河北唐山市2026年中考模拟考试英语试卷

2026届中考模拟考试 英语试卷 注意事项： 1．本试卷共8页，总分120分，考试时间120分钟。 2．答题前，考生务必将姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡的相应位置。 3．所有答案均在答题卡上作答，在本试卷或草稿纸上作答无效。答题前，请仔细阅读答题卡上的“注意事项”，按照“注意事项”的规定答题。 4．答选择题时，用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；答非选择题时，请在答题卡上对应题目的答题区域内答题。 5．考试结束时，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分） 第一节 听句子，选择最佳答语（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 1. A. Never mind. B. Good job. C. No problem. 2. A. Very beautiful. B. Not yet. C. In Tangshan. 3. A. It was far. B. It was expensive. C. It was wonderful. 4. A. In January. B. A basketball. C. At a restaurant. 5. A. Good idea. B. Me too. C. Best wishes. 第二节 听对话和问题，选择正确答案（共13小题；每小题1分，满分13分） 6. Where are the speakers? A. B. C. 7. What will the weather be like tomorrow? A. B. C. 8. Where are they going on Sunday? A. To the supermarket. B. To the bank. C. To the cinema. 9. How will they go there? A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By bike. 10. What was wrong with Peter last night? A. He had a toothache. B. He had a headache. C. He had a stomachache. 11. How often should Peter take the medicine? A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a day. 12. What’s the possible relationship between the two speakers? A. Teacher and student. B. Doctor and patient. C. Mother and son. 13. When does the boy get up? A. At 6:30. B. At 6:40. C. At 6:55. 14. What club does the girl like best? A. The Jogging Club. B. The Football Club. C. The Book Club. 15. Why does the boy join the clubs? A. To have fun. B. To make friends. C. To improve skills. 16. When will Grandparents visit them? A. This Monday. B. This Friday. C. This Sunday. 17. What did the woman buy yesterday? A. Some flowers. B. A house. C. A clock. 18. Who likes flowers very much? A. Grandma. B. Bob. C. Grandpa. 第三节 听短文和问题，选择正确答案（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分） 19. What does Lucy’s mum do at home for the family? A. Cook nice meals. B. Wash the clothes. C. Clean the rooms. 20. What is Lucy’s mum? A. A cook. B. A nurse. C. A doctor. 21. Why do patients like Lucy’s mum? A. She is honest. B. She is creative. C. She is responsible. 22. How many class rules are there? A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. 23. What is the third class rule? A. Be polite to teachers. B. Be on time for school. C. Listen to teachers carefully. 24. Where can students see the class rules? A. On the wall. B. On the board. C. On the door. 25. Who can students tell if they have suggestions? A. Their parent. B. Their teacher. C. Their class leader. 第四节 听短文填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） School-leavers’ Party Members: 26. students from __________ classes Date: 27. on __________, June 30 Place: 28. in the school __________ Activities: 29. sing and __________ Food: 30. dumplings and __________ 第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 Last term, our teacher introduced a project-based learning (项目式学习) activity. Each group was asked to find a way to reduce 31 at school, not just clean it up. At first, we felt a bit lost. We discussed several 32 , such as cutting down food waste or using both sides of paper, but none of them seemed good enough. While thinking about the problem, we began to observe (观察) the rubbish bins around the school 33 . We noticed that the bins were 34 mixed waste-used paper, plastic bottles, and food waste all thrown together. Because everything was mixed, many recyclable materials could not be 35 and were treated as rubbish. We realized that if students learned to sort (分类) waste, much of it could be recycled. In this way, we could truly reduce the waste. With this goal in mind, we took action. First, we searched online for 36 about waste sorting. Then we designed posters to show how to sort waste in a 37 way. After that, we explained our idea to the headteacher and suggested that the school provide recycling bins. She 38 , and soon new bins were placed in each hallway. During breaks, we stood beside the bins to 39 students to throw rubbish into the right ones. As time went by, more students developed the 40 of sorting rubbish. Now recyclable materials are reused, and food waste is turned into compost (堆肥). Though our action seems small, it is a meaningful step toward a greener school. 31. A. waste B. stress C. noise D. pain 32. A. books B. games C. ideas D. events 33. A. bravely B. lazily C. heavily D. carefully 34. A. known as B. connected to C. filled with D. made of 35. A. received B. reused C. changed D. invented 36. A. information B. pleasure C. meaning D. success 37. A. strange B. serious C. polite D. proper 38. A. agreed B. waited C. doubted D. argued 39. A. expect B. guide C. refuse D. wish 40. A. plan B. product C. talent D. habit 第二节 短文填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或填入括号内单词的正确形式。 Today, I am happy to share one of my favorite traditional arts-paper-cutting. Paper-cutting is 41 traditional Chinese art form with a history of more than two thousand years. During the Chinese New Year, people often use red paper to create beautiful designs and put them 42 windows and doors. They hope they will bring good luck 43 happiness in the coming year. When I was a child, I often 44 (watch) my grandmother turn pieces of red paper into flowers, trees, people, and almost anything else you could imagine. It seemed as if she had magic 45 (hand). Her works were 46 (live) and beautiful. Later, she began to teach me how 47 (make) different kinds of paper-cuts. After several weeks of practice, I made great progress. Last term, 48 (we) school held a paper-cutting show. Among all the competitors, my work was chosen as the 49 (good). It was a special design called “Zhubaoping’an”, which symbolizes a safe and   50   (health) life. Now, I 51 (consider) as a “master” of paper-cutting at school. I have even started a paper-cutting club. We meet every Wednesday afternoon to create new works together, and so far, we 52 (finish) about 200 paper-cuts. Next week, we 53 (invite) my grandmother to visit us. She will 54 (patient) show her skills and share the stories behind her creations. Paper-cutting is a symbol of Chinese culture, and I hope to share its beauty 55 more people. I truly enjoy it, and I’ll keep on creating more works and let this traditional art shine in the world. 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A We love hearing from our readers! Fifth-grade students in North Carolina added some new places to our World’s Greatest Places list. Read a few here. The Great Wall of China is a fantastic choice. It’s one of the Seven Wonders of the World. It is such a beautiful building, and walking on it feels like touching history. —— Diana I’m a fan of natural wonders. I think Iceland is a great place, which has amazing northern lights. As an island, it is also home to many kinds of wildlife. —— Harry Cancún, Mexico, has the bluest ocean I’ve ever seen. There’s so much wonderful wildlife to discover, including sharks and monkeys in the nearby forests. —— Andrew You should consider Stonehenge in England. I went there last summer, and it was so cool! When I finally stood next to those huge, ancient stones, I felt so small. It’s hard to imagine how people built it so long ago. —— Mandy Do you have a favorite place in the world? Write to us at tfkeditors@time.com and tell us why. Your idea may be here next time! 56. Who is a fan of natural wonders? A. Diana. B. Harry. C. Andrew. D. Mandy. 57. Where can you see the bluest ocean according to the passage? A. In China. B. In Iceland. C. In Mexico. D. In England. 58. What do the Great Wall and Stonehenge have in common? A. They are both in Asian countries. B. They are both home to amazing wildlife. C. They are both famous for natural beauty. D. They are both man-made ancient wonders. B Patrick Finnegan, a 12-year-old student from Savannah, Georgia, is popular in his school as a young peacemaker. He helps other students solve their conflicts (冲突). It all started when Patrick noticed one problem — small disagreements between students often grew into bigger arguments, leaving everyone upset. He wanted to solve conflicts between his classmates and help them get along better. So, Patrick joined a three-day training program to learn the skills of mediation (调节). He learned how to listen with patience, ask the right questions, and help others express their feelings without anger. His first real test came when two friends in his class, Leo and Mia, stopped speaking to each other after a misunderstanding about a piece of group work. Patrick invited them to a quiet corner during lunchtime. He didn’t take sides. Instead, he encouraged each of them to explain what happened and how they felt. At first, both were angry at each other, but Patrick’s calm and fair mediation helped them listen to each other. In the end, they realized it was just a miscommunication. They apologized (道歉) and even decided to work together on the next group work. Since then, Patrick has helped many other students. He doesn’t see conflicts as problems but as chances to build stronger friendships. Through mediation, he has learned to be more understanding. “Success isn’t about who’s right or wrong,” Patrick says, “it’s about helping people understand each other and stay friends.” 59. Why did Patrick join a three-day training program? A. To learn mediation skills. B. To get better grades. C. To notice small disagreements. D. To win an award at school. 60. How did Patrick help Leo and Mia solve their conflict? A. He treated them to lunch. B. He told them who was right. C. He helped them communicate. D. He asked the teacher for help. 61. What has Patrick learned through mediation? A. How to win arguments. B. How to be more understanding. C. How to be more popular at school. D. How to avoid conflicts completely. C Have you ever noticed the green cabinets (柜子) on the streets of Futian, Shenzhen? They are 24-hour free food banks. Anyone can receive free bread, vegetables, milk, or fruit by making an appointment (预约) through the “i Shenzhen” app. The free-food-bank project operates in a smart and well-organized way. In the past, large supermarkets and bread shops often threw away unsold food that was close to its expiry date (保质期). Now, with the government’s support, these businesses are connected to the project. They donate food that is close to its expiry date to the food banks. All donated food is stored under strict temperature control to make sure of its safety. To keep order and protect people’s dignity (尊严), the project uses an appointment system. There are no volunteers handing out food in person. Users must book online first, which helps reduce crowding and avoid any possible embarrassment (尴尬). The project also follows a special “8 o’clock rule.” Before 8 p.m., the service is mainly for groups like poor families, people with disabilities and street cleaners. After 8 p.m., if food remains, all 20 million citizens of Shenzhen can make an appointment. In this way, receiving food is not only an act of getting help, but also a meaningful step toward environmental protection and reducing food waste. The project was started in May 2022. Until now, it has received 484,000 donations, supported 484,000 people, and saved about 195 tons of food. The greatness of a city is shown not by its tall buildings, but by its warmth and care to those in need. 62. How does the food banks get the food? A. Supermarkets sell it. B. Businesses donate it. C. The government provides it. D. The charity organization raises it. 63. What is the main reason for using appointments in the project? A. To make the service faster. B. To collect information of its users. C. To make sure of the safety of food. D. To keep order and protect people’s dignity. 64. Which is correct about the “8 o’clock rule”? A. After 8 p.m., the cabinets are closed. B. After 8 p.m., volunteers begin to work. C. Before 8 p.m., all citizens can make appointments. D. Before 8 p.m., the service is mainly for special groups. 65. What is the positive effect of the free-food-bank project? A. It creates more volunteer jobs. B. It helps businesses sell more food. C. It helps people and reduces waste. D. It makes Shenzhen the greatest city. D Many middle school students feel rushed all the time as they try to balance schoolwork, hobbies, housework, and time with friends. If your days often seem messy or out of control, don’t worry. With a few practical tips, you can manage your day more effectively. First, start small. For many people, getting started is the hardest step towards finishing a task. Instead of waiting for the perfect moment, take the first step bravely. A small beginning lowers the pressure and often leads to real progress. Second, break big tasks into small parts. You may find that you can focus on almost anything for just 25 minutes. Set a timer and work with full attention. Then take a five-minute break before starting the next round. This simple cycle can make difficult tasks feel possible. Third, make unpleasant tasks more enjoyable. If you have to do something you don’t like, try pairing it with something you do enjoy. For example, you can listen to your favorite songs while washing the dishes. By doing so, you turn boring chores into more pleasant moments. In addition, choose an organizing method that suits you. The best method is the one that truly works for you. Some students prefer colorful sticky notes or phone reminders, but you may work better with a simple to-do list. This is because every time you cross a task off your list, you get a sense of accomplishment and feel proud of yourself. Finally, remember that learning self-management takes time and practice. If you forget something or make a mistake, treat yourself with kindness. Studies show that being kind to yourself can help you feel less stressed and become stronger when facing difficulties. Managing your day is about step-by-step progress, not perfection. Try one of these tips today, and you will soon feel calmer, more focused, and more in control. 66. What is the hardest part of finishing a task for many people? A. Taking the first step. B. Lowering the pressure. C. Working with full attention. D. Waiting for the perfect moment. 67. If you have to do something you don’t like, what can you do? A. Try to finish it as quickly as possible. B. Break the task into small parts. C. Do something you enjoy while doing it. D. Give yourself a gift after finishing it. 68. What does the underlined word “accomplishment” in Paragraph 5 mean? A. Peace. B. Humor. C. Agreement. D. Achievement. 69. Which of the following would the writer probably agree with? A. Big tasks should be done without any breaks. B. Being kind to yourself can help reduce stress. C. You should be hard on yourself if you make mistakes. D. Using phone reminders is the best way to stay organized. 70. What is the best title for the text? A. Ways to Manage Your Own Day B. Causes of Students’ Busy Days C. Tools for Remembering Daily Tasks D. Studies on How to Reduce Stress 第二节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，简略回答问题。 Have you ever seen a robot that looks and moves like a real person? These machines are called humanoid (人形的) robots. They are designed to help people in daily life and at work. In China, humanoid robots are developing rapidly. Last year, a humanoid robot developed by Agibot set a Guinness (吉尼斯) World Record — the longest walk by a humanoid robot. It set off from Suzhou on November 10 and arrived in Shanghai on November 13. Can you believe that it walked 106 kilometers without stopping? How amazing! However, walking is only one of the many things humanoid robots can do. Over the past year, they have developed a lot of different skills. Some can make coffee, fold (叠) clothes, play mahjong, sell hamburgers, and even carry out safety patrols (巡逻). These abilities show the rapid growth of China’s robotics industry. At present, there are more than 150 robot companies in China, and experts say that the country’s humanoid robot market could reach $ 3.4 billion by 2030. Humanoid robots depend on key technologies such as high-level sensors (传感器) and AI systems. With these technologies, they can work in different fields. For example, Walker S1 robots developed by UBTECH are already working in several Chinese car factories. At the same time, researchers are trying to make these robots less expensive. In the future, humanoid robots may become as common as smartphones, playing an increasingly important role in our everyday lives. 71. Why are humanoid robots designed? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 72. What Guinness World Record did a humanoid robot set? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 73. What do the humanoid robots’ abilities show? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 74. Where are the Walker Sl robots working now? ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 75. If you own a humanoid robot, what will you ask it to do? （答案需与文中例子不同） ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 情景交际（满分10分） 补全对话（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分） 根据下面的对话情景，在空白处填入一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。 (Wendy and Nick are talking during the break in the classroom.) Nick: Hi, Wendy! May Day is coming. Do you have any plans? Wendy: Not really. Maybe I’ll just stay home and play games. 76 Nick: I plan to go to Tangshan Zoo. You know how much I love animals. Wendy: Cool! 77 Nick: I want to see pandas! Wendy: They are very cute. Can I go with you? Nick: 78 We’ll have fun together. Wendy: Great! 79 Nick: Let’s meet at 8:00 am. The zoo will be crowded on holidays. Wendy: Perfect! I’ll bring your favorite sandwiches for you. Nick: 80 Wendy: You’re welcome. 第五部分 写作（满分15分） 书面表达 81．学校校报以“Sports Make Us Strong and Happy”为题征稿，呼吁同学们积极参与体育运动，请你撰写一篇短文投稿。 要点：（1）运动的好处：强身健体，愉悦身心……； （2）你平时的运动习惯； （3）你未来的运动计划。 注意：（1）短文须包括所给要点，可适当发挥； （2）文中不得出现真实的人名、校名和地名； （3）词数80个左右。 Sports Make Us Strong and Happy ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $这是2026届中考模拟考试英语试卷听力部分，听力部分共有4节，第一节至第三节为选择题，第四节为填空题。做题时先将答案答在试卷上，在听力测试结束后，再将答案填涂到答题卡上。现在是听力试音时间。Excuse me, but could you tell me how to get to the cinema? Which cinema? The capital cinema? Oh, it's a long way from here. You'd Better take a bus. Which bus . shall I take them? I think . you need to take number seven. Thanks a lot. You're welcome. 试音。到此结束。第一节听句子，选择最佳答语。下面你将听到五个句子，每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后从每小题所给出的ABC3个选项中选出该句的最佳答语。Number one, can you help me Carry this bag? Can you help me Carry this bag? Number two, have you ever been to non ho park? Have you ever been to non ho park? Number three, how was your . weekend? How was your weekend? Number four, leo, what do you want for your birthday? Leo, what do you want for your birthday? Number five, how about watching a movie this evening? How about watching a movie this evening? 第二节听对话和问题，选择正确答案。下面你将听到5组对话和13个问题，每组对话和问题读两遍。请你听完对话和问题的第二遍朗读后，根据所听内容从每小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。请听第一组对话，回答第六小题。Can I borrow your ruler? Our teacher asked us to draw . some pictures. Sure, here you are. Can I borrow your ruler? Our teacher asked us to draw . some pictures. Sure, here you are. Question number six, where are the speakers? Where are the speakers? 请听第二组对话，回答第七小题。What a Sunny day today. Yeah, but the weather report says it's going to snow tomorrow. cool. We can make a snowman together after school. What a Sunny day today. Yeah, but the weather report says it's going to snow tomorrow. cool. We can make a snowman together after school. Question number seven, what will the weather be like tomorrow? What will the weather be like tomorrow? 请听第三组对话，回答第八、九小题。Hey, Jason, do you want to watch the new movie with me this sunday? Sorry, I already watched IT yesterday. Well, how about going shopping instead? That sounds good. Let's go to the new supermarket near the bank. I know that one. We can get there by bus. Actually, it's only one kilometer away. We could just walk there. okay. Hey Jason, do you want to watch the new movie with me this sunday? Sorry. I already watched IT yesterday. Well, how about going shopping instead? That sounds good. Let's go to the new supermarket near the bank. I know that one. We can get there by bus. Actually, it's only one kilometer away. We could just walk there. Okay, question number eight, where are they going on sunday? Where are they going on sunday? Question number nine, how will they go there? How will they go there? 请听第四组对话，回答第10至12小题。Peter, you look pale today. Are you feeling okay? Not really. I had a stomach cake last night, and my parents took me to the hospital. I'm sorry to hear that what happened next? The doctor gave me some medicine and told me I need to take IT twice a day. Well, you must follow the doctor's advice. If you still feel uncomfortable at school, just tell me. I'll call your parents right away. Thanks, miss wang. Peter, you look pale today. Are you feeling okay? Not really. I had a stomach cake last night, and my parents took me the hospital. I'm sorry to hear that what happened next? The doctor gave me some medicine and told me I need to take IT . twice a day. Well, you must follow the doctor's advice if you still feel uncomfortable at school, just tell me, i'll call your parents right away. Thanks, miss wang. Question . number ten, what was wrong with Peter last night? What was wrong with Peter last night? Question number eleven, how often should Peter take the medicine? How often should Peter take the medicine? Question number twelve, what's the possible relationship between the two speakers? What's the possible relationship between the two speakers? 请听第五组对话，回答第13至15小题。what time do you get up in the morning? On weekdays? I usually get up at six forty AM. And then eat breakfast at six fifty five. How about you? I get up at half past six. I always read for a while. What do you like best about your school day? I like . all the after school activities. The book club is my favorite. I have lots of fun. What about you? I'm in the football club and the jogging club because I want to make more friends. What time do you get up in the morning? On weekdays? I usually get up at six forty AM, and then eat breakfast at six fifty five. How about you? I get up at half past six. I always read for a while. What do you like best about your school day? I like all the after school activities. The book club is my favorite. I have lots of fun. What about you? I'm in the football club and the jogging club because I want to make more friends. Question number thirteen, when does the boy get up? When does the boy get up? Question number fourteen, what club does the girl like best? What club does the girl like best? Question number fifteen, why does the boy join the clubs? Why does the boy join the clubs? 请听第六组对话回答第16至18小题。Bob, guess what? Grandpa and grandma are coming to visit us this friday. really. Mom, I can't wait to show them our new house. Can you help me hang the clock on the wall? I bought IT yesterday so they can see the time. sure. I also want to buy some flowers for grandma. He really likes flowers. Could you take me to the flower shop later? No problem. Let's go after lunch. Bob, guess White grandpa and grandma are coming to visit us this friday. Really, mom, I can't wait to show them our new house. Can you help me hang the clock on the wall? I bought IT yesterday so they . can see the time. sure. I also want to buy some flowers for grandma. SHE really likes flowers. Could you take me to the flower shop later? No problem. Let's go after lunch. Question number sixteen, when will grandparents visit them? When will grandparents visit them? Question number seventeen, what did the woman buy yesterday? What did the woman buy yesterday? Question number eighteen, who likes flowers very much? Who likes flowers very much? 第三节听短文和问题，选择正确答案。下面你将听到两篇短文和七个问题，每篇短文和问题读两遍。请你听完短文和问题的第二遍朗读后，根据所听内容从每小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。请听第一篇短文，回答第19至21小题。Good morning, everyone. I'm Lucy. It's my turn to introduce my, my role model. My mom is my role model. SHE does a great job both at home and work. SHE is a wonderful woman at home. He knows everyone's taste and cooks nice meals. SHE is patient. SHE listens to me when I need someone to talk to. My mom is a nurse who works in a hospital at work. Patients like her because he is responsible. People around her think SHE is easy to work with and always helpful. I'm lucky to have her. SHE teaches me a lot. I hope to be like her when I grow up. Good morning, everyone. I'm Lucy is my turn to introduce my role model. My mom is my role model. SHE does a great job both at home and work. SHE is a wonderful woman at home. He knows everyone's taste and cooks nice meals. SHE is patient. SHE listens to me when I need someone to talk to. My mom is a nurse who works in a hospital at work. Patients like her because he is responsible. People around her think he is easy to work with and always helpful. I'm lucky to hover. SHE teaches me a lot. I hope to be like her when I grow up. Question number one, what does Lucy mom do at home for the family? What does Lucy mom do at home for the family? Question number twenty, what is Lucy mom? What is Lucy mom? Question number twenty one, why do patients like Lucy mom? Why do patients like Lucy mom? 请听第二篇短文，回答第22至25小题。Good morning, boys and girls. I'd like to say something about our class rules. There are four rules. The first one is to come to school on time, never be late, or you'll miss the start of our lessons. The second one is not to eat snacks in the classroom, so we can keep IT clean and tidy. The third one is to listen to your teachers carefully in class. This helps you learn Better. The last one is to be polite to your teachers. You can see the rules on the wall behind the door. If you have any suggestions, you can tell our class leader, mike. I know it's not easy to follow all the rules, but they help make our classroom a Better place to study. Remember, no rules, no order. Good morning. boys and girls. I'd like to say something about our class rules. There are four rules. The first one is to come to school on time, never be late, or you'll miss the start of our lessons. The second one is not to eat snacks in the classroom so we can keep IT clean and tidy. The third one is to listen to your teachers carefully in class. This helps you learn Better. The last one is to be polite to your teachers. You can see the rules on the wall behind the door. If you have any suggestions, you can tell our class leader, mike. I know it's not easy to follow all the rules, but they help make our classroom a Better place to study. Remember, no rules, no order. Question . number twenty two, how many classrooms les are there? How many class rules are there? Question number twenty three, what is the third class rule? What is the third class rule? Question number twenty four, where can students see the class rules? Where can students see the class rules? Question number twenty five, who can students tell if they have suggestions? Who can students tell if they have suggestions? 第四节听短文填空。下面你将听到一篇短文，短文读两遍。请你听完短文的第二遍朗读后，根据短文的内容和提示，在信息表中相应的横线上填入所缺信息。Hi everyone, attention, please. I'm happy to tell you about our school leaver s party. Students from ten classes will take part in the party first. The party will be held on saturday, june thirty is a perfect day to say goodbye and have fun together. IT will take place in the school hall. We'll put up pictures and balloons at the party. There will be lots of interesting activities. We can sing and dance to great music. At the end of the party, we will make and enjoy delicious food like dumplings and cakes together. Come join us for food, music and fun. Hi everyone. attention, please. I'm happy to tell you about our school leaver s party. Students from ten classes will take part in the party first. The party will be held on saturday, june thirty is a perfect day to say goodbye and have fun together. IT will take place in the school hall. We'll put up pictures and balloons at the party. There will be lots of interesting activities. We can sing and dance to great music. At the end of the party, we will make and enjoy delicious food like dumplings and cakes together. Come and join us for food, music and fun. 听力部分到此结束，预祝同学们取得好成绩。 2026届中考模拟考试 英语参考答案 第一部分听力 第一至三节 1 2 3 5 7 96 9 10 11 12 13 C B C B A C B B C B A B 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 C B B C A A B C B C A C 第四节 26.10/ten 27.Saturday 28.hall 29.dance 30.cakes 第二部分 语言运用 第一节完形填空 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A C D B A D A B D 第二节短文填空 41.a 42.on 43.and 44.watched 45.hands 46.lively 47.to make 48.our 49.best 50.healthy 51.am considered 52.have finished 53.will invite 54.patiently 55.with 第三部分阅读 第一节阅读理解 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 B C D A C B D 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 D C A D B A 第二节阅读表达 71.To help people in daily life and at work./They are designed to help people in daily life and at work.Because they can help people in daily life and at work. 72.The longest walk by a humanoid robot. 73.The rapid growth of China's robotics industry./These abilities show the rapid growth of China's robotics industry. 74.In several Chinese car factories. 75.Cook dinner/Clean the room/Make the bed..(答案合理即可) 英语答案第1页（共2页） 第四部分情景交际 补全对话 76.Where do you plan to go?What do you plan to do?/How about you?/What about you? What will you do?... 77.What animals do you want to see?Which animals do you want to see?... 78.Yes.Sure./OK.Of course.Certainly... 79.When shall/will we meet?/What time shall will we meet? 80.Thank you.Thanks.It's very kind of you... 第五部分写作 81.One possible version Sports Make Us Strong and Happy Doing sports is good for our body and mind.First,sports can make our bodies strong and healthy.What's more,it can also help us feel relaxed and happy. I keep doing sports every day.I run for 15 minutes in the morning.On weekends,I usually ride a bike in the park.This year,I plan to join a basketball club and take part in the school sports meeting. Let's do sports actively.I'm sure sports will make our life better. 英语答案第2页（共2页）