya and Tanzania. (2023年，我访问了埃塞俄比亚、肯尼亚和坦桑尼亚。)”可知，作者2021年高中时期，学会了修车；2022年担任儿童夏令营领队；2023年访问了坦桑尼亚。因此正确顺序问③①②。故选C。 【68题详解】 细节理解题。根据第三段中“I have also worked as a leader at a children’s summor camp in the south of England ... I received training in climbing and first aid. (我还在英格兰南部的一个儿童夏令营担任过领队……我接受了攀爬和急救方面的训练。)”可知，作者在英格兰接受的急救培训。故选A。 【69题详解】 推理判断题。根据第一段中“I would like to apply for the job of tour leader for your Overland Africa tours. (我想应聘你们非洲陆上旅行团的领队。)”可知，作者的写作目的是求职。故选B。 【70题详解】 推理判断题。根据第二段到第四段的描述可知，作者分别列举了访问非洲的经历，担任儿童夏令营领队的经历以及完成“活跃青年挑战赛”的经历等事实说明自己的经验很丰富。故选D。 五、英文写作 (15分) 71. 假定你是李华，受邀参加学校组织的“How to live a healthy life”经验活动分享。请写一篇英文演讲稿，通过自己的亲身经历，分享运动、饮食、睡眠、心态等方面建议，呼吁同学们保持身体健康。词数60 — 80左右。 _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 【答案】例文： How to Live a Healthy Life Dear classmates, I’m Li Hua. It’s my great honor to share my ways of keeping healthy with you. I used to feel tired easily. Then I made some changes. First, I exercise every day to make my body strong. Second, I eat more vegetables and fruit instead of junk food. Third, I never stay up late and get enough sleep every night. Besides, I always keep relaxed and take a positive attitude towards life. Health is the most important treasure. Let’s develop good habits and live a healthy life together. 【解析】 【导语】本篇书面表达属于说明文。李华受邀参加学校组织的“How to live a healthy life”经验活动分享，写了一篇英文演讲稿，通过自己的亲身经历，分享运动、饮食、睡眠、心态等方面建议，呼吁同学们保持身体健康。 【详解】1.词汇积累 保持健康：keep healthy→ keep fit 充足的：enough→ plentiful 除此之外：Besides→ in addition 乐观的：positive→ optimistic 2.句式拓展 简单句变复合句 原句：I used to feel tired easily. Then I made some changes. 拓展句：I used to feel tired easily, so I made some changes. 【点睛】【高分句型1】It’s my great honor to share my ways of keeping healthy with you. (运用了it作形式主语，不定式作真正主语) 【高分句型2】Third, I never stay up late and get enough sleep every night. (运用了and连接的并列谓语) 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $