2026年中考英语第一次模拟考试（长沙卷）

2025-2026学年中考第一次模拟考试（湖南长沙卷） 英语·答题卡 姓 名： 条码粘贴处 考 缺考标记一 注意事项 违纪标记 1.答题前， 考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。 以上标记由监考 2.请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处]的方框内。 3.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂：非选择题必须用0.5m黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。 人员用2B铅笔 4.请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。 填涂！ 5.保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。 6 填涂样例正确■错误-][√][] 选择题（请用2B铅笔填涂） (1一20小题，每小题1分，21-35每小题2分；36一45小题，每小题1.5分) 1[A][B][C] 6.[A]IB][C] 11[A][B][C] 16.[A][B][C] 2[A][B][C] 7A][B]IC] 12[A][B]IC] 17[A][B][C] 3.A[B1[C] 8[A][B][C] 13.A[B1[C] 18[A][B][C] 4A1[B][C] 9.[AI[B][C] 14[A][B][C] 19.A]IB][C] 5.[A][B][C] 10.A1[B]IC] 15.[A][B][C] 20.[A][B][C] 21.[A][B][C] 26.[A][B][C] 31.[A][B][C] 22A1[B1[CI 27.A1[B1IC] 23A1[B1IC1 28.IA1[B1[C1 24.A1[B1[C1 29.[A1[B1[C1 25.[A1[B1IC1 30.[A][B][C] 32[A][B][C][D][E] 33.[A][B]ICI[D][E] 34[AJIBJIC][D][E] 35[A][B][C][D][E] 36.A1[B1IC1 41[A][B][C] 37.A1[B1IC1 42A1[B1【C1 38.[A][B][C] 43.[A][B][C] 39.A[B1IC1 44.A1IB1[C145. 40.[A][B][C] AJ[B][C] 英语第1页（共2页） 五、短文填空(10小题，每小题1分，共10分) 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 分 52. 53 54 55 六、阅读短文回答问题(5小题，每小题2分，共10分)。 56. 57 58. 59. 60 八、书面表达(15分) 英语第2页（共2页）听力考试正式开始。I'd like to paint our bedroom White. What do you think . I prefer? Blue is my favorite color. I'd like to paint our bedroom White. What do . you think I prefer? Blue IT is my favorite color. Listen to the next question. Hi, my name is Linda. I just moved in . last week. Welcome, i'm jack. I moved here two years ago. Hi, my name is Linda. I just moved in last week. Welcome. i'm jack. I moved here two years ago. Listen to the next question. How much is the . second handed back? Well, it's fifty dollars. How much is the second hand back? Well, is fifty dollars. Listen to the next question. Linda, would you like a sand wish for lunch? Oh, no. I have been bored with sand wages. I want to have a hamburger. Linda, would you like a sand wish for lunch? Oh no. I have been barred with sandwich es. I want to have a hamburger. Listen to the next question. Good evening. My name is Johnson, David Johnson. We've booked two rooms online. Let me see. Yes, two double rooms for three nights. Here are your cars. Good evening. My name is Johnson, David Johnson. We've booked two rooms online. Let me see, yes, two double rooms for three nights. Here are your cars. Listen to the next . question, Kevin, what is this math? Clean this up. Okay, I would do IT in a minute. Let me just finish this game. No, you need to make your bed, sweep the floor and do the dishes. Now. mom, that's unfair. Kevin, what is this mess? Clean this up. Okay. I would do IT in a minute. Let me just finish this game. No, you need to make your bed, sweep the floor and to do the dishes. Now, mom, that's unfair. Listen to the next question. tim, your english, she's so good now. Thank you, Sally. I take some english lessons online. They are very helpful. You learn very fast. How often do you practice english? I practice every day except sunday. I'm busy on sunday because I have piano lessons and football training on that day. Tim, your english is so good now. Thank you, Sally. I take some english lessons online. They are very helpful. You learn very fast. How often do you practice english? I practice every day except sunday and busy on sunday, because I have piano lessons and football training on that day. Listen to the next question. Hello, amy. What are you listening to? Hi sam. I'm listening to 2泉映月。What kind of music . is that is? Chinese folk music . sounds beautiful, but kind of sad. I prefer . rock music is too noisy. I don't think so. I think it's energetic. Hello, amy. What are you listening to? Hi sam. I'm listening to 2泉映月。What kind of music . is that is? Chinese folk music . sounds beautiful, but kind of sad. I prefer rock music . is too noisy. I don't . think so. I think it's energetic. Listen to the next question. Hi dave, where are you going this weekend? I'm going to the mountain with some friends. Would you . like to join us? Yes, i'd love to. How will you get there? We are thinking about taking the subway. IT is more convenient. Sounds great. Where will you leave? How about leaving at half past nine on saturday morning? Okay, see you then. Hi dave, where are you going this weekend? I'm going to yell e mountain with some friends. Would you like to join us? Yes, i'd love to. How will you get there? We are . thinking about taking the subway. IT is more convenient. Sounds great. When will you leave? How about leaving at half past nine on saturday morning? OK see you then. Listen to the next . question. Hey, anna, long time. no. See, how was your holiday in成都？Not bad. The only problem is that I ve put on three kilos. I'm worried about IT. really. I guess you ate a lot of sutra food. That's true. Did you do anything interesting? tom? Yes, I joined a summer camp in australia and stayed there for . ten days. Sounds great. What did you do there? We went hiking in the wild. IT was a wonderful experience for me. Hey anna, long time. no. See how was your holiday in . chengdu? Not bad. The only problem is that I ve put on three kilos. I'm worried about IT. really. I guess you ate a lot of sutra food. That's true. Did you do anything interesting? tom? Yes, I joined a summer camp in australia and stay there for ten days. Sounds great. What did you do there? We went hiking in the wild. IT was a wonderful experience for me. Listen to the next question. Good morning, everyone. I'm excited to tell you about our next volunteering activity on march twenty second. This time, we are going to do something