内容正文:
舟山市五校联盟2025学年第二学期高二年级期中调研英语学科试题卷
考生须知:
1.本试题卷共11页,满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,在答题卷指定区域填写班级、姓名、考场号、座位号及准考证号。
3.所有答案必须写在答题卷上,写在试卷上无效。
4.考试结束后,只需上交答题卷。
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Which place do the speakers give up visiting?
A. Nanjing Museum. B. Xuanwu Lake Park. C. Hongshan Forest Zoo.
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】M: Any ideas for our one day tour in Nanjing tomorrow?
W: I’d love to go to the Hong Shan Forest Zoo and the Nanjing museum.
M: How about a short walk in the Xuanwu Lake Park after visiting the zoo? The museum requires booking at least two days in advance.
W: Okay.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Which of the following about America impresses the man most?
A. The people. B. The scenery. C. The modern buildings.
【答案】C
【解析】
【原文】W: What do you think of America, John?
M: The people there are lovely, the scenery is beautiful, the air in the countryside is fresh and above all, the modern buildings are most impressive.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What are the speakers talking about?
A. A city. B. A travel plan. C. A picnic.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】M: What shall we do next?
W: Why don’t we go for a picnic at Hyde Park first? Then we can go to the London Eye later?
M: Why not? It will be great to see the city from up high in the evening.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What is the man probably?
A. A tour guide. B. A photographer. C. A shop owner.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】M: Are you interested in traveling?
W: Yes, but I haven’t got much from running the coffee shop. How about you?
M: I visited many places. I worked for magazines and newspapers, providing photos for them. That sounds really wonderful.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What does the woman imply about the travel package?
A. The advertised price is misleading.
B. The itinerary is too rushed.
C. The hotel ratings are inaccurate.
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】M: This all inclusive package to Bali looks incredible. Seven days for only 800 dollars. That seems too good to be true.
W: Well, read the fine print. That base price is for the budget hotel, which has pretty mixed reviews to stay at the well rated beachfront resort shown in the pictures. It’s an extra 300 dollars per person, and the flights are at terrible hours.
M: Ah, I see. So the from 800 dollars is just the starting point.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. A couple. B. Neighbors. C. Colleagues.
7. When did Mr. Thompson arrive home today?
A. At 6:30 p.m. B. At 6:15 p.m. C. At 5:45 p.m.
【答案】6. A 7. C
【解析】
【原文】M: What is that strange smell? Did you take the trash out?
W: Yeah. Oh, it is the gas, I’ll open the windows and let fresh air come in, can you turn off the gas?
M: But I looked everywhere. There’s no gas leak. Then it must come from Mr Thompson’s. Mr Thompson went to Australia for sightseeing. Did he return?
W: He came home a quarter of an hour earlier than you. When you got back home, the clock had just struck six. It’s 6:30 p.m. now. Hurry up, let’s knock on his door.
M: We need to grab wet towels and cover our noses in case of an accident.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. What does the man think of the sleep tracker?
A. It is amazing. B. It is useless. C. It is unscientific.
9. What was the woman’s average sleep efficiency last night?
A. 70%. B. 85%. C. 90%.
10. What does the man suggest the woman do?
A. Ignore the statistics. B. Stop using the tracker. C. Just check sleep patterns.
【答案】8. A 9. B 10. C
【解析】
【原文】W: That new sleep tracker you recommended is fascinating and slightly terrifying.
M: How so? The data has been eye-opening for me.
W: According to this, for 88% of the time I don’t get into deep sleep.
M: What’s your sleep efficiency?
W: 85% last night, but it ranges from 70%-90% honestly knowing this might be making my sleep problem worse.
M: Well, we monitor sleep to improve it, but the monitoring causes stress.
W: Exactly. Maybe ignorance makes it easier.
M: Try using it just weekly for sleep patterns, like your average sleep time.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
11. What is the matter with the woman?
A. She was injured while walking. B. She took the wrong medicine. C. She has got a fever.
12. What does the man do to keep healthy?
A. He takes exercise every day. B. He works in a health club. C. He walks to work.
13. According to the man, what is the most important to the woman?
A. Joining a health club at once. B. Keeping on doing exercise. C. Having a good rest.
【答案】11. C 12. A 13. B
【解析】
【原文】M: Hi Susan. How are you doing? You aren’t looking very well.
W: Oh, I’m feeling terrible. I’ve got a temperature and a really bad headache. It seems I’m even too weak to walk.
M: Oh, I’m sorry to hear that. Why don’t you take some medicine?
W: I’ve tried that. Thank you, Bob. You are looking very good.
M: Yeah, I joined a health club to keep in shape.
W: Do you exercise every day?
M: Yes, I’ve been running for over four months. At first I ached all over after running, but it went away a few days later.
W: Oh, how wonderful. People can’t keep fit without exercising. I really should follow your example.
M: Yeah, but what is the most important to you is that you’d better not stop exercising.
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
14. Who is the speaker talking to?
A. Parents. B. Scientists. C. Students.
15. What percentage of people are likely to be short-sighted by 2050?
A. 25%. B. 40%. C. 50%.
16. What is the key factor in nearsightedness according to some scientists?
A. Gene. B. Lifestyle. C. Wrong glasses.
17. What will the speaker talk about next?
A. How to conduct a survey.
B. How to prevent nearsightedness.
C. How to find out nearsightedness early.
【答案】14. A 15. C 16. B 17. B
【解析】
【原文】M: Hello everyone. I’m glad to be here with you to talk about your children’s eyesight. A recent survey says that in America, about 40% of adults are short-sighted, up from 25% in 1971. Rates have similarly soared in other countries. If current trends continue, half the world’s population will be short-sighted by 2050. What explains this global eyesight crisis?
According to scientists, while a family history of nearsightedness raises the risk of a child developing it. A purely genetic case of nearsightedness is rare. Instead, lifestyle factors are thought to be more significant, especially a lack of time outdoors. From 2015 to 2019 the highest nearsightedness rate measured among six-year-old children was 5.7%. In June 2020 after five months of lockdown, the rate shot up to 21.5%. To make matters worse, children are becoming nearsighted at a younger age. It’ll take some time to spot the problem and correct it. But the most important thing is that we should help the children keep away from nearsightedness in advance. How the following methods you can take into consideration in your daily life.
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
18. How is the Harvard Study of Adult Development done?
A. By studying happy students at young ages.
B. By researching people from young to old.
C. By interviewing 724 adults one by one.
19. Which best describes those who are healthier and happier?
A. Dynamic. B. Emotional. C. Sociable.
20. What message does the speech aim to convey?
A. Health is the most important of all.
B. People with good habits enjoy long life.
C. A sense of community leads to a good life.
【答案】18. B 19. C 20. C
【解析】
【原文】W: Morning everyone. I’d like to share with you about my understanding of happiness and health, guys, just imagine. What would happen if we could study people from the time that they were young all the way into old age to see what really keeps them happy and healthy? We did that. The Harvard study of adult development may be the longest study of adult life that’s ever been done. For 75 years, we’ve studied the lives of 724 men since 1938 year after year, asking about their work, their home lives and their health.
The clearest message that we got from this 75 year study is this good relationships keep us happier and healthier social connections are really good for us. It turns out that people who are more socially connected to family, to friends and to community are happier. They’re physically healthier and they live longer than people who are less well connected. And the experience of loneliness turns out to be harmful. People who are more separated than they want to be from others find that they are less happy. Their health falls earlier in midlife.
第二部分:阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
The City of Burlington public art program is presenting a series of temporary public art signs at the Beachway in conjunction with the Ontario Culture Days. This project will select 10 visual artists and 10 writers to create artwork that will be displayed on temporary signs along the multi-use path. This call is open to Burlington-based artists and is open to all art forms that can be presented in a sign format. This includes, but is not limited to: visual art, graphic art, photography, poetry, short story, non-fiction, etc. Submissions may be from existing or newly created work.
The artist fee for this project is $400. The City of Burlington will pay for all costs related to the production, installation (安装) and maintenance of the signs.
Estimated Project Timeline
August 2
Call for Artists responses due
By August 12
Successful artists selected; enter into a contract with the City of Burlington
September 6
Final artwork files due
September 23 — October 13
Artwork displayed for duration of Culture Days celebration
Application Package
Artwork Statement: Please provide a brief statement (maximum 150 words) outlining your artwork concept.
Artwork or Writing Submission:
•Visual Art Submission: Please submit an artwork sketch (草图) of your concept. This can be a work in progress rather than a completed piece. If you are proposing to use a completed artwork, please submit it as your “sketch”.
•Writing Submission: Submissions must be a maximum of 250 words. It may be a stand-alone piece such as a poem or short story or a part taken from a larger piece.
Artist Biography: Please provide a short introduction (maximum 50 words) to the artist written in the third person.
21. What is the purpose of this text?
A. To raise money for local artists. B. To release a collection of artwork.
C. To introduce a cultural festival. D. To call for artworks for a project.
22. How long will the public art signs be on display?
A. Ten days. B. Three weeks. C. One month. D. Two months.
23. Which of the following meets the application requirements?
A. A 150-word poem. B. A 100-word self-introduction.
C. A 300-word story. D. A 200-word artwork statement.
【答案】21. D 22. B 23. A
【解析】
【导语】这是一篇应用文。主要介绍了伯灵顿市公共艺术项目联合文化日征集本地艺术家作品,涵盖视觉与文学类型,明确报酬、时间节点及提交材料要求,作品将在指定时段展示。
【21题详解】
推理判断题。根据文章大意以及第一段中“The City of Burlington public art program is presenting a series of temporary public art signs at the Beachway in conjunction with the Ontario Culture Days. This project will select 10 visual artists and 10 writers to create artwork that will be displayed on temporary signs along the multi-use path. This call is open to Burlington-based artists and is open to all art forms that can be presented in a sign format. (伯灵顿市的公共艺术项目将在贝希威亚海滩举办一系列临时公共艺术标识,与安大略文化日活动同步进行。该项目将挑选 10 名视觉艺术家和 10 名作家来创作作品,这些作品将被展示在多用途路径上的临时标识牌上。此次征集面向伯灵顿本地的艺术家,并且接受所有能够以标识形式呈现的艺术形式的投稿。)”可知,文章核心内容是伯灵顿市公共艺术项目联合安大略文化日,面向本地艺术家征集可用于标牌展示的艺术作品(包括视觉艺术和文学作品),同时明确了征集要求、时间节点、报酬及提交材料。由此可知,这篇文章的目的是为一个项目征集艺术作品。故选D项。
【22题详解】
细节理解题。根据Estimated Project Timeline部分,作品展示时间为“September 23 — October 13 (9月23日至10月13日)”计算可知,9月剩余8天(23日 - 30日),10月展示13天,总计21天,即三周。故选B项。
【23题详解】
细节理解题。根据Application Package中“Artwork Statement: Please provide a brief statement (maximum 150 words) outlining your artwork concept. (作品说明:请提供一份简短的说明(最多150个词),阐述您的作品理念。)”、“Writing Submission: Submissions must be a maximum of 250 words. It may be a stand-alone piece such as a poem or short story or a part taken from a larger piece. (文字投稿:投稿内容不得超过 250 个词。可以是独立的作品,比如一首诗或一篇短篇小说,也可以是从一篇较大作品中选取的一部分。)”以及“Artist Biography: Please provide a short introduction (maximum 50 words) to the artist written in the third person. (艺术家简介:请以第三人称撰写一段简短的艺术家介绍(最多50个词)。)”可知,A选项“150 词的诗歌”符合写作类作品“最多250 词”的要求,正确。BCD选项均与原文实意不符。故选A项。
B
As the saying goes, timing is everything — and that may be true when it comes to eating as much as anything else in life. If you want to feel and function at your best, the timing of your food choices could play a vital role.
Nutrient sequencing isn’t a new concept. This approach is literally about the order in which you eat foods to minimize blood sugar increases and enhance fullness. It’s a very actionable approach and it’s not restrictive. It’s not telling you what to eat. It’s just focused on the order in which you eat foods.
A study in a 2022 issue of the journal Nutrients found that when people with type 2 diabetes (糖尿病) adopted a habit of eating vegetables before carbohydrates (碳水化合物), as recommended by dietitians, they had a significant improvement in their blood sugar control, specifically their hemoglobin (血红蛋白) A1C levels after five years. Another study in a 2024 issue of BMC Nutrition found older adults with diabetes who made a habit of eating vegetables first had greater functionality — meaning a greater ease in their intellectual activities and social abilities.
By eating vegetables and fruits first, you’ll slow down how quickly you eat because these foods require chewing. This is helpful because “it takes about 15 to 20 minutes for your brain to notice you’ve had enough,” Ayoob says, adding that this way, you’ll fill up on lower-calorie foods and “won’t have as much desire for the other calories we tend to overeat”. It can also help fill you up faster because they have much water content, besides fiber.
“Nutrient sequencing is beneficial because it keeps you thinking about what you’re eating and gets you into the mindset of self-monitoring. The hands-on experience may sound tough but it’s not.” says Lawrence Cheskin, an expert on food studies.
24. What is the focus of nutrient sequencing?
A. To balance different nutrients.
B. To choose eating time wisely.
C. To control blood sugar levels.
D. To follow the order of food intake.
25. What can we learn about type 2 diabetes patients in the 2022 study?
A. Their A1C levels rose.
B. They needed to go on a diet.
C. Their social abilities improved.
D. Their conditions got better after treatment.
26. What is the purpose of paragraph 4?
A. It gives tips on chewing habits.
B. It reveals training ways to select foods.
C. It analyses advantages of low-calorie foods.
D. It tells working principles of a healthy eating.
27. What will be discussed about nutrient sequencing in the following paragraphs?
A. Its practice. B. Its function. C. Its definition. D. Its complexity.
【答案】24. D 25. D 26. D 27. A
【解析】
【导语】文章主要介绍 “营养进食顺序”这一理念,解释了其核心含义,并通过相关研究说明先吃蔬菜再吃碳水化合物对血糖控制、身体机能等方面的益处,同时分析了该进食方式的作用原理。
【24题详解】
细节理解题。根据原文第二段“This approach is literally about the order in which you eat foods (这种方法实际上就是关于进食食物的顺序)”可知,营养进食顺序的重点是遵循食物摄入的顺序。
【25题详解】
细节理解题。根据原文第三段“A study in a 2022 issue of the journal Nutrients found that when people with type 2 diabetes (糖尿病) adopted a habit of eating vegetables before carbohydrates (碳水化合物), as recommended by dietitians, they had a significant improvement in their blood sugar control, specifically their hemoglobin (血红蛋白) A1C levels after five years.(2022 年《营养》期刊上的一项研究发现:2 型糖尿病患者遵循营养师的建议,养成先吃蔬菜、后吃碳水化合物的饮食习惯后,五年内他们的血糖控制情况得到了显著改善,具体表现为糖化血红蛋白(A1C)水平明显好转。)”可知,2型糖尿病患者经过这种饮食调理后,病情有所好转。
【26题详解】
推理判断题。根据原文第四段“By eating vegetables and fruits first, you’ll slow down how quickly you eat because these foods require chewing.(先吃蔬菜和水果会减慢你的进食速度,因为这些食物需要咀嚼。)”” 以及“It can also help fill you up faster because they have much water content, besides fiber.(它们除了富含纤维外,水分含量也很高,这也能让你更快产生饱腹感。)”” 可知,第四段旨在分析健康进食顺序的作用原理。
【27题详解】
推理判断题。根据原文最后一段 “The hands-on experience may sound tough but it’s not.(这种实操方法听起来可能很难,但其实并不难。)”可知,接下来的段落将会讨论营养进食顺序的具体实践方法。
C
Medical emergencies can happen anywhere, at any time. Having basic first aid knowledge that everyone must have can be the difference between life and death when seconds count. Understanding fundamental emergency response techniques empowers you to provide immediate care while waiting for professional medical help to arrive.
The ability to quickly assess an emergency is the foundation of effective first aid response. Look for signs of severe bleeding, difficulty breathing, unconsciousness (失去知觉), or chest pain, as these symptoms often indicate conditions that require immediate intervention. Training yourself to remain calm under pressure while quickly evaluating the severity of injuries ensures you can provide appropriate care without causing additional harm.
Uncontrolled bleeding represents one of the most common life- threatening emergencies you may encounter.Immediately apply direct pressure to the wound using a clean cloth or bandages to stop most of the bleeding.Elevating the injured area above heart level, when possible, reduces blood flow to the wound and helps control bleeding. Airway obstruction and respiratory block require immediate action to prevent fatal outcomes. The Heimlich maneuver (海姆利克急救法) can remove objects blocking the airway in conscious choking victims when performed correctly. Checking for visible obstructions and performing rescue breathing on unconscious individuals may be necessary.
Developing confidence in emergencies requires practice and preparation. Consider taking certified first aid courses to provide hands-on training. Acquiring some basic first aid knowledge that everyone must have transforms ordinary citizens into potential lifesavers. The skills discussed here represent fundamental techniques that can stabilize victims until advanced medical care becomes available. Remember that your willingness to act,combined with proper training, can be the difference in someone's survival and recovery.
28. What is the significance of first aid knowledge?
A. It can lead to life-threatening danger.
B. It can equip you with professional skills.
C. It can take the place of medical treatment.
D. It can prevent situations from getting worse.
29. Which measure can help control bleeding?
A. Keeping the injured area lower than the heart level.
B. Using the Heimlich maneuver on the bleeding victim.
C. Applying direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth.
D. Ignoring the wound and waiting for professional help directly.
30. What does the underlined word “stabilize” in the last paragraph mean?
A. Cure. B. Injure. C. Interrupt. D. Steady.
31. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Some basic first-aid knowledge. B. Some on-line first aid courses.
C. How to acquire first-aid knowledge. D. How to assess medical emergency
【答案】28. D 29. C 30. D 31. A
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍急救知识的重要性、急救评估方法、止血等急救技巧及相关准备建议。
【28题详解】
推理判断题。根据第一段中的“Having basic first aid knowledge that everyone must have can be the difference between life and death when seconds count. Understanding fundamental emergency response techniques empowers you to provide immediate care while waiting for professional medical help to arrive.(掌握人人必备的基础急救知识,在分秒必争的时刻可能会决定生死。掌握基本的应急响应技巧,能让你在等待专业医疗救助到来时提供即时护理。)”以及最后一段中的“The skills discussed here represent fundamental techniques that can stabilize victims until advanced medical care becomes available.(这里讨论的技能是基本技巧,能够在受害者获得高级医疗护理前让其情况稳定下来。)”可知,急救知识能在专业救助抵达前稳定伤者状况,防止情况恶化。故选D项。
【29题详解】
细节理解题。根据第三段中的“Immediately apply direct pressure to the wound using a clean cloth or bandages to stop most of the bleeding. Elevating the injured area above heart level, when possible, reduces blood flow to the wound and helps control bleeding.(立即用干净的布或绷带直接按压伤口,以止住大部分出血。可能的话,将受伤部位抬高至心脏以上水平,减少流向伤口的血液,帮助止血。)”可知,用干净的布直接按压伤口可以帮助止血。故选C项。
【30题详解】
词句猜测题。根据最后一段中的“The skills discussed here represent fundamental techniques that can stabilize victims until advanced medical care becomes available.(这里讨论的技能是基本技巧,能够在受害者获得高级医疗护理前让其情况stabilize下来。)”可知,急救技巧的作用是在专业救治到来前,让伤者的身体状况不继续恶化,保持稳定。划线词与D选项Steady同义。故选D项。
【31题详解】
主旨大意题。通读全文,第一段点明急救知识的重要性,第二段介绍急救的基础——评估紧急情况,第三段讲解大出血、气道堵塞的具体急救方法,最后一段强调练习和培训的重要性。全文围绕基础急救知识展开。故选A项。
D
A new study shows that excessive (过度的) screen time in children is linked to a higher risk of depression, anxiety and ADHD. Traditionally, youth mental health problems were seen as something difficult to change. However, the study reframes the youth mental health crisis as a largely preventable behavioral issue, linking excessive screen use to a sharp rise in psychological disorders.
Drawing on data from more than 50,000 children aged 6 to 17, the research found that spending four or more hours a day on screens is associated with significantly higher rates of mental health issues. Heavy screen users face a 61% higher risk of depression, 45% for anxiety, 24% for behaviour problems, and 21% for ADHD.
Crucially, the study identifies why this relationship exists. Reduced physical activity and disrupted sleep are the main mediating factors that link screen time to mental health problems. Physical activity alone accounts for up to 39% of the link, while irregular bedtimes contribute nearly 24%, and short sleep duration just over 7%.
“What’s most important is that we now know the main determinants of mental health issues in children,” says Dr. Hannah Nearney, a clinical psychiatrist. “The chances can be significantly reduced with adjustments in behaviors such as physical activity.”
The problem is that these unhealthy habits are already common. Nearly one in three children exceeds healthy screen-time limits. Only one in five meets the recommended 60 minutes of daily physical activity, and just one in four maintains a consistent sleep routine.
Clinicians warn that the crisis extends beyond behavioral risks. Children face limited treatment alternatives and frequently use antidepressants (抗抑郁药物) despite safety concerns. Although non-drug technologies such as tDCS are gaining scientific support, pediatric (儿童专家) agreement remains out of reach.
The study’s implications are clear: correcting children’s day-to-day routines and behaviour in relation to screen use, movement, and sleep need to be brought back to dinner-table conversations.
32. What does the underlined word “reframes” probably mean in paragraph 1?
A. Selects. B. Redefines. C. Recycles. D. Assumes.
33. How does the author present the issue in the second paragraph?
A. By listing causes. B. By using numbers. C. By quoting experts. D. By making comparison.
34. What can we learn from the relationship between physical activity and screen time?
A. More screen use improves high sleep quality.
B. More screen time leads to more extra exercise.
C. More exercise makes screen time more meaningful.
D. More physical activity contributes to a healthy lifestyle.
35. What does the study suggest as a solution to the crisis?
A. Using more antidepressants for children.
B. Waiting for pediatric agreement of tDCS.
C. Increasing screen time to ease mental pressure.
D. Changing children’s daily routines and behaviors.
【答案】32. B 33. B 34. D 35. D
【解析】
【导语】文章主要讲述了一项新研究表明儿童过度使用屏幕与心理问题风险上升有关,且提出了解决办法。
【32题详解】
词句猜测题。根据第一段中“Traditionally, youth mental health problems were seen as something difficult to change. However, the study reframes the youth mental health crisis as a largely preventable behavioral issue, linking excessive screen use to a sharp rise in psychological disorders.(传统上,青少年心理健康问题被认为是一种难以改变的问题。然而,这项研究reframes青少年心理健康危机在很大程度上是一种可预防的行为问题,将过度使用屏幕与心理障碍的急剧上升联系起来。)”可知,这项研究重新定义青少年心理健康危机在很大程度上是一种可预防的行为这一问题,reframes意思是“重新定义”,与Redefines意思相近。
【33题详解】
推理判断题。根据第二段“Drawing on data from more than 50,000 children aged 6 to 17, the research found that spending four or more hours a day on screens is associated with significantly higher rates of mental health issues. Heavy screen users face a 61% higher risk of depression, 45% for anxiety, 24% for behaviour problems, and 21% for ADHD.(该研究利用了5万多名6至17岁儿童的数据,发现每天花在屏幕上的时间达到或超过4小时与心理健康问题的高发病率显著相关。重度屏幕使用者患抑郁症的风险高出61%,焦虑症风险高出45%,行为问题风险高出24%,多动症风险高出21%。)”可知,作者在第二段通过使用数字来呈现问题。
【34题详解】
推理判断题。根据第三段中“Reduced physical activity and disrupted sleep are the main mediating factors that link screen time to mental health problems.(身体活动减少和睡眠中断是将屏幕时间与心理健康问题联系起来的主要中介因素。)”以及第四段中““What’s most important is that we now know the main determinants of mental health issues in children,” says Dr. Hannah Nearney, a clinical psychiatrist. “The chances can be significantly reduced with adjustments in behaviors such as physical activity.”(临床精神病学家Hannah Nearney博士说:“最重要的是,我们现在知道了儿童心理健康问题的主要决定因素。通过调整身体活动等行为,这种几率可以显著降低。”)”可推知,更多的身体活动有助于健康的生活方式。
【35题详解】
细节理解题。根据最后一段“The study’s implications are clear: correcting children’s day-to-day routines and behaviour in relation to screen use, movement, and sleep need to be brought back to dinner-table conversations.(这项研究的含义很明确:纠正儿童与屏幕使用、运动和睡眠相关的日常习惯和行为需要重新回到餐桌对话中。)”可知,这项研究建议通过改变孩子们的日常生活习惯和行为来解决这场危机。
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Mental resilience (韧性) has become a vital skill in today’s fast-paced world. ___36___ Research indicates that individuals with high resilience levels are 35 % more likely to maintain mental health during long-term stress. Let’s explore scientific ally proven methods to strengthen this ability.
The Main Idea Explained
Resilience is not about reducing stress but managing it effectively. Emerging neurobiological evidence sheds light on this positively adaptive process. ___37___ Neuroscientists (神经学家) compare it to muscle training: facing proper challenged regularly improved mental ability to adjust. For instance, A 2023 Harvard study showed that proper stress increased brain thickness in areas related to making decisions.
Physical Activity as a Foundation
Exercise is universally recognized as a key resilience-building tool. During aerobic workouts, the body producers BDNF (脑源性神经营养因子), a protein important for brain development. ___38___ Meanwhile, this chemical process not only improved mood but also strengthens mental abilities. To maximize benefits, experts suggest combining 30 minutes of daily exercise with relaxation methods such as deep breathing.
The Power of Social Bonds
Human beings succeed through meaningful connections. Strong social networks act as psychological safety nets during c rises. ___39___ A Stanford University study over many years found that people with strong social support recovered 50 % faster from emotional difficulties than those who were isolated. Surprisingly, online communication through video calls was 80 % as effective as face-to-face meetings in recent tests.
Methods to Change Negative Thoughts
How we view difficulties shapes our mental resilience. Psychologists suggest changing extreme negative ideas like “I can’t handle this” into positive views such as “This is hard but possible.” 2022 study found that daily gratitude practice lowers stress hormones by 25 % in three weeks. ___40___
A. Therefore, building strong connections should be a key goal.
B. Creative activities like painting unexpectedly better stress tolerance.
C. Workplace culture significantly impacts employees’ stress management.
D. This natural process helps maintain stable emotions and enhanced clear thinking.
E. Moreover, actively noticing small daily successes helps develop positive thinking.
F. This psychological training strengthens the brain’s ability to handle future challengers.
G. It refers to the ability to recover from difficulties while keeping basic operations running.
【答案】36. G 37. F 38. D 39. A 40. E
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文,介绍了在当今快节奏的世界中,心理韧性已成为一项至关重要的技能,并探讨了科学证实的增强心理韧性的方法,包括正确理解韧性、进行体育活动、建立社会联系以及改变消极想法等。
【36题详解】
根据上文“Mental resilience (韧性) has become a vital skill in today’s fast-paced world. (心理韧性在当今快节奏的世界中已成为一项至关重要的技能)”以及下文“Research indicates that individuals with high resilience levels are 35 % more likely to maintain mental health during long-term stress. (研究表明,具有高韧性水平的人在长期压力下保持心理健康的可能性要高出 35%)”可知上文提到了“心理韧性”,下文说的是“心理韧性”的重要性,可推理出空白处需要对“心理韧性”这一概念进行解释说明,与G项“It refers to the ability to recover from difficulties while keeping basic operations running. (它指的是在保持基本功能正常运行的同时从困难中恢复的能力)”表达的含义一致,故选G项。
【37题详解】
根据上文“Resilience is not about reducing stress but managing it effectively. Emerging neurobiological evidence sheds light on this positively adaptive process. (韧性不是减少压力,而是有效地管理压力。新出现的神经生物学证据揭示了这一积极的适应过程)”以及下文“Neuroscientists (神经学家) compare it to muscle training: facing proper challenged regularly improved mental ability to adjust. (神经学家将其比作肌肉训练:定期面对适当的挑战可以提高心理调节能力)”可知,这里阐述的是这种适应过程对大脑能力的积极影响,与F项“This psychological training strengthens the brain’s ability to handle future challengers. (这种心理训练增强了大脑处理未来挑战的能力)”表达的意思一致,故选F项。
【38题详解】
根据上文“During aerobic workouts, the body producers BDNF (脑源性神经营养因子), a protein important for brain development. (在有氧运动中,身体会产生脑源性神经营养因子,这是一种对大脑发育很重要的蛋白质)”以及下文“Meanwhile, this chemical process not only improved mood but also strengthens mental abilities. (同时,这个化学过程不仅改善了情绪,还增强了心理能力)”可知此处提到了产生脑源性神经营养因子这一自然过程,可推理出空白处应是在说产生脑源性神经营养因子这一自然过程对人的积极的作用,与D项“This natural process helps maintain stable emotions and enhanced clear thinking. (这个自然过程有助于保持稳定的情绪并增强清晰的思维)”表达的含义一致,故选D项。
【39题详解】
根据上文“Human beings succeed through meaningful connections. Strong social networks act as psychological safety nets during c rises. (人类通过有意义的联系取得成功。强大的社交网络在危机期间充当心理安全网。)”以及下文“A Stanford University study over many years found that people with strong social support recovered 50 % faster from emotional difficulties than those who were isolated. (斯坦福大学多年的一项研究发现,有强大社会支持的人比那些孤立无援的人从情感困难中恢复的速度要快50%)”可知有强大社会支持的人比那些孤立无援的人从情感困难中恢复的速度要快50%,可推理出此处应是在强调建立强大联系的重要性,与A项“Therefore, building strong connections should be a key goal. (因此,建立强大的联系应该是一个关键目标)”表达的意思一致,故选A项。
【40题详解】
根据上文“Psychologists suggest changing extreme negative ideas like “I can’t handle this” into positive views such as “This is hard but possible.” 2022 study found that daily gratitude practice lowers stress hormones by 25 % in three weeks (心理学家建议将“我无法处理这个问题”等极端消极想法转变为“这很难但有可能”等积极观点。2022年的一项研究发现,每天进行感恩练习可以在三周内将压力荷尔蒙降低 25%)”可知,此处应是在进一步说明培养积极思维的方法,与E项“Moreover, actively noticing small daily successes helps develop positive thinking. (此外,积极关注日常的小成功有助于培养积极的思维)”表达的含义一致,且“Moreover”进一步递进,符合语境,故选E项。
第三部分:语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节:完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Coming from Villa Tesei, one of the neighborhoods in the greater urban region of Buenos Aires, Argentina, muralist (壁画家) Fio Silva adds fantastic effects of brilliant colors and movements to the walls that she touches. Much of her inspiration comes from ____41____.
As Silva explains, “I think the idea that ____42____ me the most is that of movement and strength. I like painting animals, especially birds, in a creative way. I ____43____ to make something that attracts ____44____ not only for its colors or size. It is also something that can ‘be ____45____’, and tells you something.”
Silva says that she ____46____ her job almost by chance. “I began painting murals because a friend ____47____ me some spray cans (喷漆罐) for my birthday. And with that, I went to paint on the street for the first time, totally out of ____48____. People in my neighborhood ____49____ gave up their walls to let me paint and there I fell in love with painting in the ____50____ space.”
Silva is particularly careful with the ____51____ that she chooses to include in an artwork, as certain colors will ____52____ what she wants to express, producing a power that can ____53____ the viewers from the city surroundings into the natural world ____54____ by her.
Beautiful art that brightens cities is the public good, and it’s ____55____ to see artists passionately believing in this idea and actively working to make it a reality.
41. A. science B. nature C. fashion D. life
42. A. moves B. worries C. frightens D. inspires
43. A. attempt B. offer C. demand D. continue
44. A. talent B. respect C. attention D. wealth
45. A. read B. bought C. found D. measured
46. A. talked about B. took up C. applied for D. held down
47. A. lent B. passed C. sold D. gave
48. A. necessity B. duty C. curiosity D. satisfaction
49. A. warmly B. hopelessly C. officially D. tiredly
50. A. narrow B. green C. public D. digital
51. A. plants B. lines C. animals D. colors
52. A. predict B. strengthen C. challenge D. prevent
53. A. transport B. change C. make D. translate
54. A. visited B. remembered C. created D. recommended
55. A. surprising B. exciting C. discouraging D. disappointing
【答案】41. B 42. D 43. A 44. C 45. A 46. B 47. D 48. C 49. A 50. C 51. D 52. B 53. A 54. C 55. B
【解析】
【导语】这是一篇记叙文。主要讲述了阿根廷壁画家席尔瓦受自然启发创作壁画,她偶然走上街头绘画之路,注重用色彩传递力量,将观众带入自然,其艺术点亮城市,令人振奋。
【41题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:她的大部分灵感来自自然。A. science科学;B. nature自然;C. fashion时尚;D. life生活。结合后文“I like painting animals, especially birds, in a creative way.”可知,她喜欢画动物,尤其是鸟类,说明灵感源于自然。故选B。
【42题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:正如席尔瓦所解释的那样:“我认为对我影响最大的理念是关于运动与力量的这一理念。”A. moves移动;B. worries担心;C. frightens使害怕;D. inspires激励。前文“Much of her inspiration”讲创作灵感,以及下文“the most is that of movement and strength”可知,此处指理念带来启发。故选D。
【43题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:我试图创作出一些作品,它们之所以能吸引人们的注意,并非仅仅是因为其颜色或大小。A. attempt试图;B. offer提供;C. demand要求;D. continue继续。根据后文“to make something that attracts”可知,她试图创作出一些作品,attempt to do为固定搭配,意为“试图做某事”,契合创作语境。故选A。
【44题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:我试图创作出一些作品,它们之所以能吸引人们的注意,并非仅仅是因为其颜色或大小。A. talent天赋;B. respect尊重;C. attention注意力;D. wealth财富。根据后文“not only for its colors or size”可知,此处指作品能吸引人们的注意,并非仅仅是因为其颜色或大小。attract attention为固定搭配,意为“吸引注意力”,符合文意。故选C。
【45题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:这也是一种可以“被解读”的内容,它能向你传递某些信息。A. read阅读,理解;B. bought购买;C. found发现;D. measured测量。根据后文“and tells you something”可知,作品传递思想,可被观众理解读懂,符合语境。故选A。
【46题详解】
考查动词短语辨析。句意:席拉说,她从事这份工作完全是出于偶然。A. talked about谈论;B. took up开始从事;C. applied for申请;D. held down压制。根据后文“her job almost by chance”和后文“I went to paint on the street for the first time, totally out of”作者偶然接触壁画的经历,此处指开始这份职业。故选B。
【47题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:我开始画壁画是因为一位朋友在我生日时送了我一些喷漆罐。A. lent借出;B. passed传递;C. sold售卖;D. gave赠送。根据后文“me some spray cans for my birthday”可知,表明是生日礼物,因此是赠送。故选D。
【48题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:就这样,我第一次走上街头画画,完全是出于好奇的缘故。A. necessity必要;B. duty责任;C. curiosity好奇;D. satisfaction满意。根据上文“And with that, I went to paint on the street for the first time, totally out of”可知,第一次走上街头画画,完全是出于好奇的缘故。out of curiosity为固定搭配,意为“出于好奇”,契合偶然尝试的语境。故选C。
【49题详解】
考查副词词义辨析。句意:“我所在社区的居民们纷纷敞开把自己的墙让出来,让我在他们的院子里作画,就这样,我开始在公共空间里爱上绘画了。”A. warmly热情地;B. hopelessly绝望地;C. officially正式地;D. tiredly疲惫地。根据后文“I fell in love with painting”可知,她爱上街头绘画,说明邻居十分友好热心。故选A。
【50题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意:“我所在社区的居民们纷纷把自己的墙让出来,让我在他们的院子里作画,就这样,我开始在公共空间里爱上绘画了。”A. narrow狭窄的;B. green绿色的;C. public公共的;D. digital数字的。根据上文“gave up their walls to let me paint”可知,街头墙壁属于公共空间,与后文公共艺术相呼应。故选C。
【51题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:席拉在选择作品中的色彩时尤为谨慎,因为某些特定的色彩能够强化她想要表达的内容,从而产生一种力量,能够将观众从城市环境带入她所创造的自然世界之中。A. plants植物;B. lines线条;C. animals动物;D. colors色彩。后文“as certain colors”明确提及色彩,与此处对应,此处指席拉在选择作品中的色彩时尤为谨慎。故选D。
【52题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:席拉在选择作品中的色彩时尤为谨慎,因为某些特定的色彩能够强化她想要表达的内容,从而产生一种力量,能够将观众从城市环境带入她所创造的自然世界之中。A. predict预测;B. strengthen加强;C. challenge挑战;D. prevent阻止。根据后文“what she wants to express”可知,色彩能增强表达效果,传递更强的力量。故选B。
【53题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:席拉在选择作品中的色彩时尤为谨慎,因为某些特定的色彩能够强化她想要表达的内容,从而产生一种力量,能够将观众从城市环境带入她所创造的自然世界之中。A. transport运送、使身临其境;B. change改变;C. make制作;D. translate翻译。根据后文“the viewers from the city surroundings into the natural world”可知,色彩将观众从城市环境带入她所创造的自然世界之中。transport sb. from... into...意为把某人从……带入……,符合艺术感染力的语境。故选A。
【54题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:席拉在选择作品中的色彩时尤为谨慎,因为某些特定的色彩能够强化她想要表达的内容,从而产生一种力量,能够将观众从城市环境带入她所创造的自然世界之中。A. visited参观;B. remembered记得;C. created创造;D. recommended推荐。根据上文“the natural world”可知,壁画中的自然世界是艺术家创作出来的。故选C。
【55题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意:那些能为城市增添光彩的精美艺术作品属于公共福祉,看到艺术家们满怀热情地坚信这一理念,并积极努力将其变为现实,着实令人振奋。A. surprising令人惊讶的;B. exciting令人激动的;C. discouraging令人沮丧的;D. disappointing令人失望的。根据后文“to see artists passionately believing in this idea and actively working to make it a reality”可知,艺术家积极美化城市是一件让人感到振奋的事。故选B。
第二节:语法填空(10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
If you’re wondering why Taylor Swift didn’t respond to your social media post offering congratulations on her engagement, then Cambridge Dictionary has a word for you: parasocial. ____56____ (define) as involving or relating to a connection that someone feels between themselves and a famous person they do not know, parasocial has been chosen by the dictionary as ____57____ (it) word of the year, as people turn ____58____ chatbots and celebrities to feel connection in their online lives. The term first ____59____ (emerge) in 1956 when University of Chicago sociologists observed TV viewers engaging in parasocial relationships with onscreen personalities, mirroring their bonds with family and ____60____ (friend) — except this was a one-way attachment. Opportunities for asymmetrical (不对称) relationships ____61____ (mushroom) in the internet era over the past few years, with social media and now artificial intelligence ____62____ (take) a niche (小众的) academic term into the mainstream. “Parasocial captures the 2025zeitgeist (时代精神),” said Colin McIntosh, a Cambridge Dictionary editor. Millions of people are engaged in parasocial relationships; many more are ____63____ (simple) interested in their rise. Simone Schnall, professor of ____64____ (experiment) social psychology at the University of Cambridge, said parasocial relationships have redefined fandom, celebrity and how ordinary people interact online with AI. People have relied on influencers as trust in mainstream and traditional media breaks down, _____65_____ can lead to unhealthy and intense relationships with social media stars.
【答案】56. Defined
57. its 58. to
59. emerged
60. friends
61. have mushroomed
62. taking 63. simply
64. experimental
65. which
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇新闻报道。文章主要讲述了“parasocial(拟社会关系)”一词被剑桥词典选为年度词汇。
【56题详解】
考查非谓语动词。句意:其定义为涉及或与某人与一个他们不认识的名人之间建立的联系有关。《剑桥词典》将“parasocial”选为其年度词汇,因为人们在自己的网络生活中会求助于聊天机器人和名人来寻求联系感。句中谓语是has been chosen,空格处用非谓语动词,parasocial和define之间是逻辑动宾关系,因此用过去分词表被动,作状语,位于句首,首字母大写,故填Defined。
【57题详解】
考查物主代词。句意:其定义为涉及或与某人与一个他们不认识的名人之间建立的联系有关。《剑桥词典》将“parasocial”选为其年度词汇,因为人们在自己的网络生活中会求助于聊天机器人和名人来寻求联系感。it和word之间是所属关系,因此用物主代词its修饰word,故填its。
【58题详解】
考查介词。句意:其定义为涉及或与某人与一个他们不认识的名人之间建立的联系有关。《剑桥词典》将“parasocial”选为其年度词汇,因为人们在自己的网络生活中会求助于聊天机器人和名人来寻求联系感。turn to是固定短语,意为“求助于”,to是介词,故填to。
【59题详解】
考查时态。句意:这个术语最早于1956年出现,当时芝加哥大学的社会学家观察到电视观众与屏幕上的人物建立起了拟社会关系,这种关系与他们与家人和朋友之间的关系相似——只不过这是一种单向的依恋。由in 1956可知,句子时态是一般过去时,空格处用过去式,故填emerged。
【60题详解】
考查名词复数。句意:这个术语最早于1956年出现,当时芝加哥大学的社会学家观察到电视观众与屏幕上的人物建立起了拟社会关系,这种关系与他们与家人和朋友之间的关系相似——只不过这是一种单向的依恋。friend是可数名词,不止一个,因此用复数,故填friends。
【61题详解】
考查时态和主谓一致。句意:在过去几年的互联网时代,不对称关系的机会大幅增加,社交媒体和如今的人工智能将这个学术术语带入了大众视野。由over the past few years可知,句子时态用现在完成时,主语Opportunities是复数,因此空格处是have mushroomed,故填have mushroomed。
【62题详解】
考查非谓语动词。句意:在过去几年的互联网时代,不对称关系的机会大幅增加,社交媒体和如今的人工智能将这个学术术语带入了大众视野。此处是with复合结构,social media and now artificial intelligence和take之间是主谓关系,因此用现在分词表主动,作宾语补足语,故填taking。
【63题详解】
考查副词。句意:数以百万计的人处于这种拟社会关系之中;还有更多的人只是对它的兴起感兴趣。空格处用副词simply修饰形容词interested,simply意为“仅仅,只是”,故填simply。
【64题详解】
考查形容词。句意:剑桥大学实验社会心理学教授西蒙娜·施纳尔表示,拟社会关系模式已经重新定义了粉丝文化、名人形象以及普通人在线与人工智能进行互动的方式。空格处用形容词作定语,修饰social psychology,experiment的形容词是experimental,意为“实验的”,故填experimental。
【65题详解】
考查定语从句。句意:由于对主流和传统媒体的信任度下降,人们开始依赖网红,这可能导致与社交媒体明星之间形成不健康且强烈的关系。空格处引导的是非限制性定语从句,从句中缺少主语,主语是前面整个主句的内容,因此用关系代词which引导定语从句,故填which。
第四部分:写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节:应用文(满分15分)
66. 假定你是校英语社社长李华,原定于下周举行的英语演讲比赛因故推迟,请给担任评委的外教Mr. Smith写一封邮件,内容包括:
1. 表示歉意;2. 推迟原因及后续调整。
注意:1. 写作词数应为80个左右;2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Mr Smith,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes,
Li Hua
【答案】One possible version:
Dear Mr Smith,
I am Li Hua, president of the English Club. I regret to inform you that the English Speech Contest, for which you kindly agreed to serve as a judge, has been postponed. We sincerely apologize for any inconvenience this may cause.
This adjustment is necessary due to unexpected academic inspections, which conflict with our original plan. We are now planning to reschedule it to the following week and will inform you of the new date by the end of this week.
Thank you for your understanding and continued support. We look forward to welcoming you at the rescheduled contest.
Best wishes,
Li Hua
【解析】
【导语】本篇书面表达属于应用文。题目要求学生以校英语社社长李华的身份,给担任英语演讲比赛评委的外教Mr. Smith写一封邮件,首先对比赛推迟表示歉意,再解释推迟原因,并告知后续调整。
【详解】1. 词汇积累
延迟:postpone→defer, delay, put back, put off
导致:cause→induce, prompt
意料之外的:unexpected→unforeseen, unanticipated
与……有冲突:conflict with→clash with
2. 句式拓展
同义句转换
原句:We sincerely apologize for any inconvenience this may cause.
拓展句:We sincerely apologize for any inconvenience caused by this.
【点睛】[高分句型1] I regret to inform you that the English Speech Contest, for which you kindly agreed to serve as a judge, has been postponed. (运用了that引导宾语从句、for which引导非限制性定语从句)
[高分句型2] This adjustment is necessary due to unexpected academic inspections, which conflict with our original plan. (运用了which引导非限制性定语从句)
第二节:读后续写(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Half a year ago, fat and lazy, I was in low spirits. During a free and easy gathering, as I struggled to button my over-sized T-shirt, my friends made fun of me, their sharp remarks about my “jiggling belly” and “elephant-like posture” cutting through the air like knives, though they said it was harmless joking. My face burned hotter than the sun as their imitations (模仿) of my walk drew attention from strangers, turning what should have been a joyful reunion into an embarrassment (尴尬) that is still fresh in my memory.
Looking at the figure in the mirror, I realized myself out of shape, no wonder they were making fun of me! “I have to lose weight and keep fit,” I promised to myself, “no matter what.”
Act on it! The next morning, I equipped myself with sports clothes and went out into the park, starting running. Yet everything was quite different from what I had imagined. Half an hour seemed so long and the path seemed endless. In a short while, I was out of breath, sweat down my face, legs aching. I stopped to take a breath, full of doubts on my decision.
I was at the point of giving up when my neighbor, Jean, came into view, who was walking her dog in the park. “Hi, Adam. Are you free recently?” “Yes, a bit.” I answered. “Would you mind walking Amy, my little Pomeranian, every morning for one week when I am out on business?” “Walking a dog is a good workout, much easier than running.” I thought to myself. “My pleasure” was my reply.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150个左右;
2.请按照如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
However, the first morning of my walking duties was bitter cold.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The seven-day duty turned me into a morning workout person.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】One possible version:
However, the first morning of my walking duties was bitter cold. The wind bit my face like needles, and my body urged me to return to the warm bed. I pulled up my collar and stepped forward, shivering all the way. Amy, however, trotted joyfully ahead, tugging the leash with excitement. I had to quicken my pace to keep up with her, which gradually warmed my body. With each passing day, the chill seemed less harsh, and I found myself looking forward to the fresh air and rhythmic pace of our walk. What began as a favor turned into a challenge I didn’t want to give up.
The seven-day duty turned me into a morning workout person. By the end of the week, I felt lighter, more energetic. My breathing improved, and my legs no longer ached after each walk. Encouraged by this change, I returned to running, but now with greater confidence and persistence. What started with walking a dog became the turning point in my journey toward fitness. I not only lost weight but also gained self-respect. Now, when I pass a mirror, I smile at the reflection — healthier, stronger, and full of life.
【解析】
【导语】本文以作者因肥胖遭朋友调侃为线索,讲述了作者决心减肥却在跑步时险些放弃,机缘巧合帮邻居遛狗一周,最终养成晨练习惯、实现自我蜕变的故事。
【详解】1. 段落续写:
①由第一段首句内容“然而,我开始遛狗的第一个早晨,天气寒冷刺骨。”可知,第一段可描写恶劣天气下作者的心理挣扎,以及在遛狗过程中被小狗的活力感染,逐渐适应并坚持晨练的过程。
②由第二段首句内容“这七天的遛狗任务让我变成了一个坚持晨练的人。”可知,第二段可描写一周后作者身体和心态的积极变化,进而重拾跑步并收获自信,最终实现减重与自我认同的感悟。
2. 续写线索:寒冷清晨的挣扎——小狗的活力带动——适应并坚持遛狗——身体机能改善——重拾跑步——蜕变与自信
3. 词汇激活
行为类:
①加快步伐:quicken one’s pace/hurry up/pick up speed
②坚持:persist in/stick to/keep up
③感染:infect/inspire/motivate
情绪类:
①快乐地:joyfully /with delight
②精力充沛:energetic/ full of energy/ vigorous
【点睛】【高分句型1】Amy, however, trotted joyfully ahead, tugging the leash with excitement.(运用了现在分词短语作状语)
【高分句型2】I had to quicken my pace to keep up with her, which gradually warmed my body. (运用了which引导的非限制性性定语从句)
【高分句型3】What began as a favor turned into a challenge I didn’t want to give up.(运用了what引导的主语从句以及省略关系代词的定语从句修饰challenge)
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$听力考试正式开始。Any ideas for our one day tour in nanjing tomorrow? I'd love to go to the host shine forest zoo and the nanjing museum. How about a short walk in the sean who lake park? After visiting the zoo, the museum requires booking at least . two days in advance. Okay. any ideas for our one day tour in nanjing tomorrow? I'd love to go to the home shine forest zoo and the nanjing museum? How about a short walk in the san u. Lake park? After visiting the zoo, the museum requires booking at least two days in advance. okay? Listen to the next question. What do you think of america, john? The people there, a lovely, the scenery is beautiful, the air in the countryside is fresh, and above all, the modern buildings are most impressive. Listen to the . next question. What shall we do next? Why don't we go for a picnic at hide park first? Then we can go to the london eye later. Why not? IT will be great to see the city from up high in the evening. What shall we do next? Why don't we go for a picnic at hide park? Then we can go to the london eye later. Why not? IT will be great to see the city from up high in the evening. Listen to the next question. Are you interested in traveling? Yes, but I haven't got much from running the coffee shop. How about you? I visited many places. I worked for magazines and newspapers, providing photos for them. That sounds really wonderful. Are you interested in traveling? Yes, but I haven't got much from running the coffee shop. How about you? I visited many places. I worked for magazines and newspapers, providing photos for them. That sounds really wonderful. Listen to the next question. This all inclusive package to bali looks incredible. Seven days for only a hundred dollars. That seems too good to be true. Well, read the fine print. That base Price is for the budget, which has pretty mixed reviews to stay at the well rated beach front resort, shown in the pictures. It's an extra three hundred dollars per person and the flights are at terrible hours. Ah I see. So the from eight hundred dollars is just the starting point. Listen to the next question. What is that strange smell? Did you take the . trash out? yeah. Oh, IT is the gas. I'll open the windows and let fresh air come in. Can you turn off the gas? But I looked everywhere. There is no gas league than IT must come from mr. thomsons. mr. Thomson went to australia for sighting. Did he return? He came home a quarter of an hour earlier than you. When you got back home, the local just struck six. Its six thirty P. M. Now hurry up. Let's knock on his door. We need to grab wet holes and cover our noses in case of an accident. What is that strange smell? Did you take the trash out? yeah. Oh, IT is the gas. I'll open the windows and let fresh air come in. Can you turn off the gas? But I looked everywhere. There's no gas league than IT must come from mr. thomsons. mr. Thomson went to australia for sighting. Did he return? He came home a quarter of an hour earlier than you. When you got back home, the local just struck six, its six thirty P. M. Now hurry up. Let's knock on his door. We need to grab wet tiles and cover our noses in case of an accident. Listen to the next question. That new sleep tracker you recommended is fascinating and slightly terrifying. how? So the data has been eye opening for me. According to this, for eighty eight percent of the time, I don't get into deep sleep. What's your sleep efficiency? Eighty five percent last night, but IT ranges from seventy percent to ninety percent. Honestly, knowing this might be making my sleep problem worse. Well, we monitor sleep to improve IT, but the monitoring causes stress exactly. Maybe ignorance makes IT easier. Try using IT just weekly for sleep patterns, like your average sleeping. that new sleep tracker you recommended is fascinating and slightly . terrifying. The data been eye opening for me. According to this, for eighty eight percent of the time, I don't get into deep sleep. What's your sleep efficiency? Eighty five percent last night. But IT ranges from seventy percent to ninety percent. Honestly, knowing this might be making my sleep problem worse. Well, we monitor sleep to improve IT, but the monitoring causes stress exactly. Maybe ignorance makes IT easier. Try using IT just weekly for sleep patterns like your average sleeping. Listen to the next question. Hi, Susan. How are you doing? You aren't looking very well. Oh, i'm feeling terrible. I've got a temperature and a really bad headache. IT seems i'm even too weak to walk. Oh, i'm sorry to hear that. Why don't you take some medicine? I've tried that. Thank you, bob. You are looking very good. Yeah, I joined a health club to keep in shape. Do you exercise every day? Yes, i've been running for over four months. At first, I ached all over after running, but IT went away a few days later. Oh, how wonderful. People can't keep fit without exercising. I really should follow your example. yeah. But what is the most important to you is that you'd Better not stop exercising. Hi, Susan, how are you doing? You aren't looking very well. Oh. i'm feeling terrible. I've got a temperature and a really bad headache. IT seems i'm even too weak to walk. Oh, i'm sorry to hear that. Why don't you take some medicine? I've tried that. Thank you, bob. You are looking very good. Yeah, I joined a health club to keep in shape. Do you exercise every day? Yes, i've been running for over four months. At first, I egged all over after running, but IT went away a few days later. Oh, how wonderful. People can't keep fit without exercising. I really should follow your example. yeah. But what is the most important to you is that you'd Better not stop exercising. Listen to the next question. Hello everyone, i'm glad to be here with you to talk about your children's eyesight. A recent survey says that in america, about forty percent of adults are short sited, up from twenty five percent in nineteen nineteen seventy one. Rates have similarly soured in other countries. If current trends continue, half the world's population will be short cited by two thousand and fifty. What explains this global eyesight crisis? According to scientists, while a family history of near sightless raises the risk of a child developing IT, a purely genetic case of nearsightedness is rare. Instead, lifestyle factors are thought to be more significant, especially a lack of time outdoors. From two thousand and fifteen to two thousand nineteen, the highest nearside in this rate measured among six year old children was five point seven percent in june two thousand twenty, after five months of locked down, the rate shot up to twenty one point five percent. To make matters worse, children are becoming near sited at a Younger age. It'll take some time to spot the problem and corrected, but the most important thing is that we should help the children keep away from near sighted ess in advance. How the following methods you can take into consideration in your daily life. Hello everyone, i'm glad to be here with you to talk about your children's eyesight. A recent survey says that in america, about forty percent of adults are short sited, up from twenty five percent in nineteen nineteen seventy one rates have similarly soured. In other countries, if current trends continue, half the world's population will be short cited by two thousand fifty. What explains this global eyesight crisis? According to scientists, while a family history of near sightless raises the risk of a child developing IT, a purely genetic case of nearsighted ss is rare. Instead, lifestyle factors are thought to be more significant, especially a lack of time outdoors. From two thousand and fifteen to two thousand nine, the highest nearside ted in this rate measured among six year old children was five point seven percent. In june two thousand and twenty, after five months of look down, the rate shot up to twenty one point five percent. To make matters worse, children are becoming near sited at a Younger age. It'll take some time to spot the problem and corrected, but the most important thing is that we should help the children keep away from near sightedness in advance how the following methods you can take into consideration in your daily life. Listen to the next question morning. everyone. I'd like to share with you about my understanding of happiness and health guys. Just imagine what would happen if we could study people from the time that they were Young all the way into old age to see what really keeps them happy and healthy. We did that. The harvard study of adult development, maybe the longest study of adult life that's ever been done for seventy five years. We've studied the lives of seven hundred twenty four men since nineteen thirty eight, year after year, asking about their work, their homes, lives and their health. The clearest message that we got from this seventy five years study is this, good relationships keep us happier and healthier social connections are really good for us. IT turns out that people who are more socially connected to family, to friends and community are happier. They're physically healthier, and they live longer than people who are less well connected, and the experience of loneliness turns out to be harmful. People who are more separated than they want to be from others find that they are less happy. Their help falls earlier in midlife morning, everyone, i'd like to share with you about my understanding of happiness and health. guys. Just imagine what would happen if we could study people from the time that they were Young all the way into old age to see what really keeps them happy and healthy. We did that. The harvard study of adult development, maybe the longest study of adult life that's ever been done for seventy five years. We've studied the lives of seven hundred twenty four men since nineteen thirty eight, year after year, asking about their work, their homes, lives and their health. The clearest message that we got from this seventy five years study is this, good relationships keep us happier and healthier. Social connections are really good for us. IT turns out that people who are more socially connected to family, to friends and to community are happier. They're physically healthier, and they live longer than people who are less well connected. And the experience of loney ss turns out to be harmful. People who are more separated than they want to be from others find that they are less happy. Their help falls earlier in midlife. 听力部分到此结束。
舟山市五校联盟2025学年第二学期高二年级期中调研英语学科试题卷
考生须知:
1.本试题卷共11页,满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,在答题卷指定区域填写班级、姓名、考场号、座位号及准考证号。
3.所有答案必须写在答题卷上,写在试卷上无效。
4.考试结束后,只需上交答题卷。
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Which place do the speakers give up visiting?
A. Nanjing Museum. B. Xuanwu Lake Park. C. Hongshan Forest Zoo.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Which of the following about America impresses the man most?
A. The people. B. The scenery. C. The modern buildings.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What are the speakers talking about?
A. A city. B. A travel plan. C. A picnic.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What is the man probably?
A. A tour guide. B. A photographer. C. A shop owner.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What does the woman imply about the travel package?
A. The advertised price is misleading.
B. The itinerary is too rushed.
C. The hotel ratings are inaccurate.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. A couple. B. Neighbors. C. Colleagues.
7. When did Mr. Thompson arrive home today?
A. At 6:30 p.m. B. At 6:15 p.m. C. At 5:45 p.m.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. What does the man think of the sleep tracker?
A. It is amazing. B. It is useless. C. It is unscientific.
9. What was the woman’s average sleep efficiency last night?
A. 70%. B. 85%. C. 90%.
10. What does the man suggest the woman do?
A. Ignore the statistics. B. Stop using the tracker. C. Just check sleep patterns.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
11. What is the matter with the woman?
A. She was injured while walking. B. She took the wrong medicine. C. She has got a fever.
12. What does the man do to keep healthy?
A. He takes exercise every day. B. He works in a health club. C. He walks to work.
13. According to the man, what is the most important to the woman?
A. Joining a health club at once. B. Keeping on doing exercise. C. Having a good rest.
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
14. Who is the speaker talking to?
A. Parents. B. Scientists. C. Students.
15. What percentage of people are likely to be short-sighted by 2050?
A. 25%. B. 40%. C. 50%.
16. What is the key factor in nearsightedness according to some scientists?
A. Gene. B. Lifestyle. C. Wrong glasses.
17. What will the speaker talk about next?
A. How to conduct a survey.
B. How to prevent nearsightedness.
C. How to find out nearsightedness early.
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
18. How is the Harvard Study of Adult Development done?
A. By studying happy students at young ages.
B. By researching people from young to old.
C. By interviewing 724 adults one by one.
19. Which best describes those who are healthier and happier?
A. Dynamic. B. Emotional. C. Sociable.
20. What message does the speech aim to convey?
A. Health is the most important of all.
B. People with good habits enjoy long life.
C. A sense of community leads to a good life.
第二部分:阅读理解(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
The City of Burlington public art program is presenting a series of temporary public art signs at the Beachway in conjunction with the Ontario Culture Days. This project will select 10 visual artists and 10 writers to create artwork that will be displayed on temporary signs along the multi-use path. This call is open to Burlington-based artists and is open to all art forms that can be presented in a sign format. This includes, but is not limited to: visual art, graphic art, photography, poetry, short story, non-fiction, etc. Submissions may be from existing or newly created work.
The artist fee for this project is $400. The City of Burlington will pay for all costs related to the production, installation (安装) and maintenance of the signs.
Estimated Project Timeline
August 2
Call for Artists responses due
By August 12
Successful artists selected; enter into a contract with the City of Burlington
September 6
Final artwork files due
September 23 — October 13
Artwork displayed for duration of Culture Days celebration
Application Package
Artwork Statement: Please provide a brief statement (maximum 150 words) outlining your artwork concept.
Artwork or Writing Submission:
•Visual Art Submission: Please submit an artwork sketch (草图) of your concept. This can be a work in progress rather than a completed piece. If you are proposing to use a completed artwork, please submit it as your “sketch”.
•Writing Submission: Submissions must be a maximum of 250 words. It may be a stand-alone piece such as a poem or short story or a part taken from a larger piece.
Artist Biography: Please provide a short introduction (maximum 50 words) to the artist written in the third person.
21. What is the purpose of this text?
A. To raise money for local artists. B. To release a collection of artwork.
C. To introduce a cultural festival. D. To call for artworks for a project.
22. How long will the public art signs be on display?
A. Ten days. B. Three weeks. C. One month. D. Two months.
23. Which of the following meets the application requirements?
A. A 150-word poem. B. A 100-word self-introduction.
C. A 300-word story. D. A 200-word artwork statement.
B
As the saying goes, timing is everything — and that may be true when it comes to eating as much as anything else in life. If you want to feel and function at your best, the timing of your food choices could play a vital role.
Nutrient sequencing isn’t a new concept. This approach is literally about the order in which you eat foods to minimize blood sugar increases and enhance fullness. It’s a very actionable approach and it’s not restrictive. It’s not telling you what to eat. It’s just focused on the order in which you eat foods.
A study in a 2022 issue of the journal Nutrients found that when people with type 2 diabetes (糖尿病) adopted a habit of eating vegetables before carbohydrates (碳水化合物), as recommended by dietitians, they had a significant improvement in their blood sugar control, specifically their hemoglobin (血红蛋白) A1C levels after five years. Another study in a 2024 issue of BMC Nutrition found older adults with diabetes who made a habit of eating vegetables first had greater functionality — meaning a greater ease in their intellectual activities and social abilities.
By eating vegetables and fruits first, you’ll slow down how quickly you eat because these foods require chewing. This is helpful because “it takes about 15 to 20 minutes for your brain to notice you’ve had enough,” Ayoob says, adding that this way, you’ll fill up on lower-calorie foods and “won’t have as much desire for the other calories we tend to overeat”. It can also help fill you up faster because they have much water content, besides fiber.
“Nutrient sequencing is beneficial because it keeps you thinking about what you’re eating and gets you into the mindset of self-monitoring. The hands-on experience may sound tough but it’s not.” says Lawrence Cheskin, an expert on food studies.
24. What is the focus of nutrient sequencing?
A. To balance different nutrients.
B. To choose eating time wisely.
C. To control blood sugar levels.
D. To follow the order of food intake.
25. What can we learn about type 2 diabetes patients in the 2022 study?
A. Their A1C levels rose.
B. They needed to go on a diet.
C. Their social abilities improved.
D. Their conditions got better after treatment.
26. What is the purpose of paragraph 4?
A. It gives tips on chewing habits.
B. It reveals training ways to select foods.
C. It analyses advantages of low-calorie foods.
D. It tells working principles of a healthy eating.
27. What will be discussed about nutrient sequencing in the following paragraphs?
A. Its practice. B. Its function. C. Its definition. D. Its complexity.
C
Medical emergencies can happen anywhere, at any time. Having basic first aid knowledge that everyone must have can be the difference between life and death when seconds count. Understanding fundamental emergency response techniques empowers you to provide immediate care while waiting for professional medical help to arrive.
The ability to quickly assess an emergency is the foundation of effective first aid response. Look for signs of severe bleeding, difficulty breathing, unconsciousness (失去知觉), or chest pain, as these symptoms often indicate conditions that require immediate intervention. Training yourself to remain calm under pressure while quickly evaluating the severity of injuries ensures you can provide appropriate care without causing additional harm.
Uncontrolled bleeding represents one of the most common life- threatening emergencies you may encounter.Immediately apply direct pressure to the wound using a clean cloth or bandages to stop most of the bleeding.Elevating the injured area above heart level, when possible, reduces blood flow to the wound and helps control bleeding. Airway obstruction and respiratory block require immediate action to prevent fatal outcomes. The Heimlich maneuver (海姆利克急救法) can remove objects blocking the airway in conscious choking victims when performed correctly. Checking for visible obstructions and performing rescue breathing on unconscious individuals may be necessary.
Developing confidence in emergencies requires practice and preparation. Consider taking certified first aid courses to provide hands-on training. Acquiring some basic first aid knowledge that everyone must have transforms ordinary citizens into potential lifesavers. The skills discussed here represent fundamental techniques that can stabilize victims until advanced medical care becomes available. Remember that your willingness to act,combined with proper training, can be the difference in someone's survival and recovery.
28. What is the significance of first aid knowledge?
A. It can lead to life-threatening danger.
B. It can equip you with professional skills.
C. It can take the place of medical treatment.
D. It can prevent situations from getting worse.
29. Which measure can help control bleeding?
A. Keeping the injured area lower than the heart level.
B. Using the Heimlich maneuver on the bleeding victim.
C. Applying direct pressure to the wound with a clean cloth.
D. Ignoring the wound and waiting for professional help directly.
30. What does the underlined word “stabilize” in the last paragraph mean?
A. Cure. B. Injure. C. Interrupt. D. Steady.
31. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Some basic first-aid knowledge. B. Some on-line first aid courses.
C. How to acquire first-aid knowledge. D. How to assess medical emergency
D
A new study shows that excessive (过度的) screen time in children is linked to a higher risk of depression, anxiety and ADHD. Traditionally, youth mental health problems were seen as something difficult to change. However, the study reframes the youth mental health crisis as a largely preventable behavioral issue, linking excessive screen use to a sharp rise in psychological disorders.
Drawing on data from more than 50,000 children aged 6 to 17, the research found that spending four or more hours a day on screens is associated with significantly higher rates of mental health issues. Heavy screen users face a 61% higher risk of depression, 45% for anxiety, 24% for behaviour problems, and 21% for ADHD.
Crucially, the study identifies why this relationship exists. Reduced physical activity and disrupted sleep are the main mediating factors that link screen time to mental health problems. Physical activity alone accounts for up to 39% of the link, while irregular bedtimes contribute nearly 24%, and short sleep duration just over 7%.
“What’s most important is that we now know the main determinants of mental health issues in children,” says Dr. Hannah Nearney, a clinical psychiatrist. “The chances can be significantly reduced with adjustments in behaviors such as physical activity.”
The problem is that these unhealthy habits are already common. Nearly one in three children exceeds healthy screen-time limits. Only one in five meets the recommended 60 minutes of daily physical activity, and just one in four maintains a consistent sleep routine.
Clinicians warn that the crisis extends beyond behavioral risks. Children face limited treatment alternatives and frequently use antidepressants (抗抑郁药物) despite safety concerns. Although non-drug technologies such as tDCS are gaining scientific support, pediatric (儿童专家) agreement remains out of reach.
The study’s implications are clear: correcting children’s day-to-day routines and behaviour in relation to screen use, movement, and sleep need to be brought back to dinner-table conversations.
32. What does the underlined word “reframes” probably mean in paragraph 1?
A. Selects. B. Redefines. C. Recycles. D. Assumes.
33. How does the author present the issue in the second paragraph?
A. By listing causes. B. By using numbers. C. By quoting experts. D. By making comparison.
34. What can we learn from the relationship between physical activity and screen time?
A. More screen use improves high sleep quality.
B. More screen time leads to more extra exercise.
C. More exercise makes screen time more meaningful.
D. More physical activity contributes to a healthy lifestyle.
35. What does the study suggest as a solution to the crisis?
A. Using more antidepressants for children.
B. Waiting for pediatric agreement of tDCS.
C. Increasing screen time to ease mental pressure.
D. Changing children’s daily routines and behaviors.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Mental resilience (韧性) has become a vital skill in today’s fast-paced world. ___36___ Research indicates that individuals with high resilience levels are 35 % more likely to maintain mental health during long-term stress. Let’s explore scientific ally proven methods to strengthen this ability.
The Main Idea Explained
Resilience is not about reducing stress but managing it effectively. Emerging neurobiological evidence sheds light on this positively adaptive process. ___37___ Neuroscientists (神经学家) compare it to muscle training: facing proper challenged regularly improved mental ability to adjust. For instance, A 2023 Harvard study showed that proper stress increased brain thickness in areas related to making decisions.
Physical Activity as a Foundation
Exercise is universally recognized as a key resilience-building tool. During aerobic workouts, the body producers BDNF (脑源性神经营养因子), a protein important for brain development. ___38___ Meanwhile, this chemical process not only improved mood but also strengthens mental abilities. To maximize benefits, experts suggest combining 30 minutes of daily exercise with relaxation methods such as deep breathing.
The Power of Social Bonds
Human beings succeed through meaningful connections. Strong social networks act as psychological safety nets during c rises. ___39___ A Stanford University study over many years found that people with strong social support recovered 50 % faster from emotional difficulties than those who were isolated. Surprisingly, online communication through video calls was 80 % as effective as face-to-face meetings in recent tests.
Methods to Change Negative Thoughts
How we view difficulties shapes our mental resilience. Psychologists suggest changing extreme negative ideas like “I can’t handle this” into positive views such as “This is hard but possible.” 2022 study found that daily gratitude practice lowers stress hormones by 25 % in three weeks. ___40___
A. Therefore, building strong connections should be a key goal.
B. Creative activities like painting unexpectedly better stress tolerance.
C. Workplace culture significantly impacts employees’ stress management.
D. This natural process helps maintain stable emotions and enhanced clear thinking.
E. Moreover, actively noticing small daily successes helps develop positive thinking.
F. This psychological training strengthens the brain’s ability to handle future challengers.
G. It refers to the ability to recover from difficulties while keeping basic operations running.
第三部分:语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节:完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Coming from Villa Tesei, one of the neighborhoods in the greater urban region of Buenos Aires, Argentina, muralist (壁画家) Fio Silva adds fantastic effects of brilliant colors and movements to the walls that she touches. Much of her inspiration comes from ____41____.
As Silva explains, “I think the idea that ____42____ me the most is that of movement and strength. I like painting animals, especially birds, in a creative way. I ____43____ to make something that attracts ____44____ not only for its colors or size. It is also something that can ‘be ____45____’, and tells you something.”
Silva says that she ____46____ her job almost by chance. “I began painting murals because a friend ____47____ me some spray cans (喷漆罐) for my birthday. And with that, I went to paint on the street for the first time, totally out of ____48____. People in my neighborhood ____49____ gave up their walls to let me paint and there I fell in love with painting in the ____50____ space.”
Silva is particularly careful with the ____51____ that she chooses to include in an artwork, as certain colors will ____52____ what she wants to express, producing a power that can ____53____ the viewers from the city surroundings into the natural world ____54____ by her.
Beautiful art that brightens cities is the public good, and it’s ____55____ to see artists passionately believing in this idea and actively working to make it a reality.
41. A. science B. nature C. fashion D. life
42. A. moves B. worries C. frightens D. inspires
43. A. attempt B. offer C. demand D. continue
44. A. talent B. respect C. attention D. wealth
45. A. read B. bought C. found D. measured
46. A. talked about B. took up C. applied for D. held down
47. A. lent B. passed C. sold D. gave
48. A. necessity B. duty C. curiosity D. satisfaction
49. A. warmly B. hopelessly C. officially D. tiredly
50. A. narrow B. green C. public D. digital
51. A. plants B. lines C. animals D. colors
52. A. predict B. strengthen C. challenge D. prevent
53. A. transport B. change C. make D. translate
54. A. visited B. remembered C. created D. recommended
55. A. surprising B. exciting C. discouraging D. disappointing
第二节:语法填空(10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
If you’re wondering why Taylor Swift didn’t respond to your social media post offering congratulations on her engagement, then Cambridge Dictionary has a word for you: parasocial. ____56____ (define) as involving or relating to a connection that someone feels between themselves and a famous person they do not know, parasocial has been chosen by the dictionary as ____57____ (it) word of the year, as people turn ____58____ chatbots and celebrities to feel connection in their online lives. The term first ____59____ (emerge) in 1956 when University of Chicago sociologists observed TV viewers engaging in parasocial relationships with onscreen personalities, mirroring their bonds with family and ____60____ (friend) — except this was a one-way attachment. Opportunities for asymmetrical (不对称) relationships ____61____ (mushroom) in the internet era over the past few years, with social media and now artificial intelligence ____62____ (take) a niche (小众的) academic term into the mainstream. “Parasocial captures the 2025zeitgeist (时代精神),” said Colin McIntosh, a Cambridge Dictionary editor. Millions of people are engaged in parasocial relationships; many more are ____63____ (simple) interested in their rise. Simone Schnall, professor of ____64____ (experiment) social psychology at the University of Cambridge, said parasocial relationships have redefined fandom, celebrity and how ordinary people interact online with AI. People have relied on influencers as trust in mainstream and traditional media breaks down, _____65_____ can lead to unhealthy and intense relationships with social media stars.
第四部分:写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节:应用文(满分15分)
66. 假定你是校英语社社长李华,原定于下周举行的英语演讲比赛因故推迟,请给担任评委的外教Mr. Smith写一封邮件,内容包括:
1. 表示歉意;2. 推迟原因及后续调整。
注意:1. 写作词数应为80个左右;2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Mr Smith,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes,
Li Hua
第二节:读后续写(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Half a year ago, fat and lazy, I was in low spirits. During a free and easy gathering, as I struggled to button my over-sized T-shirt, my friends made fun of me, their sharp remarks about my “jiggling belly” and “elephant-like posture” cutting through the air like knives, though they said it was harmless joking. My face burned hotter than the sun as their imitations (模仿) of my walk drew attention from strangers, turning what should have been a joyful reunion into an embarrassment (尴尬) that is still fresh in my memory.
Looking at the figure in the mirror, I realized myself out of shape, no wonder they were making fun of me! “I have to lose weight and keep fit,” I promised to myself, “no matter what.”
Act on it! The next morning, I equipped myself with sports clothes and went out into the park, starting running. Yet everything was quite different from what I had imagined. Half an hour seemed so long and the path seemed endless. In a short while, I was out of breath, sweat down my face, legs aching. I stopped to take a breath, full of doubts on my decision.
I was at the point of giving up when my neighbor, Jean, came into view, who was walking her dog in the park. “Hi, Adam. Are you free recently?” “Yes, a bit.” I answered. “Would you mind walking Amy, my little Pomeranian, every morning for one week when I am out on business?” “Walking a dog is a good workout, much easier than running.” I thought to myself. “My pleasure” was my reply.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150个左右;
2.请按照如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
However, the first morning of my walking duties was bitter cold.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The seven-day duty turned me into a morning workout person.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
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