山东新泰市第一中学北校2025-2026学年高二下学期第一次大单元考试英语试卷

新泰一中北校高二下学期第一次大单元考试英语答题卡 2026.3.26 考号 姓名 班级 准考证 条形码粘贴 [o][o][o][o][o][o][o][o][o] [[[[[[[[ 考生须知 [2[2][2][2][2][2][2][2][2] 4、考生答题前，在规定的地方准确填写考号和姓名。 3]3][3[3][3][3][3][3]3] 5、选择题作答时，必须用2B铅笔填涂，如需要对答案进行修改，应 [4][4][4][4][4][4[4[4][4] 使用绘图橡皮轻擦干净，注意不要擦破答题卷。 [5][5)[5[5[5][][5][5][5] [6][6[6][6][6][6[6][6][6] 6、 非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔作答。严格按照答题要 [][][7][7][7][7][7][7][7] 求，在答题卷对应题号指定的答题区域内答题，切不可超出黑色 [8][8][8][8][8][8][8][8][8] 边框，超出黑色边框的答案无效。 [9][9][9][9][9][9][9][9][9] 7、 作图题可先用铅笔绘出，确认后，再用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔 描清楚。 第一部分客观题（请用2B铅笔填涂） 1 [A [B [C [D 6 [A [B [C [D 11[A[B[C[D 16[A][B][C][D] 2 [A [B [C [D 7 [A [B [C [D 12[A[B[C[D 17[A][B][C][D] 3 [A [B [C [D 8 [A [B [C [D 13[A[B[C[D 18[A][B][C][D] 4 [A [B [C [D 9 [A [B [C [D 14[A[B[C[D 19[A][B][C][D] 5 [A [B [C [D 10[A[B[C[D 15[A[B[C[D 20[A][B][C][D] 21[A[B[C[D 26[A[B[C[D 31[A[B[C[D 36[A][B][C][D][E][F][G] 22[A[B[C[D 27[A[B[C[D 32[A[B[C[D 37[A][B][C][D][E][E][G] 23[A[B[C[D 28[A[B[C[D 33[A[B[C[D 38[A][B][C][D][E][F][G] 24[A[B[C[D 29[A[B[C[D 34[A[B[C[D 39[A][B][C][D][E][F][G] 25[A[B[C[D 30[A[B[C[D 35[A[B[C[D 40[A][B][C][D][E][E][G 41[A[B[C[D 46[A[B[C[D 51[A[B[C[D 42[A[B[C[D 47[A[B[C[D 52[A[B[C[D 43[A[B[C[D 48[A[B[C[D 53[A[B[C[D 44[A[B[C[D 49[A[B[C[D 54[A[B[C[D 45[A[B[C[D 50[A[B[C[D 55[A[B[C[D 第一节：语法填空（每空1.5分，共15分) 56. 57. 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 ■ 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 写作（共两节，满分40分) 第一节应用文（满分15分) Dear Mr.Smith, Yours Li Hua 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 第二节读后续写（满分25分) I read the e-mail 20 times before finally believing I succeeded. I held my breath as Bethany read my story,worried about her response. 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 ■ ■ 空白区域，请勿答题 请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效 新泰一中北校高二下学期第一次大单元考试 英语试题 本试卷分第I卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）。 第I卷 注意事项： 1．答第I卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the man think of Mary? A. She’s competent. B. She’s creative. C. She’s friendly. 2. What is the topic of the conversation? A. Tips on doing exercise. B. Methods of revision. C. Ways of reading maps. 3. Where are probably the speakers? A. At a drug store. B. In a restaurant. C. At a butcher’s. 4. What does the woman think is the reason for her sore throat? A. Talking too much. B. Spicy food. C. A cold. 5. When does the conversation take place? A. In March. B. In April. C. In May. 第二节（共15小题：每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Which game will be played first during the outing? A. A treasure hunt. B. A relay race. C. A team quiz. 7. What prizes will be given to the winning team? A. Cash rewards. B. Gift cards. C. Extra vacation days. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What has the new chemical plant invested heavily in? A. Environmental protection. B. The locals’ employment. C. Safety measures. 9. How can the public learn more about the chemical plant’s operations? A. By visiting the chemical plant in person. B. By watching its online documentaries. C. By reading reports in newspapers. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Fellow workers. B. Husband and wife. C. Tour guide and tourist. 11. When will the man get back from Chengdu? A. Next Friday. B. Next Saturday. C. Next Sunday. 12. What does the man most expect to do in Chengdu? A. Try the hot pot. B. Visit some tea houses. C. See the pandas. 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。 13. What inspired the woman to write the new novel? A. Her adventure in a coastal town. B. Her encounter with a mysterious stranger. C. Her desire to explore the bond between two people. 14. How long did the woman spend writing the new novel? A. About six months. B. About eight months. C. About two years. 15. What does the woman say about the new novel? A. She went through many drafts of it. B. It talks a lot about external conflicts. C. It is quite different from her previous works. 16. What advice does the woman give to other writers? A. Sticking to writing. B. Writing stories in depth. C. Letting the thoughts flow naturally. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. What was the initial motivation for starting the Hospital for Soft Toys? A. A volunteer’s longing to help children in hospitals. B. An architect’s wish to create a toy - recycling program. C. A mother’s question about how to deal with some toys. 18. Who was the founder of the Hospital for Soft Toys? A. Mirady Acosta. B. Lilian Gluck. C. Silvia Heiber. 19. What items does the Hospital for Soft Toys collect besides toys? A. School supplies and shoes. B. Medicine and food. C. Toolboxes and shopping bags. 20. What is beneficial to the volunteers in Silvia Heiber’s view? A. Dressing a soft toy. B. Smoothing a soft toy’s fur. C. Adding filling to a soft toy. 第二部分阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Books are windows to different lives and deep truths, inviting us to cross time and borders without stepping out. Among 2025’s publications, we, New York Times, unfold a collection of carefully selected literary treasures worth a place on your shelf. A Marriage at Sea by Sophie Elmhirst In 1972, the Baileys sailed for New Zealand, only to have their boat destroyed by a whale nine months later. Trapped on a rough float, they struggled to survive 118 days in the Pacific. Elmhirst vividly shows their fears, small wins and endless waits — moments when death felt near, leading readers to reflect deeply on loneliness, courage and partnership. Mother Emanuel by Kevin Sack In 2015,a white racist shot and killed nine people in Charleston’s Emanuel A.M.E. Church, a site rooted in Black American history. Sack, spent nearly 10 years crafting this book, which tells the church’s important role in the nation’s story and highlights the strength of those who refused to be broken. It’s a moving record of hope and courage in the face of hate. Mother Mary Comes to Me by Arundhati Roy This memoir is honest yet full of dark humor, as Roy writes about her mother — a tough woman who inspired her to be a writer and activist, but also left deep emotional marks. Roy doesn’t hide her own flaws either. From the tight - knit Indian community she fled, to the world stage, she’s just as strong - willed and unforgettable as her mother. There Is No Place for Us by Brian Goldstone Journalist Goldstone explores America’s “working homeless” — a heartbreaking and conflicting reality affecting hundreds of thousands. By following five Atlanta families bouncing between cars and couches, he reveals how high rents, low salaries and poor policies have pushed them to the edge. Their stories give voice to the ignored, turning numbers into real lives. 21. What does Sophie Elmhirst intend to convey in her book? A. Emergency responses to whale attacks. B. Human spirits in extreme challenges. C. Risks in ocean exploration. D. Preparations for ocean voyages. 22. Which book is most suitable for readers concerned about realistic social problems? A. A Marriage at Sea. B. Mother Emanuel. C. Mother Mary Comes to Me. D. There Is No Place for Us. 23. In which column of the newspaper can we most probably read the passage? A. Fashion. B. Science. C. Culture. D. Health. B Jane Goodall, the famous primatologist (灵长类动物学家) , well - known for her groundbreaking research on chimpanzees (黑猩猩) passed away last year at the age of 91. Born in 1934 in London, Goodall’s fascination with animals was sparked when her mother took her to visit a country farm when she was 4. There, she wandered to a henhouse patiently observing a hen laying an egg. “Mom had been desperately looking for me; she’d called the police. But when she saw my shining eyes, she sat down to hear my wonderful story of how a hen lays an egg.” She credited her mother’s support at that moment — and later in life — for paving the way for her career. In 1960, at age 26, Goodall traveled to Tanzania’s Gombe Stream National Park to study chimpanzees. She made history when she discovered that chimpanzees, humankind’s closest living relatives, made and used tools, which was long thought exclusive to humans. She also found that chimps hunted prey, ate meat, and had emotions and behaviors similar to humans. Her findings reshaped scientific understanding of primate behavior and human evolution (进化) . During her long - term studies, she gave her chimp subjects names instead of numbers, a practice that raised eyebrows in the male - dominated field of primate studies in the 1960s. But within a decade, she became a National Geographic heroine, her books and films educating worldwide audiences with stories of the apes she called Graybeard, McGregor, and Gilka. Beyond her research, Goodall became a global conservation advocate. In 1977, she founded the Jane Goodall Institute to protect chimpanzees and their habitats. She also launched the “Roots & Shoots” program, engaging youth worldwide in environmental and animal welfare projects. As a UN Messenger of Peace, she traveled extensively to raise awareness about conservation, poverty, and climate change, emphasizing the connections of human, animal, and environmental well - being. Goodall’s legacy lies in her unwavering belief that “every individual matters.” 24. What contributed to Goodall’s lifelong pursuit of animal career? A. Her deep fascination with animals. B. Her mother’s unconditional support. C. Her observation of a hen laying eggs. D. Her shining curiosity in animals’ stories. 25. Why was Goodall’s discovery about chimpanzees groundbreaking? A. It revealed how the chimpanzees evolved. B. It showed tools were not unique to humans. C. It highlighted chimpanzees behaved the same as humans. D. It proved chimpanzees were humankind’s closest relatives. 