really meaningful. We will join a city clean up. It's a fantastic way to help out our community, and even though you are all busy with school work, it's also a great chance to hang out with your classmates and make new friends. IT will be a fun and unforgettable experience, so I really hope you can make IT. Let's come together and make our city cleaner and more beautiful. thanks. Good morning, everyone. I'm excited to tell you about our next volunteering activity on march twenty second. This time, we are going to do something really meaningful. We are join a city, clean up. It's a fantastic way to help out our community. And even though you are all busy with school work, it's also a great chance to hang out with your classmates and make new friends. IT will be a fun and unforgettable experience, so I really hope you can make IT. Let's come together and make our city cleaner and more beautiful. thanks. 听力部分到此结束。 2026年中考第一次模拟考试（长沙卷） 英语 （考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：100分） 注意事项： 1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3．回答非选择题时，必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或者钢笔将答案写在答题卡相应位置上。写在本试卷上无效。 4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分20分） 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。（共5小题，计5分） 1．What color does the woman prefer? A．Pink. B．White. C．Blue. 2．When did Jack move here? A．One week ago. B．Two years ago. C．Two weeks ago. 3．How much is the second-hand bike? A．40 dollars. B．50 dollars. C．100 dollars. 4．What does Linda want to eat for lunch? A．A hamburger. B．A sandwich. C．A hot dog. 5．Where is Mr. Johnson probably now? A．In a hotel. B．In a bookstore. C．In a cinema. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听一段材料，回答下面两个小题。 6．What is Kevin doing? A．Washing the dishes. B．Playing the game. C．Sweeping the floor. 7．What’s the relationship between the speakers? A．Mother and son. B．Teacher and student. C．Husband and wife. 听一段材料，回答下面两个小题。 8．How does Tim learn English? A．By taking online lessons. B．By going to a language school. C．By listening to English songs on CDs. 9．How often does Tim practice English? A．Two days a week. B．Four days a week. C．Six days a week. 听一段材料，回答下面两个小题。 10．What kind of music is Amy listening to? A．Folk music. B．Pop music. C．Rock music. 11．What does Sam think of rock music? A．It’s noisy. B．It’s beautiful. C．It’s energetic. 听一段材料，回答下面三个小题。 12．Where is Dave going this weekend with his friends? A．To Yuelu Mountain. B．To Orange Island. C．To Hunan Museum. 13．How will they go there? A．By car. B．By bike. C．By subway. 14．What time do they plan to leave? A．At 9:00 a.m. B．At 9:30 a.m. C．At 10:00 a.m. 听一段材料，回答下面三个小题。 15．What is Anna worried about? A．Her game. B．Her weight. C．Her schoolwork. 16．Where did Tom go? A．To Australia. B．To France. C．To America. 17．What did Tom do there? A．He went hiking. B．He went swimming. C．He visited museums. 听一段材料，回答下面三个小题。 18．When is the volunteering activity? A．On March 15th. B．On March 16th. C．On March 22nd. 19．What volunteering activity are they going to have? A．City Clean-up. B．Hospital Visit. C．Tree Planting. 20．Who is the speaker probably talking to? A．Students. B．Teachers. C．Parents. 第二部分 阅读（共两小节，满分30分） 第一节 （共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分） 阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A My name is Lara and I am a young traveller. I was so happy to travel in South Africa with my parents. This country has amazing natural beauty, friendly people, exciting adventures, and interesting history and culture. Boulders Beach Our first day started at Boulders Beach. Hundreds of African penguins live on the beach and get along well with tourists. We had lunch at a popular restaurant and ate a big plate of seafood and fish—it was perfect for a great start! Cape of Good Hope After lunch, we visited the Cape of Good Hope, one of South Africa’s most amazing places. We walked from the parking lot to the lighthouse in ten minutes. At the top, the wind was super strong, even though the weather was nice. On the way back, someone wanted to give us a free car ride, but Dad chose to walk to keep the beautiful views with his camera. Camps Bay The next day, we went to Camps Bay, which is a famous area in Cape Town with a beach of soft, white sand. There are lots of restaurants, shops and hotels along the coast (海岸). We spent hours there, playing at the beach and playground. 21．What did Lara do during the journey in South Africa? A．She took a lot of photos at Boulders Beach. B．She had great fun playing at the beach of Camps Bay. C．She enjoyed a big meal of seafood and fish at the Cape of Good Hope. 22．What type of writing is the passage? A．A camp advertisement. B．A short story. C．A travel record. B The Belt and Road Initiative(BRI, “一带一路”倡议) project started in 2013. Over the past years, the project has made a difference to many countries and areas. Muhammad Idrees from Pakistan is lucky to witness the changes. Idrees left his hometown when he was 9 years old to live with his uncle for better education in Islamabad, the capital of Pakistan. In 2013, the Chinese and Pakistani governments signed an MOU (国际协议) for the BRI. In the same year, Idrees graduated from college. “The project covered many fields in my country. For example, it helped produce more electricity, and build better roads and railways. What’s more, it has provided 236,000 new jobs in my country,” Idrees said. Two years later, Idrees got his master’s degree. After that, he worked in a company which was in a mountainous area in his country. He recalled that it used to take one of his colleagues (同事) five days to return to his home. Later, the roads were widened and more tunnels (隧道) were built because of the BRI project. The travel time has been shortened from five to two days. Idrees’ cousin and college teachers got their Ph.D．degrees (博士学位) in China. They all said China has great research facilities and labs. They suggested Idrees go to China for further study. Then Idrees followed their advice and now is at Shenzhen University for his Ph.D． 23．What does the underlined work “witness” mean? A．See sth. happen. B．Deal with sth. C．Break sth. down. 24．Which is not mentioned in Paragraph 3 and Paragraph 4? A．The BRI has helped Pakistan develop better. B．Idrees could buy more products from China. C．The traffic around Idrees’ old company was bad. 25．In what order is the article written? A．Importance order. B．Time order. C．Space order. 26．What will the writer talk about next most probably? A．Education in Pakistan. B．Idrees’s daily life in Pakistan. C．Idrees’ studies at Shenzhen University. C Pickleball (匹克球), a relaxing sport that has been around for many years, is becoming popular in China. Especially, young people are growing interested in the game. “Pickleball has been played not only in big cities, such as Beijing and Shanghai, but also in smaller cities as well,” said Zeng Guobiao, director of the China Liaison Office of the International Pickleball Federation (国际匹克球联合会驻中国联络办公室). Young people in Anhui, Shandong, Zhejiang, Sichuan, Hubei, Guizhou and Yunnan provinces are also interested in the sport and setting up clubs, he added. The sport of pickleball was invented in 1965 in the US. It is a game in which two or four players hit a wiffle ball (威浮球) over a net. It looks like tennis but is played on a badminton court (球场) with a bat. The rules of the game are simple without running needed, making it easy to start for players of all ages and skill levels. Zhou Minghao, who works for a company in Chongqing, started to play pickleball in May. “As a sports lover, I have tried many sports and got several serious wounds, so I decided to play pickleball, which is safe,” he said. Zhang Xin started the Chengdu Pickleball Club last year. Besides safety, he said the sport of pickleball is fun and it is competitive (竞争的) like badminton. He also added that pickleball is a popular sport. Everyone can play it. Wu Xiaomeng from Chongqing agrees. He happened to learn about pickleball and tried it out with some friends in September 2022. “It is a popular game for both men and women, as it requires more skills than physical power,” he said. “It is a good social activity because anyone can easily take up this sport and play it for fun. I believe this sport can go far in China.” 27．Who tells us pickleball has been played in big and small cities of China? A．Zhou Minghao. B．Wu Xiaomeng. C．Zeng Guobiao. 28．How long has pickleball been around in the world? A．For about fifty years. B．For about sixty years. C．For about seventy years. 29．How many features (特征) are mentioned about Pickleball in Paragraph 5? A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. 30．What’s the best title for this passage? A．Why Is Pickleball Becoming Popular in China? B．How Does China Make Pickleball Become Important? C．When Did Pickleball Become Popular in China? 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分) 根据短文内容，从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 High School Entrance Examination (中考) is around the corner! Are you feeling uneasy or stressed out? When was the last time you had fun and felt truly happy? It’s necessary to find time for fun. It makes your life less boring and offers lots of health benefits like less stress, better memory and more energy. 31 Find a new hobby. You may not be having much fun as you want because you are doing the same thing day after day. Please try a new activity you love. 32 It will also make you more open to new ideas. Whether it’s painting, gardening, or cooking, taking up a new hobby can inspire creativity and excitement. 33 Experts suggest that music helps reduce stress and improve your feelings. When you feel stressed, turn on a song you prefer. By doing so, you’ll make it a part of your daily activities, which will improve your feelings. Music has the power to transport (运送) you to a different place and time, freeing you from stress. Take a trip together. Travel is great for your mental health. Get a change of scene. And try to improve your relationships with the people you travel with. Travel doesn’t have to be big or expensive, either. 34 Visiting new places can create lasting memories and improve your relationships with friends or family. Play some games. 35 It won’t seriously influence your studies. Even just playing with silly putty (橡皮泥) at your desk can make your study day a little more enjoyable. A．It will provide something to look forward to in your daily life. B．Listen to music. C．Here is some advice on how to have more fun. D．You may take the time to enjoy a little game once in a while. E．It can be as simple as taking a road trip a few hours away. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 One day, a grasshopper (蚱蜢) was relaxing in a field. And he was eating as much grass as he could. When his stomach was 36 , he began to play some music. He was having a good time in the sun. Then, an ant walked by. He was 37 some corn. “Come and sing with me!” said the grasshopper. “No,” said the ant. “I am busy 38 food for the winter.” “Don’t be serious about the 39 !” said the grasshopper. “There’s lots of food now and it is sunny today.” 40 the ant went on his way and kept on collecting food. “How silly the ant is!” said the grasshopper. “He only needs to 41 winter when winter comes!” When winter came, the grasshopper had 42 food. But the ant and his family had plenty to 43 . “Could I have some of your food?” said the grasshopper. “Hum ...” said the ant. “ 44 you said I was silly, I’ll still help you.” Hearing his words, the grasshopper was very thankful. At the same time, he was 45 for what he had done before. He learned a very important lesson—working hard today is to get ready for tomorrow. 36．A．empty B．small C．full 37．A．carrying B．selling C．planting 38．A．getting B．having C．cooking 39．A．spring B．summer C．winter 40．A．And B．But C．Or 41．A．worry about B．give up C．look for 42．A．enough B．no C．much 43．A．drink B．buy C．eat 44．A．Although B．Because C．When 45．A．tired B．regretful C．happy 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 Why did many Chinese people cry during the military parade (阅兵) which was held on September 3, 2025, in Tian’anmen Square? To people outside China, it may be difficult 46 (understand) why military parade can bring tears to our eyes. But it’s more than just a parade—it’s a moment full 47 memories, history, and emotion. For a long time in history, China was weak and divided. Foreign soldiers once marched through Chinese cities. We had little power to protect ourselves and were often 48 (look) down upon by other nations. Those were times of hardship and humiliation. But now, everything has changed. When we watch the military parade, we see lines of Chinese soldiers walking 49 (proud) and confidently. We see modern weapons made by China. We hear the loud sound of our fighter planes in 50 sky. These are not just shows of power—they are signs of how much we have achieved. They mean peace, 51 (safe), and respect. For many Chinese, especially older people 52 lived through difficult times, this is very touching. We cry not because we are sad, 53 because we are proud and relieved. We feel that our nation has finally stood up. We remember the past, but we also see how much 54 (strong) we have become today. It is a way to heal, to regain dignity (尊严), and to say to the world and ourselves:“We are powerful now. ” That’s 55 we cry—tears of hope, strength, and national pride. 第四部分 读写综合（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。 Tree Planting Day reminds us to care for the earth. Around the world, people take action in different ways. Here’s a story of a young German who turned tree-planting into a lifelong fight for the planet. Planting a tree is easy; bringing back a forest is hard. Those are the words of Felix Finkbeiner, who at 26 in 2024, has now spent much of his life fighting climate change through tree planting and forest restoration (森林恢复). The idea came to Finkbeiner when he was 9 years old. Inspired by Wangari Maathai, an environmentalist, the boy announced to his fourth grade class that they should plant a million trees in every country. Gradually, his speech took root. Finkbeiner and his classmates planted their first tree at their school, and his idea began to spread to other schools. In addition, Finkbeiner set up Plant-for-the-Planet to encourage the public to join in planting trees. Some scientists, however, note that planting trees is not going to solve the climate crisis (气候危机) alone. It takes several tens of years for trees to be able to grow enough in order to take in larger amounts of carbon (碳), supposing they survive dangerous situations like wildfires. Now, they have restoration sites in Spain, Ghana and Ethiopia, but their biggest one is in Mexico. Since the project began in 2015, Plant-for-the-Planet has planted nearly 8 million trees there. “The more people that get involved,” Finkbeiner says, the faster the goal can be met and the greener the earth can get. 56．When did Finkbeiner get the idea of planting trees? 57．Where did Finkbeiner and his classmates plant their first tree? 58．Can planting trees alone solve the climate crisis? 59．How many trees has Plant-for-the-Planet planted in Mexico? 60．Do you want to join the project Plant-for-the-Planet? Why or why not? 第二节 （共1小题，满分15分） 61．假如你是李华，你们学校准备开辟一片试验田用于开展“植物种植实践”的项目化学习(Project-based learning)。你校英语报社现面向全校学生征集方案，请你根据以下提示，用英语给报社写一篇短文，就如何开展活动介绍你的想法、谈谈活动的意义并鼓励同学们积极参加。 要求： (1)80词左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）； (2)文中不得出现真实人名和校名。 Now I’d like to share my ideas on the project. 试卷第1页，共3页 试卷第1页，共3页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2026年中考第一次模拟考试（长沙卷） 英语 （考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：100分） 注意事项： 1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3．回答非选择题时，必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或者钢笔将答案写在答题卡相应位置上。写在本试卷上无效。 4．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分20分） 第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。（共5小题，计5分） 1．What color does the woman prefer? A．Pink. B．White. C．Blue. 【答案】C 【原文】M: I’d like to paint our bedroom white. What do you think? W: I prefer blue. It is my favorite color. 2．When did Jack move here? A．One week ago. B．Two years ago. C．Two weeks ago. 【答案】B 【原文】W: Hi, my name is Linda. I just moved in last week. M: Welcome. I’m Jack. I moved here two years ago. 3．How much is the second-hand bike? A．40 dollars. B．50 dollars. C．100 dollars. 【答案】B 【原文】W: How much is the second handback? M: Well, it’s fifty dollars. 4．What does Linda want to eat for lunch? A．A hamburger. B．A sandwich. C．A hot dog. 【答案】A 【原文】M: Linda, would you like a sandwich for lunch? W: Oh, no. I have been bored with sandwiches. I want to have a hamburger. 5．Where is Mr. Johnson probably now? A．In a hotel. B．In a bookstore. C．In a cinema. 【答案】A 【原文】M: Good evening. My name is Johnson. David Johnson. We’ve booked two rooms online. W: Let me see. Yes, two rooms for three nights. Here are your cars. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听一段材料，回答下面两个小题。 6．What is Kevin doing? A．Washing the dishes. B．Playing the game. C．Sweeping the floor. 7．What’s the relationship between the speakers? A．Mother and son. B．Teacher and student. C．Husband and wife. 【答案】6．B 7．A 【原文】W: Kevin, what is this mess? Clean this up. M: OK. I’ll do it in a minute. Let me just finish this game. W: No, you need to make your bed, sweep the floor and do the dishes now. M: Mom, that’s unfair. 听一段材料，回答下面两个小题。 8．How does Tim learn English? A．By taking online lessons. B．By going to a language school. C．By listening to English songs on CDs. 9．How often does Tim practice English? A．Two days a week. B．Four days a week. C．Six days a week. 【答案】8．A 9．C 【原文】W: Tim, your English is so good now. M: Thank you, Sally. I take some English lessons online. They are very helpful. W: You learn very fast. How often do you practice English? M: I practice every day except Sunday. I’m busy on Sunday because I have piano lessons and football training on that day. 听一段材料，回答下面两个小题。 10．What kind of music is Amy listening to? A．Folk music. B．Pop music. C．Rock music. 11．What does Sam think of rock music? A．It’s noisy. B．It’s beautiful. C．It’s energetic. 【答案】10．A 11．C 【原文】M: Hello, Amy. What are you listening to? W: Hi, Sam. I’m listening to Erquan Yingyue. M: What kind of music is that? W: It’s Chinese folk music. M: Sounds beautiful, but kind of sad. I prefer rock music. W: That’s too noisy. M: I don’t think so. I think it’s energetic. 听一段材料，回答下面三个小题。 12．Where is Dave going this weekend with his friends? A．To Yuelu Mountain. B．To Orange Island. C．To Hunan Museum. 13．How will they go there? A．By car. B．By bike. C．By subway. 14．What time do they plan to leave? A．At 9:00 a.m. B．At 9:30 a.m. C．At 10:00 a.m. 【答案】12．A 13．C 14．B 【原文】W: Hi, Dave. Where are you going this weekend? M: I’m going to Yuelu Mountain with some friends. Would you like to join us? W: Yes, I’d love to. How will you get there? M: We are thinking about taking the subway. It is more convenient. W: Sounds great. When will you leave? M: How about leaving at half past nine on Saturday morning? W: OK. See you then. 听一段材料，回答下面三个小题。 15．What is Anna worried about? A．Her game. B．Her weight. C．Her schoolwork. 16．Where did Tom go? A．To Australia. B．To France. C．To America. 17．What did Tom do there? A．He went hiking. B．He went swimming. C．He visited museums. 【答案】15．B 16．A 17．A 【原文】M: Hey, Anna. Long time no see. How was your holiday in Chengdu? W: Not bad. The only problem is that I’ve put on three kilos. I’m worried about it. M: Really? I guess you ate a lot of Sichuan food. W: That’s true. Did you do anything interesting, Tom? M: Yes. I joined a summer camp in Australia and stayed there for ten days. W: Sounds great. What did you do there? M: We went hiking in the wild and played some team games together. It was wonderful experience for me. 听一段材料，回答下面三个小题。 18．When is the volunteering activity? A．On March 15th. B．On March 16th. C．On March 22nd. 19．What volunteering activity are they going to have? A．City Clean-up. B．Hospital Visit. C．Tree Planting. 20．Who is the speaker probably talking to? A．Students. B．Teachers. C．Parents. 【答案】18．C 19．A 20．A 【原文】    Good morning, everyone. I’m excited to tell you about our next volunteering activity on March 22nd. This time we are going to do something really meaningful. We will join a City Clean-up. It’s a fantastic way to help out our community, and even though you are all busy with schoolwork. It’s also a great chance to hang out with your classmates and make new friends. It will be a fun and unforgettable experience. So I really hope you can make it. Let’s come together and make our city cleaner and more beautiful. Thanks. 第二部分 阅读（共两小节，满分30分） 第一节 （共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分） 阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A My name is Lara and I am a young traveller. I was so happy to travel in South Africa with my parents. This country has amazing natural beauty, friendly people, exciting adventures, and interesting history and culture. Boulders Beach Our first day started at Boulders Beach. Hundreds of African penguins live on the beach and get along well with tourists. We had lunch at a popular restaurant and ate a big plate of seafood and fish—it was perfect for a great start! Cape of Good Hope After lunch, we visited the Cape of Good Hope, one of South Africa’s most amazing places. We walked from the parking lot to the lighthouse in ten minutes. At the top, the wind was super strong, even though the weather was nice. On the way back, someone wanted to give us a free car ride, but Dad chose to walk to keep the beautiful views with his camera. Camps Bay The next day, we went to Camps Bay, which is a famous area in Cape Town with a beach of soft, white sand. There are lots of restaurants, shops and hotels along the coast (海岸). We spent hours there, playing at the beach and playground. 21．What did Lara do during the journey in South Africa? A．She took a lot of photos at Boulders Beach. B．She had great fun playing at the beach of Camps Bay. C．She enjoyed a big meal of seafood and fish at the Cape of Good Hope. 22．What type of writing is the passage? A．A camp advertisement. B．A short story. C．A travel record. 【答案】21．B 22．C 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。主要介绍了Lara和父母在南非旅行的经历，包括在巨石滩看企鹅、享用海鲜餐，在好望角徒步拍照，以及在坎普斯湾的海滩和游乐场玩耍的过程。 21．细节理解题。根据“We spent hours there, playing at the beach and playground.”可知，Lara在Camps Bay的海滩上玩了几个小时，说明她玩得很开心。故选B。     22．推理判断题。根据文章内容，Lara详细记录了她在南非的旅行经历，包括游览Boulders Beach、Cape of Good Hope和Camps Bay等景点，以及她的活动和感受。这种记录个人旅行见闻的文章属于旅行记录。故选C。 B The Belt and Road Initiative(BRI, “一带一路”倡议) project started in 2013. Over the past years, the project has made a difference to many countries and areas. Muhammad Idrees from Pakistan is lucky to witness the changes. Idrees left his hometown when he was 9 years old to live with his uncle for better education in Islamabad, the capital of Pakistan. In 2013, the Chinese and Pakistani governments signed an MOU (国际协议) for the BRI. In the same year, Idrees graduated from college. “The project covered many fields in my country. For example, it helped produce more electricity, and build better roads and railways. What’s more, it has provided 236,000 new jobs in my country,” Idrees said. Two years later, Idrees got his master’s degree. After that, he worked in a company which was in a mountainous area in his country. He recalled that it used to take one of his colleagues (同事) five days to return to his home. Later, the roads were widened and more tunnels (隧道) were built because of the BRI project. The travel time has been shortened from five to two days. Idrees’ cousin and college teachers got their Ph.D．degrees (博士学位) in China. They all said China has great research facilities and labs. They suggested Idrees go to China for further study. Then Idrees followed their advice and now is at Shenzhen University for his Ph.D． 23．What does the underlined work “witness” mean? A．See sth. happen. B．Deal with sth. C．Break sth. down. 24．Which is not mentioned in Paragraph 3 and Paragraph 4? A．The BRI has helped Pakistan develop better. B．Idrees could buy more products from China. C．The traffic around Idrees’ old company was bad. 25．In what order is the article written? A．Importance order. B．Time order. C．Space order. 26．What will the writer talk about next most probably? A．Education in Pakistan. B．Idrees’s daily life in Pakistan. C．Idrees’ studies at Shenzhen University. 【答案】23．A 24．B 25．B 26．C 【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，主要讲了巴基斯坦的Muhammad Idrees见证“一带一路”倡议给本国在电力、交通等领域带来的积极变化，并受亲友影响前往深圳大学攻读博士的经历。 23．词句猜测题。根据“Muhammad Idrees from Pakistan is lucky to witness the changes.”可知，此处指巴基斯坦的Muhammad Idrees很幸运能看到这些变化。故选A。 24．细节理解题。根据“The project covered many fields in my country. For example, it helped produce more electricity, and build better roads and railways. What’s more, it has provided 236,000 new jobs in my country”可知，“一带一路”倡议帮助巴基斯坦在很多领域发展得更好。故选B。 25．篇章结构题。根据“when he was 9 years old”“In 2013”“Two years later”等可知，文章是按照时间顺序来写的。故选B。 26．推理判断题。根据“Idrees’ cousin and college teachers got their Ph.D. degrees in China. ”可知，文章最后提到 Idrees 听从建议现在在深圳大学读博士，接下来最有可能谈论他在深圳大学的学习情况。故选C。 C Pickleball (匹克球), a relaxing sport that has been around for many years, is becoming popular in China. Especially, young people are growing interested in the game. “Pickleball has been played not only in big cities, such as Beijing and Shanghai, but also in smaller cities as well,” said Zeng Guobiao, director of the China Liaison Office of the International Pickleball Federation (国际匹克球联合会驻中国联络办公室). Young people in Anhui, Shandong, Zhejiang, Sichuan, Hubei, Guizhou and Yunnan provinces are also interested in the sport and setting up clubs, he added. The sport of pickleball was invented in 1965 in the US. It is a game in which two or four players hit a wiffle ball (威浮球) over a net. It looks like tennis but is played on a badminton court (球场) with a bat. The rules of the game are simple without running needed, making it easy to start for players of all ages and skill levels. Zhou Minghao, who works for a company in Chongqing, started to play pickleball in May. “As a sports lover, I have tried many sports and got several serious wounds, so I decided to play pickleball, which is safe,” he said. Zhang Xin started the Chengdu Pickleball Club last year. Besides safety, he said the sport of pickleball is fun and it is competitive (竞争的) like badminton. He also added that pickleball is a popular sport. Everyone can play it. Wu Xiaomeng from Chongqing agrees. He happened to learn about pickleball and tried it out with some friends in September 2022. “It is a popular game for both men and women, as it requires more skills than physical power,” he said. “It is a good social activity because anyone can easily take up this sport and play it for fun. I believe this sport can go far in China.” 27．Who tells us pickleball has been played in big and small cities of China? A．Zhou Minghao. B．Wu Xiaomeng. C．Zeng Guobiao. 28．How long has pickleball been around in the world? A．For about fifty years. B．For about sixty years. C．For about seventy years. 29．How many features (特征) are mentioned about Pickleball in Paragraph 5? A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. 30．What’s the best title for this passage? A．Why Is Pickleball Becoming Popular in China? B．How Does China Make Pickleball Become Important? C．When Did Pickleball Become Popular in China? 【答案】27．C 28．B 29．C 30．A 【导语】本文主要介绍了匹克球在中国越来越受欢迎，以及它受欢迎的原因。 27．细节理解题。根据“‘Pickleball has been played not only in big cities, such as Beijing and Shanghai, but also in smaller cities as well,’ said Zeng Guobiao, director of the China Liaison Office of the International Pickleball Federation .”可知，是曾国标告诉我们匹克球在中国的大小城市都有在玩。故选C。 28．细节理解题。根据“The sport of pickleball was invented in 1965 in the US.”可知，匹克球于1965年在美国发明，到现在大约六十年了。故选B。 29．细节理解题。根据第五段“Besides safety, he said the sport of pickleball is fun and it is competitive (竞争的) like badminton.”以及“He also added that pickleball is a popular sport.”可知，第五段提到了匹克球的四个特征：安全、有趣、有竞争性以及流行。故选C。 30．最佳标题题。文章主要介绍了匹克球在中国越来越受欢迎，以及它受欢迎的原因，如简单易学、安全、有趣、有竞争性等。所以“Why Is Pickleball Becoming Popular in China?”（为什么匹克球在中国越来越受欢迎？）是最合适的标题。故选A。 第二节 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分) 根据短文内容，从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。 High School Entrance Examination (中考) is around the corner! Are you feeling uneasy or stressed out? When was the last time you had fun and felt truly happy? It’s necessary to find time for fun. It makes your life less boring and offers lots of health benefits like less stress, better memory and more energy. 31 Find a new hobby. You may not be having much fun as you want because you are doing the same thing day after day. Please try a new activity you love. 32 It will also make you more open to new ideas. Whether it’s painting, gardening, or cooking, taking up a new hobby can inspire creativity and excitement. 33 Experts suggest that music helps reduce stress and improve your feelings. When you feel stressed, turn on a song you prefer. By doing so, you’ll make it a part of your daily activities, which will improve your feelings. Music has the power to transport (运送) you to a different place and time, freeing you from stress. Take a trip together. Travel is great for your mental health. Get a change of scene. And try to improve your relationships with the people you travel with. Travel doesn’t have to be big or expensive, either. 34 Visiting new places can create lasting memories and improve your relationships with friends or family. Play some games. 35 It won’t seriously influence your studies. Even just playing with silly putty (橡皮泥) at your desk can make your study day a little more enjoyable. A．It will provide something to look forward to in your daily life. B．Listen to music. C．Here is some advice on how to have more fun. D．You may take the time to enjoy a little game once in a while. E．It can be as simple as taking a road trip a few hours away. 【答案】31．C 32．A 33．B 34．E 35．D 【导语】本文介绍了一些在中考前获得乐趣、缓解压力的方法，如培养新爱好、听音乐、旅行、玩游戏等。 31．根据“High School Entrance Examination is around the corner! Are you feeling uneasy or stressed out?”接着下文分别介绍了具体的找乐子的方法，可知此空应是引出下文这些方法的句子。选项C“这里有一些关于如何获得更多乐趣的建议”符合语境，起承上启下作用，故选C。 32．根据“Please try a new activity you love.”及“It will also make you more open to new ideas.”可知，此空应是说尝试新活动在日常生活中的积极作用。选项A“这会为你的日常生活提供一些可期待的东西”符合语境，故选A。 33．根据后文“Experts suggest that music helps reduce stress and improve your feelings.”可知，该段主要围绕听音乐展开，选项B“听音乐”能概括段落内容，作为小标题合适，故选B。 34．根据“Travel doesn’t have to be big or expensive, either.”可知，此空应是说旅行可以很简单的具体体现。选项E“它可以简单到来一场几小时车程的公路旅行”，符合语境，故选E。 35．根据“It won’t seriously influence your studies. Even just playing with silly putty at your desk can make your study day a little more enjoyable.”可知，该段围绕玩游戏展开，选项D“你可以偶尔花时间玩个小游戏”，契合段落主题，说明玩游戏的情况，符合语境，故选D。 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 One day, a grasshopper (蚱蜢) was relaxing in a field. And he was eating as much grass as he could. When his stomach was 36 , he began to play some music. He was having a good time in the sun. Then, an ant walked by. He was 37 some corn. “Come and sing with me!” said the grasshopper. “No,” said the ant. “I am busy 38 food for the winter.” “Don’t be serious about the 39 !” said the grasshopper. “There’s lots of food now and it is sunny today.” 40 the ant went on his way and kept on collecting food. “How silly the ant is!” said the grasshopper. “He only needs to 41 winter when winter comes!” When winter came, the grasshopper had 42 food. But the ant and his family had plenty to 43 . “Could I have some of your food?” said the grasshopper. “Hum ...” said the ant. “ 44 you said I was silly, I’ll still help you.” Hearing his words, the grasshopper was very thankful. At the same time, he was 45 for what he had done before. He learned a very important lesson—working hard today is to get ready for tomorrow. 36．A．empty B．small C．full 37．A．carrying B．selling C．planting 38．A．getting B．having C．cooking 39．A．spring B．summer C．winter 40．A．And B．But C．Or 41．A．worry about B．give up C．look for 42．A．enough B．no C．much 43．A．drink B．buy C．eat 44．A．Although B．Because C．When 45．A．tired B．regretful C．happy 【答案】 36．C 37．A 38．A 39．C 40．B 41．A 42．B 43．C 44．A 45．B 【导语】本文讲述了一只蚱蜢和一只蚂蚁的故事。 36．句意：当他的肚子饱了的时候，他开始演奏一些音乐。 empty空的；small小的；full满的。根据“he began to play some music”可知，开始演奏音乐，说明已经饱了。故选C。 37．句意：他正扛着一些玉米。 carrying扛，携带；selling卖；planting种植。根据“Then, an ant walked by.”和“...some corn.”可知，蚂蚁正扛着玉米。故选A。 38．句意：我正忙着为冬天收集食物。 getting得到，收集；having有；cooking烹饪。根据I am busy…food for the winter”可知，此处表达为冬天收集食物。故选A。 39．句意：不要对冬天太认真！ spring春天；summer夏天；winter冬天。根据“I am busy getting food for the winter.”可知，蚱蜢让蚂蚁不要对冬天太认真。故选C。 40．句意：但是蚂蚁继续走他的路，继续收集食物。 And和，并且；But但是；Or或者。根据“Don’t be serious about the winter!”和“the ant went on his way and kept on collecting food.”可知，前后是转折关系，用but连接。故选B。 41．句意：他只需要在冬天来临时担心冬天！ worry about担心；give up放弃；look for寻找。根据“winter when winter comes”可知，蚱蜢认为蚂蚁只需要在冬天来临时担心冬天。故选A。 42．句意：当冬天来临时，蚱蜢没有食物。 enough足够的；no没有；much许多的。根据“But the ant and his family had plenty to eat”和蚱蜢之前的行为可知，蚱蜢冬天没有食物。故选B。 43．句意：但是蚂蚁和他的家人有足够的食物吃。 drink喝；buy买；eat吃。根据“food”可知，食物是用来吃的。故选C。 44．句意：虽然你说我傻，我还是会帮你。 Although虽然；Because因为；When当……时候。根据“...you said I was silly, I’ll still help you.”可知，前后是让步关系，用although连接。故选A。 45．句意：同时，他对自己之前的行为感到后悔。 tired累的；regretful后悔的；happy开心的。根据“for what he had done before”可知，他对自己之前的行为感到后悔。故选B。 第二节 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。 Why did many Chinese people cry during the military parade (阅兵) which was held on September 3, 2025, in Tian’anmen Square? To people outside China, it may be difficult 46 (understand) why military parade can bring tears to our eyes. But it’s more than just a parade—it’s a moment full 47 memories, history, and emotion. For a long time in history, China was weak and divided. Foreign soldiers once marched through Chinese cities. We had little power to protect ourselves and were often 48 (look) down upon by other nations. Those were times of hardship and humiliation. But now, everything has changed. When we watch the military parade, we see lines of Chinese soldiers walking 49 (proud) and confidently. We see modern weapons made by China. We hear the loud sound of our fighter planes in 50 sky. These are not just shows of power—they are signs of how much we have achieved. They mean peace, 51 (safe), and respect. For many Chinese, especially older people 52 lived through difficult times, this is very touching. We cry not because we are sad, 53 because we are proud and relieved. We feel that our nation has finally stood up. We remember the past, but we also see how much 54 (strong) we have become today. It is a way to heal, to regain dignity (尊严), and to say to the world and ourselves:“We are powerful now. ” That’s 55 we cry—tears of hope, strength, and national pride. 【答案】 46．to understand 47．of 48．looked 49．proudly 50．the 51．safety 52．who/that 53．but 54．stronger 55．why 【导语】本文主要讲述了2025年9月3日天安门广场阅兵时，很多中国人感动落泪的原因，阐述了阅兵对国人的意义，既是对历史的回望，也是对国家强大的自豪与感慨。 46．句意：对于中国以外的人来说，可能很难理解为什么阅兵会让我们热泪盈眶。句子用到固定句型“it is + adj. + to do sth.”，其中it是形式主语，真正的主语是后面的不定式，设空处需要填入动词的不定式形式。故填to understand。 47．句意：但这不仅仅是一场阅兵——这是一个充满回忆、历史与情感的时刻。“full of”表示“充满……”，符合语境。故填of。 48．句意：我们几乎没有能力保护自己，经常被其他国家看不起。句子主语we和look down upon是被动关系，需要用被动语态“be + 过去分词”。look 的过去分词是 looked。故填looked。 49．句意：当我们观看阅兵时，我们看到一排排中国士兵骄傲且自信地走过。设空处修饰动词walking，需要用副词形式，proud是形容词，其副词形式是proudly。故填proudly。 50．句意：我们听到我国战斗机在天空中轰鸣的声音。“in the sky”表示“在天空中”，sky是独一无二的事物，前面需要用定冠词the。故填the。 51．句意：它们意味着和平、安全与尊重。设空处与peace、respect是并列的名词，需要用名词形式。safe是形容词，其名词形式是safety。故填safety。 52．句意：对很多中国人来说，尤其是那些经历过艰难岁月的老年人，这非常令人动容。设空处引导定语从句，先行词是people (指人)，且关系词在从句中作主语，需要用关系代词who/that。故填who/that。 53．句意：我们哭泣不是因为悲伤，而是因为我们感到自豪与释然。“not...but...”表示“不是…… 而是……”，符合语境的逻辑转折。故填but。 54．句意：我们铭记过去，但也看到我们如今变得多么强大。“how much”后面接形容词比较级，strong的比较级是stronger，表示“变得更强大”。故填stronger。    55．句意：这就是我们哭泣的原因——饱含希望、力量与民族自豪感的泪水。设空处引导表语从句，结合语境“这就是我们哭泣的原因”，需要用引导词why。故填why。 第四部分 读写综合（共两节，满分25分） 第一节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容回答问题。 Tree Planting Day reminds us to care for the earth. Around the world, people take action in different ways. Here’s a story of a young German who turned tree-planting into a lifelong fight for the planet. Planting a tree is easy; bringing back a forest is hard. Those are the words of Felix Finkbeiner, who at 26 in 2024, has now spent much of his life fighting climate change through tree planting and forest restoration (森林恢复). The idea came to Finkbeiner when he was 9 years old. Inspired by Wangari Maathai, an environmentalist, the boy announced to his fourth grade class that they should plant a million trees in every country. Gradually, his speech took root. Finkbeiner and his classmates planted their first tree at their school, and his idea began to spread to other schools. In addition, Finkbeiner set up Plant-for-the-Planet to encourage the public to join in planting trees. Some scientists, however, note that planting trees is not going to solve the climate crisis (气候危机) alone. It takes several tens of years for trees to be able to grow enough in order to take in larger amounts of carbon (碳), supposing they survive dangerous situations like wildfires. Now, they have restoration sites in Spain, Ghana and Ethiopia, but their biggest one is in Mexico. Since the project began in 2015, Plant-for-the-Planet has planted nearly 8 million trees there. “The more people that get involved,” Finkbeiner says, the faster the goal can be met and the greener the earth can get. 56．When did Finkbeiner get the idea of planting trees? 57．Where did Finkbeiner and his classmates plant their first tree? 58．Can planting trees alone solve the climate crisis? 59．How many trees has Plant-for-the-Planet planted in Mexico? 60．Do you want to join the project Plant-for-the-Planet? Why or why not? 第二节 （共1小题，满分15分） 61．假如你是李华，你们学校准备开辟一片试验田用于开展“植物种植实践”的项目化学习(Project-based learning)。你校英语报社现面向全校学生征集方案，请你根据以下提示，用英语给报社写一篇短文，就如何开展活动介绍你的想法、谈谈活动的意义并鼓励同学们积极参加。 要求： (1)80词左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）； (2)文中不得出现真实人名和校名。 Now I’d like to share my ideas on the project. 【答案】56．At the age of nine. 57．At their school. 58．No, it can’t. 59．Nearly 8 million. 60．Yes, I do. Because it can protect the home we live in. 61．例文： Now I’d like to share my ideas on the project. First, we can work in groups. Each group can be responsible for a certain area of the field. Then, we should learn about the plants we grow, like their growth habits. Regularly watering the plants is a must-do. This project is meaningful as it can improve our practical ability and let us know more about plants. Come on, everyone! Let’s take an active part! 【导语】本文主要讲述了费利克斯·芬克贝因纳从9岁受瓦加里·马塔伊事迹启发萌生种树想法，成立“Plant-for-the-Planet”组织鼓励公众种树。 56．根据文中“The idea came to Finkbeiner when he was 9 years old.”及上文可知，费利克斯·芬克贝因纳9岁的时候就有了种树的想法。故填At the age of nine. 57．根据文中“Gradually, his speech took root. Finkbeiner and his classmates planted their first tree at their school, and his idea began to spread to other schools.”可知，费利克斯·芬克贝因纳和同学们种的第一棵树在他们的学校。故填At their school. 58．根据文中“Some scientists, however, note that planting trees is not going to solve the climate crisis alone.”可知，然而，光靠植树并不能解决气候危机。故填No, it can’t. 59．根据文中“but their biggest one is in Mexico. Since the project began in 2015, Plant-for-the-Planet has planted nearly 8 million trees there.”可知，他们在墨西哥种植了近800万棵树。故填Nearly 8 million. 60．开放性试题，答案言之有理即可。故填Yes, I do. Because it can protect the home we live in. 61．[总体分析] ①题材：本文是一篇材料作文； ②时态：时态为“一般现在时”； ③提示：写作要点已给出，注意不要遗漏要点，可适当添加细节，并突出写作重点。 [写作步骤] 第一步，引出“开展‘植物种植实践’的项目化学习活动”的话题； 第二步，具体阐述写作内容。从“具体活动、行为背后的意义、呼吁大家积极参与”等方面进行介绍； 第三步，书写结语，总结全文。 [亮点词汇] ①responsible可靠的 ②learn about了解 ③meaningful有意义的 [高分句型] ①This project is meaningful as it can improve our practical ability and let us know more about plants.（as引导的原因状语从句） 试卷第1页，共3页 试卷第1页，共3页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $