2026 年安徽省示范高中皖北协作区第 28 届联考英语

2026 年安徽省示范高中皖北协作区第 28 届联考 英 语 注意事项： 1．答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 例: How much is the shirt? A. £ 19.15. B. £ 9.18. C. £ 9.15. 答案是 C。 1. Why does the man want to sell his car? A. It is too old. B. It is unreliable. C. It is not eco - friendly. 2. What is the man’s attitude to Mr Smith’s teaching style? A. Appreciative. B. Indifferent. C. Opposed. 3. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. A famous director. B. A wild animal. C. A nature film. 4. What will the woman do this evening? A. Work overtime. B. Watch TV at home. C. Hang out with the man. 5. What will the man probably do next with the broken machine? A. Repair it himself. B. Call Henry to fix it. C. Buy a new one to replace it. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Employer and employee. B. Teacher and student. C. Schoolmates. 7. How does the woman feel about the university? A. Stressed. B. Satisfied. C. Unhappy. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What did Mike forget to bring? A. Some videos. B. The research paper. C. All pictures. 9. When will the speakers give a presentation of their project? A. This morning. B. This afternoon. C. Tomorrow morning. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. How many children does the woman have? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. 11. What did the woman’s son do last weekend? A. He went shopping. B. He played ball sports. C. He had a birthday party. 12. What did the speakers purchase last weekend? A. A birthday cake. B. Some food. C. Some clothes. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. What is the man doing? A. Applying for a position. B. Conducting an interview. C. Teaching literature in the school. 14. How long has the woman been teaching? A. For five years. B. For ten years. C. For fifteen years. 15. What do we know about the woman? A. She is good at writing. B. She has got a doctor’s degree. C. She lacks communication skills. 16. Why does the woman want to work in the school? A. It is close to her house. B. Its rules are quite loose. C. Its values match her morals. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What did the woman’s family take to travel into central London? A. The bus. B. The taxi. C. The underground. 18. What was the weather like when the woman was on the London Eye? A. Foggy. B. Sunny. C. Rainy. 19. What does the woman say about the usual weather in London? A. Constant. B. Changeable. C. Pleasant. 20. What is Winter Wonderland? A. A national park. B. A Christmas activity. C. A Chinese restaurant. 第二部分 阅读（共两节,满分50分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Berkeley Library Fall Semester Service Guide As the new semester begins, the campus library is pleased to update our service guide to better support your study and research needs. Below is key information about opening hours, borrowed materials, and special services. 1. Opening Hours Area Weekdays (Mon - Fri) Weekends (Sat - Sun) Holiday Adjustments Main Reading Room 7:30 AM - 10:00 PM 9:00 AM - 8:00 PM Closed on Thanksgiving (11/27) Book Borrowing Desk 8:00 AM - 9:00 PM 10:00 AM - 6:00 PM Open 10:00 AM - 4:00 PM on Oct 12 (Columbus Day) Digital Resource Lab 9:00 AM - 11:00 PM 10:00 AM - 9:00 PM No adjustment (24/7 access to online resources) Group Study Rooms 8:00 AM - 9:30 PM 9:00 AM - 7:30 PM Closed on major holidays 2. Borrowing Rules Borrowing Period: Undergraduate students: 30 days per book (max. 10 books at a time) Graduate students & faculty: 60 days per book (max. 15 books at a time) Renewal: Books can be renewed twice online via the library app or website, unless reserved by another user. Overdue Fees: 10 per book) . Free of charge for emergency reasons with valid proof. 3. Special Services Research Assistance: Librarians are available for one - on - one consultations (30 minutes per session) to help with paper writing, database search, and citation formatting. Book via the library’s official website 24 hours in advance. Equipment Loan: Laptops, projectors, and noise - canceling headphones are available for 24 - hour loan at the front desk (student ID required) . Printing & Scanning: Self - service machines on the 2nd floor offer printing ($ 0.1 perblack - and - white page, $ 0.3 per color page) and free scanning to email. For more details, visit our website or contact the service desk at (510) 642 - 3381. 21. When can undergraduate students enter Digital Resource Lab on Saturdays? A. 8:00 AM - 8:30 PM. B. 11:00 AM - 8:30 PM. C. 11:00 AM - 9:30 PM. D. 9:00 AM - 5:30 PM. 22. How much should an undergraduate student pay if his book is overdue for 30 days? A. $ 0.3. B. $ 0.5. C. $ 10. D. $ 15. 23. What do students need to do to get one - on - one research assistance? A. Provide a research paper draft. B. Pay a $10 consultation fee. C. Visit the 5th floor of the main library. D. Book 24 hours in advance online. B In September 2024, Hurricane Helene struck the southeastern United States, causing widespread damage. For David Jones, a 65 - year - old man living in Boiling Springs, South Carolina, the storm presented a personal crisis. His home was safe, but his daughter Elizabeth’s wedding was scheduled for the following day in Johnson City, Tennessee. David was determined to be there to walk her down the aisle, a promise he intended to keep no matter what. David’s wife, Debbie, faced a difficult choice. Her elderly and unwell mother, who lived with them, could not be left alone in the aftermath of the storm. With regret, Debbie decided to stay behind to provide care. Understanding the importance of David’s role, she did not try to discourage him from undertaking the challenging journey alone. David set out by car, but his progress was quickly halted. Major roads were blocked by fallen trees and floodwaters, and state troopers turned all traffic away, declaring the routes impassable. Refusing to accept defeat, David made a bold decision. He parked his car, packed a small backpack with essentials, and began to continue his journey on foot. What followed was an exhausting long walk through a damaged landscape. For hours, he trudged forward in the dark, using his cellphone as a flashlight. The path was dangerous, covered in thick mud and scattered with debris from the storm. He carefully navigated around obstacles and through areas littered with broken branches. His remarkable determination did not go unnoticed. After walking a significant distance, he encountered a state trooper who, moved by his story, offered him a ride to a nearby town. This act of kindness was followed by another when a local pickup truck driver helped him cover the final miles to his old house in Johnson City. Beaten, muddy, but utterly resolved, David had just enough time to clean up and change into an old suit before hurrying to the church. As the ceremony began, he stood proudly beside his daughter. Without revealing the hardships of his journey, he fulfilled his cherished promise, walking Elizabeth down the aisle. 24. Why did David Jones have to travel to Johnson City despite the hurricane? A. To perform his role in his daughter’s wedding. B. To check on his old property that was for sale. C. To deliver essential supplies to the storm - hit area. D. To protect his family from the dangerous storm. 25. What is Debbie’s attitude towards David’s journey? A. Doubtful. B. Supportive. C. Uncertain. D. Cautious. 26. The word “trudged” in paragraph 4 most likely means ______. A. ran quickly and nervously B. drove carefully and steadily C. walked slowly with great effort D. marched confidently and happily 27. Which of the following best summarizes the main theme of the text? A. The huge challenges of traveling after a storm. B. A father’s unwavering commitment to his family. C. The unpredictable and destructive power of nature. D. The importance of community help during disasters. C At a time when productivity means using every second and screens erase the line between work and home, some people are slowing down and disconnecting by looking to communication devices from the past. Activities like writing letters, along with typewriter clubs and communities showcasing calligraphy skills, are giving old - fashioned writing instruments a rebirth. More than charming throwbacks, the pursuits provide their enthusiasts with opportunities to reduce their technology use, be more intentional with time and build strong connections with others. “I feel as though my pen pals are my friends. To me, they are no different from the friends I chat with on the phone, in cafes, or at other people’s homes, ” said Melissa Bobbitt, 42, a devoted letter - writer who corresponds with about a dozen people from her home in Claremont, California, and has had up to 40 pen pals at one time. “Focusing on one person and really reading what they are saying, and sharing what’s on your heart is almost like a comforting and restorative process. ” Stephania Kontopanos, a 21 - year - old student in Chicago, said it can be hard to put her phone and computer away, especially when it seems all of her friends and peers are on social media and her classes and personal life revolve around being online. “There are times when I’m with my friends and at dinner, I’ll realize we are all on our phones, ” Kontopanos said, adding that she tries to put her phone down at those moments. Kontopanos also unplugs consciously by sending postcards to her family and friends, making scrapbooks and junk journals, which involve repurposing everyday materials like tickets and receipts to document memories or ideas. She says going to the post office has become an activity she does with her mother back home in Kansas and includes sharing stories with the postal workers, people she would not have routinely encountered. While writing letters and engaging in other old - fashioned pursuits might seem accessible, it is not always easy to get involved. For many people, carving out time to slow down can feel like another duty in a schedule filled with to - dos. 28. What do the old - fashioned pursuits mainly offer their fans? A. Memories filled with personal feelings. B. Chances to cut tech use and build close bonds. C. Accesses to typewriter clubs and communities. D. Ways to improve writing and calligraphy skills. 29. Why does Melissa Bobbitt love writing letters? A. It enables her to connect with her family. B. It is more convenient than online chatting. C. It helps her to maintain a wide social circle. D. It facilitates deep and healing communication. 30. Which word can best describe Stephania Kontopanos? A. Determined.  B. Optimistic.  C. Intelligent.  D. Energetic. 31. What is the best title for the text? A. Slowing Down in the Digital Age to Connect B. Escaping Screens Through Personal Writing C. Learning Skills Through Previous Activities D. Replacing Screens with Traditional Tools D In the concrete jungles that define modern cities, a quiet revolution is taking root — urban microforests. These compact, dense (密集的) green spaces, often no larger than a basketball court, are emerging as powerful solutions to some of the most pressing urban problems, from air pollution to mental health crises. Unlike traditional city parks with neatly cut lawns, microforests mimic natural woodland ecosystems, packing dozens of native plant species into small areas to create thriving habitats. The concept, pioneered by botanist Akira Miyawaki in the 1970s, has gained global traction in recent years as cities seek sustainable development. A study by the International Society for Urban Ecology (ISUE) tracked 120 microforests across 30 cities, including Tokyo, Berlin, and Mexico City. The results were striking: microforests reduced local air temperatures by an average of 3.2 ℃ during summer heatwaves, a critical advantage as urban heat islands grow more intense due to climate change. They also absorbed 20% more carbon dioxide per square meter than traditional parks, thanks to their diverse plant layers — from tall canopy trees to low-lying shrubs. Beyond environmental benefits, urban microforests deliver significant social value. A survey conducted by the University of Copenhagen found that residents living within 500 meters of a microforest reported 15% lower stress levels and 22% higher subjective well - being compared to those without access to such spaces. “The biodiversity of microforests creates a sensory experience — birdsong, fragrant flowers, rustling leaves — that connects people to nature in a way that manicured (修剪整齐的) parks rarely do, ” explains Dr. Lena Olsen, lead researcher of the study. However, the expansion of urban microforests faces practical challenges. Land scarcity in city centers means many projects must repurpose underused spaces — abandoned lots, rooftop areas, or even highway medians. Maintenance is another issue: while mature microforests are self - sustaining, young ones require regular care to prevent invasive species from overtaking native plants. As cities continue to grow, the role of urban microforests will only become more vital. They prove that even small pockets of nature can make a big difference, turning concrete spaces into vibrant, life - sustaining ecosystems. For urban planners and residents alike, microforests offer a hopeful, actionable path toward greener, healthier cities. 32. What fundamentally distinguishes microforests from traditional parks? A. More green spaces. B. Better temperature reduction. C. Dense native plant ecosystems. D. Professional maintenance needs. 33. What can be learned about the ISUE study? A. It focused specifically on carbon absorption. B. It was limited to temperate climate regions. C. It collected data mainly through local surveys. D. It analyzed data from multiple urban locations. 34. Why are microforests more effective in boosting people’s well - being? A. They offer enhanced recreational facilities. B. They are situated in central urban locations. C. They employ professional ecological management. D. They build a closer connection between people and nature. 35. What is the author’s overall viewpoint? A. Microforests can replace traditional parks. B. Microforests are impractical despite their benefits. C. Microforests are transformative despite challenges. D. Microforests have been popular around the world. 第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Multilingualism refers to the ability of an individual to use two or more languages competently in daily communication, work, study, or even thinking. Is being multilingual good for your brain? Probably.    36    Let’s start with the potential cognitive (认知的) benefits of multilingualism. Seas of papers have explored the cognitive advantages of multilingualism. Beyond opening conversational doors, it’s said to improve executive function — the ability to ignore distractions, plan tasks, and update beliefs. It’s also linked to a later onset of dementia (痴呆) , on average. Here is the good news.    37    A 2019 study showed moderate language learning in adults doesn’t boost executive function but slows down age - related decline. Even if you start later, your brain can still harvest benefits. The biggest benefits seem to come to those who master their second languages fully. Studies of interpreters and translators have provided some of the strongest evidence for a multilingual advantage. For example, they are faster at repeatedly jumping back and forth between simple addition and subtraction problems than monolinguals, suggesting generally better cognitive control.    38    But there are many massive variables in such studies.    39    Besides, studies have found striking evidence that in poorer parts of the world multilingual people show the strongest advantages from speaking several languages.    40    According to studies, multilingual kids seem to outperform in cognitive development in the early years. They suggest that the effects of languages on the brain are stronger for young children than they are for adults. A. The effects vary. B. Age also matters. C. But widening your pool of social circle is a definite plus. D. This frequent switching sharpens cognitive skills in unique ways. E. It’s never too late to start learning a new language for brain benefits. F. Some researchers argue that the observed advantages might be temporary and fade over time. G. For example, children raised abroad may have cognitive advantages unrelated to multilingualism. 第三部分 语言运用 （共两节，满分30分） 第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 One winter afternoon, I drove to visit my sister, Mandi, who had been diagnosed with breast cancer. I drove along the edge of the town,    41    looking at the landscape around me. There wasn’t much to see this time of year. The once    42    leaves had all fallen from the trees, leaving them black and bare. It was a troubling    43    of what Mandi was going through. “Are we almost there, Grandma? ” — a voice came from behind. I    44    into the rear - view mirror (后视镜) . I’d nearly    45    that my young granddaughter, Jocelyn, was in the car with me. She had been sitting quietly in her car seat, watching the    46    go by. “I see a pretty blue sky,” Jocelyn said, “and the chocolate trees.” “Chocolate trees?” I asked, feeling    47   . “Yes,” Jocelyn said. She seemed surprised I didn’t know exactly what she meant. “When the trees don’t have the    48    on them, they look like chocolate.” I couldn’t help but laugh and thought I needed to focus on something more    49   . When I thought about them that way, the trees no longer    50    so lifeless. When we arrived, I told Mandi what Jocelyn had said. “I love that,” Mandi said, “Some people see something bare, but Jocelyn    51    ‘chocolate’. We should learn to    52    the ‘chocolate’. This is something I must learn to do myself.” I silently    53    in my heart. Fortunately, two years later, Mandi overcame her    54   . I believe a certain kind of    55    helped her a lot. 41. A. formally B. barely C. instantly D. carefully 42. A. precious B. abstract C. colorful D. transparent 43. A. barrier B. reflection C. expectation D. memory 44. A. turned B. searched C. glanced D. stepped 45. A. announced B. predicted C. negotiated D. overlooked 46. A. scenery B. history C. relationship D. pleasure 47. A. amused B. embarrassed C. exhausted D. puzzled 48. A. leaves B. branches C. introductions D. functions 49. A. interesting B. positive C. educational D. classical 50. A. sounded B. proved C. appeared D. acted 51. A. acquired B. reserved C. sustained D. perceived 52. A. make for B. account for C. look for D. stand for 53. A. promised B. approved C. imagined D. answered 54. A. tension B. prejudice C. routine D. illness 55. A. spirit B. kindness C. dream D. arrangement 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 No longer merely a gateway for international dining brands and top - tier French fare, Shanghai now brims with Taizhou and Ningbo cuisine as well as Teochew, Fujian, Yunnan and Sichuan flavours at    56    (province) restaurants sure to impress even the most seasoned foodies. This transformation, however, was    57    gradual process. It began with pioneering some institutions,    58    introduced Taizhou cuisine to the city in 2010. For years, their presence remained the city’s best - kept secret,    59    (enjoy) by local insiders but largely unknown to the international culinary world. The turning point came    60    the arrival of prestigious culinary guides. Shanghai    61    (announce) as the home of the Chinese mainland’s first Michelin Guide in 2017,    62    (signal) a new era of recognition for Chinese chefs. This was    63    (rapid) followed by the launch of China’s own Black Pearl Restaurant Guide. These guides have since played a key role in shifting the spotlight towards local talents. For chefs, the pursuit of critical acclaim (称赞) became a powerful move    64    (improve) standards, invest in provenance and refine techniques. “These awards have significantly raised the    65    (visible) of local Chinese restaurants, ” says a renowned chef. In this cosmopolitan metropolis, chefs are now confidently reimagining traditional dishes. Nowhere else in China can you enjoy such varieties in a single day. 第四部分 写作 （共两节，满分40分） 第一节 （满分15分） 假定你是李华，最近你参加了学校组织的科技创新比赛，但并没有取得理想的成绩。请你给外国网友Peter写一封邮件，告知他此事，内容包括： （1）比赛的过程； （2）失利的原因； （3）改进措施。 注意： （1）写作词数应为80个左右； （2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Peter, Yours, Li Hua 第二节 （满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 Getting home from Eastern Europe was a long trip, but my friends and I wanted to enjoy our three - hour stop in Paris. We didn’t have time to leave the airport, so Mark, John and I chose a nice airport restaurant. I decided to take a photo of the menu to remember it. I reached into my backpack for my camera, expecting to feel my passport too. I always kept it close during our two - week English teaching trip. I found my camera, but where was my passport? I started to panic. I opened my backpack wide and checked every pocket. It was gone. “My passport is missing, ” I told Mark and John. John asked, “Do you remember when you last had it? ” I thought hard: We flew from Minsk to Paris. I definitely had it when we landed. I took it out several times at checkpoints. My friends were taller and walked faster, so I often hurried to keep up. I remembered putting my passport back quickly. I thought to myself, “Did it fall out then? How could I fly to San Francisco without it? ” I stood up. “I need to go back the way we came, ” I said. I walked through the busy airport to the first checkpoint we passed earlier. Using my basic French, I asked an airport worker if anyone found an American passport. “No, madam, ” he said. He told me to ask at the security desk, but I got lost. I asked several people, but no one could tell me where the security desk was. I felt hopeless. Time was running out. Each passing minute made my stomach tighten with anxiety, but I couldn’t give up. Then, I thought about the seats where we first sat when we arrived at this terminal (航站楼) . Maybe I dropped it there. A small spark of hope cut through my worry. It was my last but best idea. I hurried back to that area. The seats were mostly empty, except for a middle - aged man sitting next to where I had been. He was looking around, holding something in his hand. 注意： （1）续写词数应为150个左右； （2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 I walked over and the man noticed me. I quickly went to a nearby café and bought the man a coffee. 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026 年安徽省示范高中皖北协作区第 28 届联考 英语参考答案 听力部分录音材料 听力部分。该部分分为第一、第二两节。 注意：回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上。 M: Hello. International Friends Club. Can I help you? W: Oh, hello. I read about your club in the paper today and I thought I’d phone to find out a bit more. M: Yes, certainly. Well, we are a sort of social club for people from different countries. It’s quite a new club — we have about 50 members at the moment, but we are growing all the time. W: That sounds interesting. I’m British actually, and I came to Washington about three months ago. I’m looking for ways to meet people. Er, what kinds of events do you organize? M: Well, we have social get - togethers, and sports events, and we also have language evenings. W: Could you tell me something about the language evenings? M: Yes. Every day except Thursday we have a language evening. People can come and practice their languages — you know, over a drink or something. We have different languages on different evenings. Monday — Spanish; Tuesday — Italian; Wednesday — German; and Friday — French. On Thursday we usually have a meal in a restaurant for anyone who wants to come. W: Well, that sounds great. I really need to practice my French. M: OK. Well, if you can just give me your name and address, I’ll send you the form and some more information. If you join now, you can have the first month free. 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 M: Excuse me. Can you tell me how much the shirt is? W: Yes, it’s nine fifteen. (Text 1) W: This car looks great! You just bought it years ago. What’s the reason for selling it? M: It’s reliable but bad for the environment. I’m thinking of buying an electric car. W: That makes sense. It’s cheaper and more eco - friendly. (Text 2) W: Mr Smith’s teaching style is really engaging, especially when he uses real - life examples. M: I can’t agree more. He explains tough stuff so clearly that even the most complex topic seems easy. (Text 3) W: Did you watch the film about wildlife in the North Pole last night? The camera work was fantastic! M: Absolutely! I heard the director spent two years recording polar bears’ behavior in extreme conditions. (Text 4) M: Are you free to hang out this evening? W: I wish I could, but I have so much work to finish. I’ll be stuck in the office late again. M: You’ve been busy lately. W: Yeah, it has been two weeks since I last watched TV at home. (Text 5) W: The washing machine doesn’t work again. Should I ask Henry to fix it? He’s good at solving these problems. M: No need. I’ve downloaded a repair guide online. W: Great. 第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 (Text 6) M: Hi, I’m a member of the student union in the university. If you have any problems, just let me know. W: Thanks! How long have you been here? M: This is my fourth year. I’ll graduate, so this is my first year without lessons and lectures to go to! W: That must be nice! I’m new here. I love the university. Everything is so good, and everyone seems so friendly! M: Glad to hear that! See you around! (Text 7) W: Mike, where is the research paper? You said you would bring it to the class. We must put it into our presentation. M: I knew I forgot something at home this morning! That was it. W: Everyone else in class has almost finished the project. We’ll have to finish it this afternoon in the library. M: Sorry, Sarah. I was just so tired this morning when I left for school. W: It’s OK. I don’t mean to blame you. I just brought my laptop with all my pictures and videos for the presentation. So, the paper is the only thing we’re missing. M: I understand. Don’t worry. I promise I’ll bring the paper this afternoon. We’ll be ready to present the project tomorrow morning. (Text 8) M: Stacey, how was your last weekend? W: Great. I went shopping and had dinner with my eldest daughter. It was a great time for us. M: Nice. I didn’t know you were married. W: Actually, I have three daughters and a son. My two younger daughters refused shopping, and my son chose to play football and basketball with my husband. M: Did you buy much? W: Yes. I bought a dress for my sister as it’s her fiftieth birthday on Wednesday. And I bought coats for my children as it has been snowing lately. M:I also bought warm trousers last weekend. I miss the warm weather sometimes. I might go somewhere warm to spend my holiday. W: Sounds wonderful! Personally speaking, I quite like this time of year as it will be Christmas soon. （Text 9） M: Hello, Lucy. Nice to meet you! W: Morning. Thank you for seeing me, sir! M: Why do you think you are suitable for this position? W: Because I love to teach and I am very passionate about literature. Having taught at two other schools over the past ten years, I have lots of experience. And I received my master’s degree five years ago. M: What are your strengths? W: I have great communication skills. I can speak in front of large groups of people comfortably. I believe that my passion for literature would aid me in my role. And I have published my own poems and stories. M: What are your weaknesses? W: My main weakness may pay too much attention to discipline. Sometimes, I am too strict with my students, especially when they make mistakes. M: I see, and why do you want a job here? W: Because the school’s values are in line with my morals. The school rules are fair and strict. M: What is the reason that you left your last school? W: Although it is close to my home, there were too few physical activities in that school. （Text 10） W: My name’s Sophia. I’m going to show you my trip to London. Although the underground and the taxi are fast ways into central London, my family decided to take the bus, so we could look out of the window while traveling. Unfortunately, there was so much fog that we couldn’t see clearly when we were on the London Eye. Even though the weather was bad, it didn’t stop us from having a good time. Usually, you can experience four seasons all in one week in London! It rains just a minute ago, but then it becomes sunny. There were Christmas trees everywhere. There were also many Christmas activities. Winter Wonderland in Hyde Park, one of the most popular ones, was appealing to me. After a day of exploring, we ate out in a Chinese restaurant. London is multicultural with cuisines from all over the world. I hope you enjoy following me around London. Please comment below and let me know what your favorite part is. Thanks for watching today. 试题答案 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分） 1 — 5 CACAA 6 — 10 CBBCC 11 — 15 BCBBA 16 — 20 CAABB 阅读（共 20 小题；每小题2.5分，满分50分） 21 — 23 BCD 24 — 27 ABCB 28 — 31 BDAA 32 — 35 CDDC 36 — 40 CEDGB 语言运用 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 41 — 45 BCBCD 46 — 50 ADABC 51 — 55 DCBDA 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 56. provincial 57. a 58. which 59. enjoyed 60. with 61. was announced 62. signalling/signaling 63. rapidly 64. to improve 65. visibility 评分原则： 1．铅笔作答不给分。 2．有拼写或大小写错误的作答不给分。 3．所填词汇正确，但有形式错误的不给分。 4．英式、美式拼写均可给分。 5．除所列答案外，若试评过程中发现其他可接受答案，经评卷专家组讨论确认后也可给分。 写作： 第一节（满分15分） 参考范文： Dear Peter， I want to share with you the recent technology innovation competition I participated in at our school， although the outcome wasn’t as ideal as I had hoped. During the competition， our team designed a smart recycling device aimed at improving waste classification efficiency. We presented it confidently to the judges， who asked questions and provided feedback throughout the process. However， we unexpectedly fell short of winning any award. Looking back， I believe our main weakness was insufficient testing under real - world conditions， which led to unexpected errors during the live demonstration. To improve， I plan to consult my physics teacher for professional advice and conduct repeated tests before my next attempt. I believe I’ll succeed in the end. Yours， Li Hua 一、写作要点 首先，学生在描述比赛过程时，要注意完整性与逻辑性。学生要清晰描述比赛的核心信息，包括比赛的核心任务（如参赛作品或项目、展示环节）、关键流程（如设计、展示、评委点评），避免遗漏核心要素。学生可适当补充过程中的具体细节（如作品目标、展示状态），表述要按逻辑顺序展开，避免内容混乱。 建议该部分满分计6分，若学生答到其他言之成理的方面，也可酌情给分。 其次，学生在分析失利的原因时，要注意针对性与具体性。学生要结合比赛过程，剖析失利根源，避免笼统表述（如准备不足、发挥不好），要聚焦具体问题（如测试欠缺、专业知识不足）。原因分析要贴合科技创新比赛的场景与主题，符合实际情况。 建议该部分满分计4分，若学生答到其他言之成理的方面，也可酌情给分。 最后，学生要注意改进措施的可行性与关联性。学生要针对失利原因提出具体且可操作的改进方案，避免空谈（如努力改进、继续加油），要结合自身情况说明具体做法（如咨询老师、强化测试），确保措施与失利原因紧密关联，体现切实的反思与改进意愿。 建议该部分满分计5分，若学生答到其他言之成理的方面，也可酌情给分。 二、评分原则 1．本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。 2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为： （1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。 （2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。 （3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。 3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 4．评分时还应注意： （1）词数少于 60 个的，酌情扣分。 （2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 （3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。 三、各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（13 — 15 分） ——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述清楚、合理。 ——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。 ——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档（10 — 12 分） ——覆盖了所有内容要点，表述比较清楚、合理。 ——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。 ——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。 达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档（7 — 9 分） ——覆盖了大部分内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚、合理。 ——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。 ——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。 基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档（4 — 6 分） ——遗漏或未清楚表述一些内容要点，或一些内容与写作目的不相关。 ——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。 ——几乎不能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。 未能达到预期的写作目的。 第一档（1 — 3 分） ——遗漏或未清楚表述大部分内容要点，或大部分内容与写作目的不相关。 ——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。 ——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。 完全未达到预期的写作目的。 零分 未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容与题目要求完全不相关。 第二节（满分 25 分） 参考范文： I walked over and the man noticed me. “Excuse me,” I said, “I lost my passport. Have you seen it?” He smiled with relief. “Is this yours?” he asked, showing me a blue passport. He explained that he was going to get a coffee when he saw the passport on the seat. He added that he had asked the people nearby, but it did not belong to any of them, so he waited there, hoping the owner would return. My heart jumped. I checked the passport and confirmed it was mine. I thanked him sincerely, telling him he had saved me. To express my gratitude, I decided to buy him a coffee. I quickly went to a nearby café and bought the man a coffee. When I returned, we talked for a minute. He was in a hurry for his flight too. After saying goodbye, I rushed back to the restaurant. Mark and John were worried. “Did you find it?” Mark asked. I held up my passport with a big smile. “Yes! A kind man found it and waited for me.” We gathered our things and went straight to our gate. As we boarded the flight home, I held my passport tightly. The rest of the journey felt safe and easy, thanks to the help of a stranger. 一、写作要点 第一段： 核心内容：学生要清晰呈现陌生男子的行为细节，体现他乐于助人的角色定位，同时要阐述我从绝望、焦虑到重拾希望、满心感激的心理变化。另外学生还要根据下一段的首句提示做出预判，写作内容应该涉及决定购买咖啡来感谢陌生男子的细节。 可展开方向：补充我询问时的急切语气、内心的忐忑；描写陌生男子归还护照时的神态、动作细节，以及两人沟通时的互动（如陌生人解释发现护照的过程、耐心等待的缘由），为后续致谢行为和情感升华做铺垫。 建议该部分满分计 13 分，若学生答到其他言之成理的方面，也可酌情给分。 第二段： 核心内容：学生要描述我通过买咖啡来感谢陌生男子的善意，体现“传递善意、温暖同行”的核心主题。同时要展现与朋友汇合、顺利登机的温馨场景,强化情感共鸣。 可展开方向：学生可以加入我买咖啡时的急切与真诚、陌生男子接受致谢时的回应（如礼貌推辞后欣然接受、简单的祝福）；学生可描写朋友们由担心变为安心的场景以及大家顺利登机时的释然，凸显故事“善意不分国界、温暖照亮旅途”的积极意义。 建议该部分满分计 12 分，若学生答到其他言之成理的方面，也可酌情给分。 二、评分原则 1．本题总分为 25 分，按五个档次进行评分。 2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为： （1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。 （2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。 （3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。 3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 4．评分时还应注意： （1）词数少于 120 个的，酌情扣分。 （2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。 （3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。 三、各档次的给分范围和要求 第五档（21 — 25 分） ——创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。 ——使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。 ——有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。 第四档（16 — 20 分） ——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高。 ——使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。 ——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。 第三档（11 — 15 分） ——创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。 ——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。 ——基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。 第二档（6 — 10 分） ——内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。 ——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。 ——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。 第一档（1 — 5 分） ——内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。 ——所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。 ——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。 零分 未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $