内容正文:
2025-2026学年第一学期期末考试九年级英语试题
一、听力理解(本大题共20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What’s the girl’s advice about learning English?
A Reading textbooks. B. Watching movies. C. Reading English newspapers.
2. What will Mike do on Mid-Autumn Festival?
A. Make mooncakes. B. Go to a cultural fair. C. Take a trip.
3. What is Linda’s dress made of?
A. Silk. B. Paper. C. Cotton.
4. How does Tom like rock music?
A. Boring. B. Relaxing. C. Exciting.
5. What does the girl mean?
A. She thinks it is good to be busy.
B. She wants to ask Tony to help her.
C. She will be glad if Tony can do the dishes.
B)请听下面4段对话。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
请听第1段对话,回答第6、7小题。
6. What does the girl think of clay art?
A. Easy. B. Difficult. C. Interesting.
7. How many kinds of Chinese art forms are talked about?
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
请听第2段对话,回答第8、9小题。
8. Whose toy truck is this?
A. It must be Maria’s.
B. It must be Maria’s brother’s.
C. It must be Deng Tao’s.
9. What does Deng Tao want to be in the future?
A A reporter. B. An actor. C. A scientist.
请听第3段对话,回答第10至12小题。
10. Why does the girl feel nervous before going to Switzerland?
A. Because she has never been abroad.
B. Because she doesn’t know the language.
C. Because she doesn’t know the customs there.
11. What does the boy want to buy for his father?
A. A Swiss watch. B. A Swiss bag. C. A Swiss knife.
12. What can we learn from the conversation?
A. The girl has lived in Switzerland for years.
B. Swiss people really care about being on time.
C. The boy will travel with the girl to Switzerland.
请听第4段对话,回答第13至第15小题。
13. How long has Yoyo been there?
A. For two years. B. For three years. C. For five years.
14. Where is Yoyo now?
A. In France. B. In America. C. In Thailand.
15. Which of the following is true?
A. Yoyo grew up in France.
B. Mike has lived in several countries before.
C. Yoyo’s father has worked in France for three years.
C)请听下面一段独白。根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
16. Helen thinks family rules help everyone ______ and respect each other.
17. Helen is allowed to ______ after she finishes her homework.
18. Every day, Helen helps with housework, like ______ for dinner.
19. On weekends, Helen can ______ if the weather is nice.
20. Helen should come home before ______ on weekends.
二、单项填空(本大题共8小题,每小题1分,共8分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
1. —Why do you like your English teacher so much?
—Because she is very ______. If we can’t understand something, she explains it again and again.
A. strict B. humorous C. patient D. quiet
2. The park near our school ______ much greener. You can see many birds there now.
A. became B. will become C. was becoming D. has become
3. Kevin’s answers to the listening test were ______ true. He got full marks.
A. partly B. completely C. probably D. mostly
4. The 2025 Jiangxi City Football Super League (赣超) is pretty popular. It provides a great ______ for young players to show their football skills.
A. chance B. tool C. lesson D. job
5. —Should I sell my old stamps to buy new clothes?
—I don’t think so. Keeping the stamps is ______, because they might bring you a good price one day.
A. less historical B. more historical C. less valuable D. more valuable
6. It is easy to make great progress in English ______ you keep practicing it every day.
A. although B. if C. but D. unless
7. The main purpose of this activity is to ______ young people about environmental protection.
A. educate B. support C. prevent D. connect
8. A lot of delicious local snacks ______ in that small factory last year.
A. have produced B. are producing C. were produced D. were producing
三、完形填空(本大题共26小题,每小题1分,共26分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
It was after-school hours, but a group of students at a special school for the disabled in Huichang County, Jiangxi Province stayed behind. They were having a paper cutting class ___9___ by local artisan (手艺人) Zhang Yiqing.
Zhang ___10___ the school once a week to teach the students paper cutting. They feature (以……为特色) poems and calligraphy (书法), and include traditional patterns ___11___ birds, animals, places and human characters.
It was a ___12___ class. There was almost no ___13___ in the class. Zhang and the teacher were the only people talking. The teacher, who ___14___ sign language (手语), helped Zhang teach the class. The students learned fast and really ___15___ the class.
Zhang ___16___ learning paper cutting from her grandfather at the age of 3. At first, she mostly did ___17___ patterns like birds, butterflies and flowers, but later she learned to make the art pieces featuring calligraphy and poems. It ___18___ her works stand out among other artisans.
Her artwork is now a cultural and creative ___19___ that is becoming better known. In November 2020, Huichang paper cutting was ___20___ recognized (承认) as one of the intangible cultural heritages (非物质文化遗产) of Ganzhou City.
In order to ___21___ this art form down, Zhang teaches paper cutting to students at the special school and other local primary schools. “I design a pattern for them and teach them ___22___ they can do it themselves, so they can have a skill and make a living in the future,” said Zhang. “Younger people have an interest in traditional ___23___, which is very encouraging.”
9. A. invited B. taught C. joined D. learned
10. A. paints B. cleans C. visits D. leaves
11. A. instead of B. such as C. except for D. as for
12. A. boring B. difficult C. special D. long
13. A. pressure B. trouble C. noise D. homework
14. A. knows B. practices C. discovers D. follows
15. A. noticed B. hated C. enjoyed D. managed
16. A. went over B. took up C. went on D. gave up
17. A. large B. modern C. traditional D. strange
18. A. praised B. made C. avoided D. preferred
19. A. choice B. way C. brand D. journey
20 A. finally B. quickly C. recently D. simply
21. A. put B. turn C. write D. pass
22. A. whether B. why C. until D. while
23. A. culture B. medicine C. education D. food
请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。
advice crazy it eye deep master amazed coldness when outside wait
During the Northern Song Dynasty, there was a man named Yang Shi. He was very intelligent and ___24___ about studying, and he respected his teacher so much. Even ___25___ he was over forty years old and very knowledgeable, he was still open-minded and respectful, which made his teacher Cheng Yi love him ___26___. One day, Yang Shi and his classmate You Er asked Cheng Yi for ___27___, but they happened to find Mr. Cheng asleep. ___28___ started snowing outside. The two students stood quietly at the door ___29___ for their teacher.
After waiting for most of the day, Cheng Yi slowly opened his ___30___ and saw Yang Shi and You Er standing there. He was ___31___ and said, “Ah, ah! They are still here?” By that time, the snow ___32___ the door was more than a foot deep. Yang Shi and You Er showed no signs of ___33___. Cheng Yi was really moved and put more effort into teaching Yang Shi. Yang Shi lived up to his expectations and finally ___34___ all his teacher’s knowledge.
六、阅读理解(本大题共23小题,每小题2分,共46分)
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Let’s Explore (探索) Nature!
Are you interested in animals and nature? Youth Explore has prepared you with a THREE-DAY SUMMER PROGRAM. Here comes your chance! Want to enjoy your summer holiday and learn something interesting and useful? You can take part in many hands-on activities and meet with live animals—lions, pandas, tigers, and so on! More information about the program is as follows:
Age: Students aged 8—16
Groups: There are 2 programs for you to choose from. Each program needs at most 15 students.
Program A
Dates: 11th—13th July, 2025
Time: 10:00 a.m. —4:00 p.m.
Program B
Dates: 9th—11th August, 2025
Time: 10:00 a.m. —4:00 p.m.
Program cost: $230 for members; $250 for non-members (非会员) 。
How to do: Come to our center to get an application form (申请表) and hand it in before 8th July, 2025.
Notes: We don’t provide free lunch because people have different tastes. You may either bring a lunch box or pay for lunch at our restaurants.
COME AND JOIN US NOW! DON’T MISS THE CHANCE!
35. When will Program A start?
A. On July 9th. B. On July 11th. C. On August 9th. D. On August 11th.
36. How much should two members and one non-member pay for the program?
A. $750. B. $730. C. $710. D. $690.
37. What can we know from the ad?
A. It provides free lunch for all the students.
B. You can see lions and pandas in the program.
C. There are more than 15 students in each program.
D. You need to hand in an application form before 8th August.
B
When I was in the seventh grade, my teacher asked our class the question, “What does ‘doing the right thing’ mean to you?” She asked us to think about it over the weekend, and to talk to anyone else we thought might have a good answer. By Monday, we were asked to hand in an article on it, and be prepared to show our answers.
The whole weekend, I tried to come up with something that would impress (给……留下深刻印象) my teacher and be easy to do. I talked to my parents, called my grandmother, and asked my next-door neighbor. Everyone had good answers, but I didn’t feel like I could do them.
On Sunday afternoon my parents took me to my Aunt Cindy’s house. After dinner, my parents told me to play with my four-year-old cousin Andrea while they visited. I turned on the television and found a Disney movie for Andrea, and then I sat down and started to write my article. I still didn’t know what I was going to write about. Soon I felt a pair of eyes on me. It was Andrea.
“What are you doing?” she asked.
“I have to write an article about what doing the right thing means to me.” I answered. Andrea laughed. “That’s easy,” she said.
“Okay, tell me the answer,” I said.
“Doing the right thing means: Be nice to your family and friends. Do what your mum says. Never lie. Take a bath when you’re dirty. Get some knowledge and new abilities. Don’t waste water and electricity ...”
I looked at Andrea incredibly. Not only had she answered a very difficult question for me, but I could easily understand and follow all of her rules. And all I had to do was to be nice. So when I wrote my article back home, I included the story about Andrea.
Two weeks later, my teacher returned everyone’s articles. I received an A+ along with a little note my teacher had written: “Always do the right thing—and give Andrea an A+, too.”
38. What does the underlined word “incredibly” in Paragraph 8 mean?
A. In pain. B. In public. C. In silence. D. In surprise.
39. What is the correct order of the writer’s activities?
a. She visited her aunt’s house.
b. She asked people for answers.
c. She found a movie for Andrea.
d. She got an answer from Andrea.
e. She wrote an article and received an A+.
A. a-b-c-d-e B. b-a-c-d-e C. e-b-c-d-a D. d-a-e-c-b
40. What did the writer think of Andrea’s suggestions?
A. Too difficult to follow. B. So simple and not useful.
C. Easy to understand and do. D. Similar to others’ answers.
41. What’s the purpose of the teacher’s task?
A. To tell the students to admire others.
B. To help the students think about things clearly.
C. To advise the students to ask for help from others.
D. To ask the students to do the right thing all the time.
42. What would be the best title for the passage?
A. How I Finished My Homework.
B. A Difficult Homework Question.
C. The Simple Answer From a Little cousin.
D. What “Doing the Right Thing” Truly Means to Me.
C
Do you often order take-out food? Have you ever tried a “take-out PE class”? This new kind of service was popular during this summer vacation.
To have a “take-out PE class”, you order it on social media. The coach will then come with all the things needed for the exercise. The classes include simple fitness training and sports like basketball and tennis. One-on-one lessons usually cost 200 to 400 yuan, Guangming Daily reported.
“It’s so convenient,” said a woman surnamed Wang whose child is in 3rd grade. She used to spend an hour taking her child to the gym. “Now, the coach comes to the open area of our neighborhood, and I can watch from the balcony (阳台),”she said.
“Take-out PE classes” are not only convenient, but also helpful. Before, my child often fell down when jumping rope. After three weeks of classes, he improved from 120 jumps a minute to 160,” Wang said. The coach makes a special plan for each child. This is more helpful than big classes.
But this new service also has problems. The Paper reported that most classes take place in neighborhood squares or parks. The ground is often too hard for running and jumping. In addition, many people walk by, and sometimes cars pass through. This can be dangerous. Many parents who order the classes have children preparing for high school entrance exams (学考). This is an “exam-first” way of thinking, which has changed the true meaning of exercise, noted Xinhua.
43. What is the main difference between a “take-out PE class” and a normal PE class?
A. The types of sports. B. The teaching purpose.
C. The class locations. D. The role of students.
44. Why does Wang think “take-out PE classes” are helpful?
A. She can watch from her balcony. B. The teacher works with a big group.
C. She spends less time going to the gym. D. Each child has his or her own training plan.
45. Which is one of the problems with “take-out PE classes”?
A. The service can’t reach every place.
B. They take up too much public space.
C. They are only for children, not adults.
D. Exercising in public areas can be dangerous.
46. What does Xinhua suggest in the last paragraph?
A. Students should exercise for their own health.
B. Schools should provide more professional PE classes.
C. “Take-out PE classes” change the way students exercise.
D. Parents are paying too much for these “take-out PE classes”.
47. Which of the following best shows the structure of this article?
A. B. C. D.
D
In 2025, China’s love for football was awakened by different Football City Leagues. But have you ever seen robots play soccer? In Beijing, this really happened! Robots that look like people played a 3-on-3 soccer game. ▲ . This means no one used a remote control (遥控器) to move them. The robots used their own “computer brains” to think, make decisions, and play the game. It was a new and exciting event that mixed technology with the fun of sports.
The game took place on a small field. The robots had high-tech sensors (传感器), like special eyes, that helped them see the ball and know where to go. But playing soccer is hard, even for smart robots! They often fall down when they try to run or kick the ball. They hit each other and sometimes missed their shots completely. These moments were very funny. When a robot fell and couldn’t get up, staff had to carry it away on a stretcher (担架). It looked just like a real soccer player getting hurt!
The people loved watching it. They laughed and cheered for the robots’ successes and their funny mistakes. These made the game feel fun and interesting. It was like watching a movie about the future. This event was not just for fun, though. It was mainly a way to test and improve AI technology. It shows how robots can learn to work together and solve problems in a fast-moving game. This robot soccer match gives us a look at the future. It shows how far technology has come, but also that robots still have a lot to learn before they can play like human stars. It was a playful look at a future where machines might one day share the field with us.
48. Which of the following sentences can be put into “ ▲ ” in Paragraph 1?
A. The robots were exactly guided by sensors. B. The robots moved and played on their own.
C. The robots were directed by human players. D. The robots were operated by remote control.
49. What happened when a robot could not get up by itself?
A. It was carried off the field. B. Engineers fixed it right away.
C. Other robots helped it to get up. D. The game was stopped until it stood up.
50. What does the underlined word “These” in Paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Movies about the future.
B. The rules of the robot soccer game.
C. The robots’ successes and mistakes.
D. The robots’ special eyes and computer brains.
51. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?
A. The robot soccer game was mainly held for fun.
B. The game helped to test and improve AI technology.
C. The game was held on a big ground for many people.
D. Robots in the game could already play soccer like human stars.
52. Where can we probably read this passage?
A. In a story book. B. In a travel guide. C. In a science book. D. In a health magazine.
请阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文意思通顺、结构完整,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。一空一句。
Do you often have negative (消极的) thoughts? Do you and your friends often complain (抱怨) about things? ___53___
●Find the positive (积极的), however small.
Bad things happen to all of us, but the most important thing is to focus on the positive. For example, next time you are caught in traffic, think how great it is that you can finish listening to your favorite music. If you don’t have much in your fridge, get creative and think of what you can invent with the ingredients (食材) you have. ___54___
●Focus on now.
It’s easy to think too much about things that have already happened and to get worried about what will happen tomorrow. ___55___ But remember, you can’t change the past, and no one can control the future, so the best thing is to focus on the present.
● ___56___
Being around negative people will make you feel negative, too. Spend time with people who will make you laugh and help you believe in yourself, not those that spend all day complaining. It’s hard to feel negative when you have positive people around you.
●Be kind to others.
One of the best ways to make yourself feel good is to help others. ___57___ Spending time helping other people can give you a better perspective (视角) on life and make you value what you have.
A. We all do this sometimes.
B. Find positive friends and partners.
C. It can be exciting to try something new.
D. Find ways to volunteer in your community.
E. Talk to someone whenever you feel negative.
F. The following can help you feel positive about life.
G. Think about your future dreams and goals to stay positive.
五、补全对话(本大题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从下面的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处,使对话通顺、合理,意思完整,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。一空一句。
(Ben and Allen are talking with each other. A=Allen, B=Ben)
A: Hi, Ben. You look upset. ___58___
B: I lost my phone.
A: ___59___ When was the last time you saw it?
B: I saw it this afternoon when I was taking a bus home. I must have lost it on the bus.
A: ___60___
B: Well I paid for the bus ride through WeChat when I got on the bus, but when I got off and wanted to buy something to drink, I found the phone was missing.
A: ___61___
B: In the back pocket of my jeans.
A: Oh, it’s the worst place to keep the phone. I don’t know why so many people do it.
B: Why do you think so?
A: ___62___ What’s worse, the phone can fall out easily when you sit down.
B: Well, I didn’t think too much about it. Anyway, I’ve learned my lesson.
A. What’s wrong?
B. I’m sorry to hear that.
C. How do you know that?
D. Why did you put it there?
E. Because it is clearly seen there.
F. Where did you keep your phone?
G. You should buy a new one right now.
六、书面表达(15分)
63. 为促进学生身心健康,本学期各地中小学已将课间休息时间延长至15分钟。英文校刊Sunshine for Teens以“Time for a Break”为题向学生征文,请你根据以下写作要点,用英语写一篇短文投稿。
写作要点:
1. What do you think of the 15-minute break?
2. What do you like to do during the break?(e.g. jump ropes, chat with friends...)
3. How does the longer break help you in class?
要求:
1.短文应包括提示中所有的写作要点,条理清晰,行文连贯,可适当发挥;
2.短文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;
3.词数80-120词,短文开头已给出,不计入总词数。
Time for a Break
Break time is an important part of our daily lives. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2025-2026学年第一学期期末考试九年级英语试题
一、听力理解(本大题共20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1. What’s the girl’s advice about learning English?
A. Reading textbooks. B. Watching movies. C. Reading English newspapers.
2. What will Mike do on Mid-Autumn Festival?
A. Make mooncakes. B. Go to a cultural fair. C. Take a trip.
3. What is Linda’s dress made of?
A Silk. B. Paper. C. Cotton.
4. How does Tom like rock music?
A. Boring. B. Relaxing. C. Exciting.
5. What does the girl mean?
A. She thinks it is good to be busy.
B. She wants to ask Tony to help her.
C. She will be glad if Tony can do the dishes.
B)请听下面4段对话。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
请听第1段对话,回答第6、7小题。
6. What does the girl think of clay art?
A. Easy. B. Difficult. C. Interesting.
7. How many kinds of Chinese art forms are talked about?
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
请听第2段对话,回答第8、9小题。
8. Whose toy truck is this?
A. It must be Maria’s.
B. It must be Maria’s brother’s.
C. It must be Deng Tao’s.
9. What does Deng Tao want to be in the future?
A. A reporter. B. An actor. C. A scientist.
请听第3段对话,回答第10至12小题。
10. Why does the girl feel nervous before going to Switzerland?
A. Because she has never been abroad.
B. Because she doesn’t know the language.
C. Because she doesn’t know the customs there.
11. What does the boy want to buy for his father?
A. A Swiss watch. B. A Swiss bag. C. A Swiss knife.
12. What can we learn from the conversation?
A. The girl has lived in Switzerland for years.
B. Swiss people really care about being on time.
C. The boy will travel with the girl to Switzerland.
请听第4段对话,回答第13至第15小题。
13. How long has Yoyo been there?
A. For two years. B. For three years. C. For five years.
14. Where is Yoyo now?
A. In France. B. In America. C. In Thailand.
15. Which of the following is true?
A. Yoyo grew up in France.
B. Mike has lived in several countries before.
C. Yoyo’s father has worked in France for three years.
C)请听下面一段独白。根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
16. Helen thinks family rules help everyone ______ and respect each other.
17. Helen is allowed to ______ after she finishes her homework.
18. Every day, Helen helps with housework, like ______ for dinner.
19. On weekends, Helen can ______ if the weather is nice.
20. Helen should come home before ______ on weekends.
二、单项填空(本大题共8小题,每小题1分,共8分)
请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】D
【3题答案】
【答案】B
【4题答案】
【答案】A
【5题答案】
【答案】D
【6题答案】
【答案】B
【7题答案】
【答案】A
【8题答案】
【答案】C
三、完形填空(本大题共26小题,每小题1分,共26分)
A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
【9~23题答案】
【答案】9. B 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. C 23. A
【24~34题答案】
【答案】24. crazy
25. when 26. deeply
27. advice 28. It
29. waiting
30. eyes 31. amazed
32. outside
33. coldness
34. mastered
六、阅读理解(本大题共23小题,每小题2分,共46分)
A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
【35~37题答案】
【答案】35. B 36. C 37. B
B
【38~42题答案】
【答案】38. D 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. D
C
【43~47题答案】
【答案】43. C 44. D 45. D 46. A 47. C
D
【48~52题答案】
【答案】48. B 49. A 50. C 51. B 52. C
【53~57题答案】
【答案】53. F 54. C 55. A 56. B 57. D
五、补全对话(本大题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
【58~62题答案】
【答案】58. A 59. B 60. C 61. F 62. E
六、书面表达(15分)
【63题答案】
【答案】
Time for a Break
Break time is an important part of our daily lives. I think the 15-minute break is wonderful because it gives us more time to relax and refresh our minds. During the break, I like to do different activities. For example, I often jump rope with my classmates, which is fun and good exercise. Sometimes, I chat with my friends about interesting topics. This longer break helps me a lot in class. After having a good rest, I feel more energetic and can focus better on my lessons. It also makes me happier and more ready to learn new things. In short, the longer break time is really helpful for both our health and study.
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