26. How does Goodall’s study differ from others’? A. It involves more humanity. B. It takes longest time. C. It is equipped with advanced tools. D. It is male - dominated. 27. Which of the following can best describe Jane Goodall? A. Selfless and confident. B. Generous and ambitious. C. Optimistic and modest. D. Committed and compassionate. C In the past decade Google searches for “solo travel” have more than doubled. In Britain the share of travellers going on holiday by themselves has nearly tripled, says the Association of British Travel Agents, from 6% in 2011 to 17% in 2024. Why are so many people travelling alone? Just as Grand Tours became a ceremony for young noblemen, solo travel today is less about finding distant places than finding yourself. Hilton, a hospitality company, calls the trend “me - mooning” which is opposed to “honeymooning” . Meanwhile, those not searching for themselves are looking for an adventure. People “travel not to go anywhere, but to go” , as Robert Louis Stevenson, the author of Treasure Island, put it. Solo travellers describe the thrill of doing whatever they want, whenever they want. Research has shown that self - driven solitude can boost creativity and well - being. And, rather than hanging out with the mates they have, many travel alone in order to meet new friends and lovers. The isolation of the pandemic made people “more open” to roaming with strangers, says Lee Thompson of Flash Pack, a tour operator. The firm, which uses the slogan “arrive solo, leave as friends” , now takes twice as many bookings as it did before Covid - 19. Millennials and Gen Z are particularly keen on travelling: they spend a larger share of their income on trips than their older peers do. Many are postponing getting married and having children, so have the flexibility to head off on trip when they please. On TikTok influencers advocate the virtues of independent travelling: “Stop waiting for someone to join you.” Women, in particular, are welcoming that trend. By one estimate, 84% of solo travellers are female. A century ago women were warned not to travel without a male companion; today many say they are not afraid to travel unaccompanied. Women today have the competence, and the time, to follow their feet. 28. What does “me - mooning” refer to? A. Remote destination exploration. B. Group - focused adventures. C. Solo travel for self - discovery. D. Honeymoon for couples. 29. Why do some people travel alone according to Flash Pack? A. To boost their creativity and well - being. B. To form new friendships and relationships. C. To avoid the spread of pandemic. D. To escape from their daily routines. 30. What can we know about Millennial and Gen Z tourists? A. They have flexible time and bigger budget for trips. B. They are keen on travelling with mates. C. They prioritize marriage and family over travel. D. They behave like older generation. 31. What can we infer from last paragraph? A. Women are still unwilling to travel alone. B. Most females prefer travelling accompanied by men. C. Women face multiple challenges when travelling alone. D. Women are embracing solo travel despite historical restrictions. D For years, we’ve been teaching a class on music and the mind. At the start of each semester, we asked the students to complete a survey on their favorite songs and artists. Students’ favorite songs and artists get longer and more varied each year and their playlists barely overlap (重叠) . Indeed, listening to music is a deeply private and personal experience nowadays and even more so with the introduction of the iPhone and smartphones. When teenagers listen to music via streaming, artificial intelligence and social media platforms team up to suggest personalized playlists for them. Some young people feel that AI generated playlists make them exposed to something uninteresting. Their playlists are populated with songs and artists they’ve never heard of before, yet they all sound similar. In the past, they might not have noticed such a situation. Their musical consumption was dominated (占主导) by “theTop - 40” artists. However, AI generated playlists have changed this, since a wider range of music is available. Furthermore, if they think their AI influenced playlists are unappealing, they still have the ability to search for new music just because AI doesn’t prevent them researching and discovering music on their own. Anything that exists, they can find. The store is always open. As young people transition (过渡) from childhood to adulthood with various styles of music, two seemingly opposing processes become essential — forming a unique identity while becoming part of a community. Music listening and preferences play an important role in it and AI generated playlists may have the potential to challenge this transition. Fears of new technologies are common. For example, the decline of scheduled network TV erased lots of common ground for discussion. Will 50 million Americans ever again watch the series ending of a TV show, as they did for Friends in 2004? And will AI make it easier to differentiate the self, but harder to bond with others? 32. What do we know about students’ favorite playlists from the survey? A. They are becoming more and more similar. B. They have little in common with each other. C. They are mainly made up of Top - 40 songs. D. They are designed by their music teachers. 33. Why do some young people dislike AI generated playlists? A. The playlists are not updated in time. B. The music in the playlists is hard to find. C. The music in the playlists sounds alike. D. The playlists lack personalized elements. 34. Which may the author agree with regarding young people’s transition to adulthood? A. Listening to music has little effect on social bonding. B. Young people should avoid using AI generated playlists. C. Music preferences stop the development of personal identity. D. Forming a unique identity and joining a community are both vital. 35. Why does the author mention the TV series Friends in the text? A. To stress the power of traditional media. B. To introduce a popular TV show to readers. C. To show the potential social influence of AI. D. To compare the current expression with past ones. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Self - care includes intentional actions to support your well - being. It includes activities designed to care for your physical, mental, and emotional health.    36    Physical Self - Care We need to take care of our bodies if we want them to run better. Remember that there’s a strong connection between our body and our mind.    37    Physical self - care includes fueling your body, getting enough sleep, doing enough physical activity, and caring for your physical needs. Social Self - Care Socialization is key to self - care.    38    We sometimes ignore our relationships when life gets busy. Close connections are important to your well - being. The best way to keep close relationships is to put time and energy into building our relationships with others. Mental Self - Care Mental self - care includes activities that keep your mind sharp, like puzzles or learning about a subject that attracts you.    39    Mental self - care also includes doing things that help you stay mentally healthy. Practicing self - acceptance, for example, helps you maintain healthier mental condition. Emotional Self - Care It’s important to have practical skills to deal with uncomfortable emotions, like anger, anxiety, and sadness. Emotional self - care may include activities that help us identify and express our feelings regularly and safely.    40    What works for you might not be as effective or helpful for someone else. The best way to support yourself is to find things that help reduce your stress, bring you joy, and support your physical and social well - being. A. Remember, self - care isn’t one - size - fits - all. B. But, often, it’s hard to make time for friends. C. It means taking the time to do what we enjoy. D. Without self - care, our physical health will suffer a lot. E. When we care for our bodies, we’ll think and feel better, too. F. Reading books or watching inspiring movies might also refresh your mind. G. Understanding self - care can help you create a balanced way to care for yourself. 第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 As a kid, passionately fond of reading, I feasted on books until my eyes blurred. But in the digital age, my deep focus has gradually    41    with endless phone scrolling. Reading, once a    42   , now feels more like a willpower challenge than a source of refreshment. Determined to regain that love, I made a small    43    a year ago: every unknown word I    44    — whether in novels or conversations — I would look up and note down.    45    , I kept this simple list on my phone, the very device that had    46    my reading. Each week, I spent minutes reviewing the list to    47    those words in my memory. This tiny practice proved    48   . Every time I recorded a word, I felt my seldom - used brain    49    again, breaking the cycle of mindless scrolling. Admittedly, sticking to it was    50   . I often had to pause reading to    51    e - dictionary, slowing my pace. What’s more, even noted down, most of these words were just like admired yet rarely used museum pieces, never making an    52    in my daily communication. Though using my phone as a tool for slow thinking feels    53    in an era of distracted attention, this    54    has brought definite gains: my mind has grown keener, and I now reach for precise words instead of the same worn - out adjectives. Best of all, I’ve regained the pleasure of reading — a    55    once feared lost. 41. A. replaced B. survived C. faded D. advanced 42. A. task B. burden C. reward D. joy 43. A. mission B. approach C. list D. promise 44. A. turned up B. came across C. hunted for D. left behind 45. A. Fortunately B. Unexpectedly C. Interestingly D. Obviously 46. A. assisted B. ruined C. directed D. misled 47. A. plant B. remind C. expand D. remove 48. A. demanding B. predictable C. transformative D. efficient 49. A. awakening B. wandering C. improving D. declining 50. A. tricky B. simple C. urgent D. inspiring 51. A. go through B. look for C. take up D. refer to 52. A. attempt B. appearance C. effort D. impression 53. A. normal B. natural C. unconventional D. unavoidable 54. A. practice B. policy C. initiative D. lesson 55. A. comfort B. treasure C. custom D. gift 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式 China is widely recognized as the hometown of kites, with a rich history of making and flying them. It is widely believed that kites    56    (invent) 2,500 years ago, during the Spring and Autumn Period. Later kites were used    57    (measure) distance, test the wind, and rescue people. During the Tang Dynasty, kites were used more    58    a tool for fun. At first, only royal or rich family    59    (member) could play with kites. Then it became popular among common people who flew them on important events and festivals. Every year in spring    60    the Tomb - sweeping day comes, almost every household went out to fly the kite and had a picnic on sunny and windy days. Everyone tried to fly their kites higher and    61    (far) than others.    62    was a good time to display the kites as well as enjoy the warm weather and the fresh air. Nowadays, flying kites has become a popular form of pleasure and competition. More than just a pastime, it reflects a    63    (commit) to preserving traditional culture while embracing a healthy lifestyle. Flying kites in spring day can benefit your health    64    (physical) and mentally. It provides gentle exercise that enhances coordination and stamina (耐力) . At the same time, focusing on guiding the kite against the breeze serves as a form of mind relaxation, effectively    65    (free) one from daily stress and worries. 第四部分写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节应用文写作（满分15分） 假定你是李华，你所在的国际学校正在对校心理咨询室（Psychological Counseling Room）的工作开展情况（时间、活动等）收集真实反馈，请你给负责老师Mr.Smith写一封邮件，内容包括： 1．存在不足； 2．你的建议。 注意： （1）写作词数应为80左右； （2）请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。 Dear Mr. Smith, ___________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________ ___________________________________________________________ Yours Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 “What are you writing?” Sighing, I slammed my notebook shut. My sister Bethany, two years older than me, is always poking her nose into my business. “Nothing,” I replied. I didn’t tell her I was entering a writing competition in case I didn’t win. Bethany is always winning at her dancing competitions, Mum has lots of bowling trophies (奖杯) , and Dad is the top player at his golf club. I started ballet lessons when I was younger, but I was always facing the wrong way and bumping into (撞) everyone. I’m even worse at sport. But I do love English at school, especially writing stories. Miss Susan is my favorite teacher and she suggested I enter this competition. I felt a warm light when she said she thought my stories were excellent. “Is it your secret diary?” Bethany yawned, opening the fridge. Mum arrived, loaded with shopping bags. “Who’s keeping a secret diary?” “Nobody. I’m keeping a notebook as I want to be a writer,” I said, annoyed. Bethany snorted (哼) , “Now she thinks she’s going to be the next Shakespeare.” “Our Maisie maybe will be a famous writer. All her teachers praise her composition,” Mum leapt to my defence. “Miss Susan says I should write about what I know, so you’d better watch out,” I told Bethany darkly. Bethany took a bottle of milk from the fridge and bounded (跳跃着跑) upstairs and yelled, “I don’t want to be in your stupid story!” “Ignore her,” Mum said. “Keep going with your story.” Weeks passed, and the memory of the competition slowly faded beneath the busy rhythm of everyday life. Then one afternoon, as I was lazily scrolling through my e - mails, a notification (通知) from the competition organizers suddenly appeared. 1．续写词数应为150左右； 2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 I read the e - mail 20 times before finally believing I succeeded. _________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ I held my breath as Bethany read my story, worried about her response____________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $