贵州省黔南州2025-2026学年第一学期高一1月期末英语试题

保密★启用前 黔南州2025—2026学年度第一学期期末质量监测 高一 英语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共8页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前将姓名、准考证号、座位号准确填写在答题卡指定的位置上。 3. 选择题须使用2B铅笔将答题卡相应题号对应选项涂黑，若需改动，须擦净另涂;非选择题在答题卡上对应位置用黑色墨水笔或黑色签字笔书写。在试卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does the woman want to do? A. Go shopping. B. Cook breakfast. C. Have some coffee. 2. What is the man asking for? A. A pen. B. A menu. C. A password. 3. What does the woman probably think of the man? A. He is lonely. B. He is anxious. C. He is kind. 4. What are the speakers talking about? A. The weather. B. Exercise. C. The city. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. New friends. B. Old neighbors. C. Former classmates. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the man’s attitude to the tourists? A. Supportive. B. Uncaring. C. Negative. 7 What does the woman suggest? A. Building more museums. B. Offering a discount to locals. C. Controlling the number of visitors. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. How often does the woman work at the zoo? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 9. What is the main reason for the woman to work at the zoo? A. She needs money. B. She likes the workers there. C. She wants to help animals. 10. What does the woman want to be when she’s older? A. A zoo keeper. B. An animal trainer. C. An animal doctor. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a gym. B. In an office. C. In a playground. 12. When does the woman usually work out? A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening. 13. What will the man do next? A. Lift weights. B. Ride a bike. C. Take a shower. 听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。 14. What has the woman lost? A. Her book. B. Her shoes. C. Her bag. 15. When does the group need to be at Hadrian’s Wall? A. By 10:00 a.m. B. By 1:00 p.m. C. By 2:00 p.m. 16. Why does the woman want to eat something soon? A. She missed lunch. B. She missed breakfast. C. She missed the snacks. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Who is the speaker probably talking to? A. Teachers. B. Parents. C. Students. 18. What is the main purpose of the talk? A. To give advice. B. To raise a question. C. To explain a problem. 19. What is the second tip for remembering things? A. Talking. B. Sleeping. C. Writing. 20. What does the speaker suggest at the end of the talk? A. Writing the information down. B. Getting more sleep. C. Doing some exercise. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Making Healthy Snacks It’s easy to allow your snacking habits to become boring, but with our healthy snack making cookery course, you’ll learn to create delicious and nutritious snacks for any time of day. This 1-day class will teach you how to make a selection of healthy, homemade snacks. The recipes included in this course are perfect for eating during the day or serving as casual snacks for guests. Recipes included in this course are: ·Shiitake mushrooms, rocket and tofu “samosas” with yogurt dip ·Tempeh and brown rice Italian “meatballs” ·Chinese cabbage, spinach and mustard rolls ·Chicken and prawn yakitori ·Vegetable crisps with mixed seed dip Each class has 12-16 participants and is equipped with 20 sets of dishes. Class structure Your day will be a mixture of in-kitchen shows performed by the chef who is running the session and hands-on practical cookery, where you are guided by the expert teaching chef. The exact plan-will vary from class to class depending on the style of cuisine and length of the course. Included in the price: ·Recipe booklet ·Apron ·Tea towel ·All ingredients All cooking equipment and teaching resources are provided in our kitchen for use on the day. What you need to bring: ·Sensible, flat-soled shoes.Open toes are not advised. ·Tupperware to transport your products home Buying as a gift? If you want to buy this course as a gift for someone, it is advisable to buy a gift card to the value of this course instead. This can be used on this course, or any of our other short courses, or at La Boutique and Café Le Cordon Bleu London. 1. What can you gain from the cookery course? A. Ways to make boring snacks attractive. B. Methods to change snacking habits. C. Advice on when to eat daily snacks. D. Skills to create tasty and healthy snacks. 2. How many participants are allowed at most per class? A. 12. B. 16. C. 20. D. 24. 3. What is included in the course price? A. Recipe booklet and apron. B. Flat-soled shoes and tupperware. C. Gift card and cafe meal. D. Cooking tools from home. B Tom lost his mother at the age of 12 and lived with his father Mr. Carter. To fill the emptiness and find something meaningful, he turned to football — and it soon became his greatest passion. Yet, for years, he was just a “bench warmer” on his high school football team, never playing in a real game despite his hard practice. Mr. Carter always supported him. Every Friday night, he sat on the stands in Tom’s old team jacket, shouting with joy when Tom warmed up on the sidelines. “Keep going, Son! Your time will come,” he’d say. Tom felt discouraged sometimes, but his father’s words kept him going. After high school, Tom made it onto the college football team. But to his disappointment, he was still a bench warmer. He thought of giving up, but his father reminded him, “Passion isn’t about winning — it’s about showing up, even when it’s hard.” So Tom practiced day and night. A week before college playoffs (季后赛), Tom got a terrible call: his father died of a sudden heart attack. Heartbroken, he wondered whether to quit, but a quiet voice made him recall his father. Finally, he made up his mind, “I’ll play for you, Dad.” In the playoff game, Tom’s team was losing badly in the second half. Tom stood up firmly, “Coach, let me play. I won’t let you down.” The coach nodded. Tom ran on the field and performed amazingly. He caught a long pass and stopped the opponent with a great tackle. His team tied the score and won in overtime. Holding the game ball, Tom looked up at the stand, almost seeing his father smile. He knew his father’s love and support gave him the strength to never give up. 4. Which is closest in meaning to “bench warmer” in Paragraph 1? A. A player who trains very hard every day. B. A player who teaches the team basic skills. C. A player who doesn’t play in games regularly. D. A player who warms the team’s bench with fire. 5. How did Mr. Carter support Tom in continuing to play football? A. By training with him every week to improve his skills. B. By cheering for him and encouraging him with kind words. C. By directly helping him get into the college football team. D. By personally teaching him important football techniques. 6. What can we learn from Paragraph 4? A. Tom decided to play for his late father. B. Tom’s team behaved badly in the first half. C. The coach refused Tom’s request to play. D. Tom failed to help his team tie the score. 7. What is a suitable title for the text? A. Father’s Love Powers Tom’s Football B. Tom’s Journey to a Football Star C. The Secret of Winning a Playoff D. A Bench Warmer’s Lucky Win C Crows are famous for being smart, with cognitive (认知的) abilities similar to those of 5- to 7-year-old children. Previous studies have shown that they can count up to four, and tell human voices and faces apart. Some kinds can even make tools for future use. A new study gives us more surprises, finding that crows can recognise basic geometric (几何的) features, such as side lengths, parallel lines and right angles. They can also tell different shapes apart, like stars, crescents, squares and irregular four-sided figures. To test crows’ geometric skills, scientists showed two crows six shapes on a digital screen. They trained the crows to pick the outlier — the shape that was different from the others. When the crows chose correctly, they got delicious snacks as rewards. At first, the outlier was easy to find, such as one flower among five crescents. As the crows got used to the task, the shapes became more similar, including squares and irregular four-sided figures. Even with harder tasks, the crows still found the outlier correctly. Crows’ shape recognition ability is still an interesting topic for researchers. They think this ability may help crows find their way when flying. It may also help them look for food or recognise other crows — including possible mates — by their facial features. Andreas Nieder, a neurophysiologist from the University of Tübingen in Germany and the senior author of the study, said, “From a biological point of view, all these abilities have developed because they help crows survive better and reproduce more easily.” In the future, researchers hope to find which part of crows’ brains controls their great geometric ability. Birds don’t have a cerebral cortex (大脑皮层) — at least, not like humans do. For humans, this part of the brain is in charge of thinking and other complex functions. But crows still have such abilities, so researchers believe there must be other special things in their brains. Nieder said, “Clearly, evolution has found two different ways to create animals that can behave flexibly.” 8. What can crows do according to the new study? A. Make tools for future use. B. Tell basic geometric shapes apart. C. Recognise different colors. D. Count numbers larger than four easily. 9. Which of the following is the main idea of Paragraph 2? A. The purpose of the test. B. The reasons for the test. C. The preparations for the test. D. The process of the test. 10. What is Nieder’s attitude towards crows’ cognitive abilities? A. Positive. B. Doubtful. C. Unclear. D. Negative. 11. What will researchers probably study next about crows? A. The cerebral cortex of humans and crows. B. Other complex functions of crows’ brains. C. The main causes of crows’ flexible behaviors. D. The brain areas of crows related to geometric skills. D Imagine a world where salty seawater could be used to grow fresh herbs, and fish waste could become “food” for plants? Scientists have created an amazing system that combines solar energy, seawater desalination (脱盐), fish farming and vegetable growing. This system helps solve water shortages and produces food efficiently. Why is this system needed? The world’s population is growing quickly and may reach 9.6 billion by 2050. More people need more food and water, but fresh water and farmland are becoming less and less. In dry areas like the Middle East, fresh water is so limited that farming is difficult. Besides, water, energy and food are closely connected. Solving one problem alone often doesn’t work. That’s why scientists developed this linked system. How does the system operate? The system works like a circular production line. First, solar panels provide power for a special filter called a “reverse osmosis membrane” to remove salt from seawater, producing fresh water. Then, part of this fresh water goes to a fishpond containing tilapia, a type of fish that grows quickly. Next, the fish waste naturally turns the water into nutrient-rich “fertilizer (化肥) water”. Finally, this fertilized water is used to irrigate sweet basil, a useful plant for cooking and medicine. What were the results? In their experiment, scientists compared watering basil, with fish waste water, chemical fertilizer, and a combination of both. After six months, the tilapia had a 97.7% survival rate, and each fish weighed about 0.458 kg. Basil plants watered with fish waste water grew the best — up to 62 cm tall, with 17.7 branches per plant. The yield reached 14.7 tons per hectare. With extra leaf fertilization, 1 cubic meter of fish waste water could produce 5 kg of basil. The essential oil from the basil was also high in quality. This system saves fresh water, reduces pollution, uses clean energy, and produces both fish and herbs. It is especially suitable for dry areas. Perhaps one day, such systems will become common, making every drop of water and every bit of energy count. 12. What can we infer about the new system in the Middle East? A. It will take the place of all traditional farms there soon. B. It will become the only way for people there to get food. C. It can turn all the seawater in the region into fresh water. D. It may help locals grow more food with limited fresh water. 13. According to Paragraph 3, how is fish waste used in the system? A. It is removed by a special filter. B. It is turned into food for the fish. C. It becomes fertilizer for the plants. D. It is mixed with chemical fertilizer. 14. Which method produced the best growth of basil in the experiment? A. Using only chemical fertilizer water. B. Using only fish waste water for watering. C. Watering directly with original seawater. D. Mixing waste water with chemical fertilizer. 15. What is the author’s purpose in writing the passage? A. To compare different methods of watering basil plants. B. To prove that solar energy is the most effective energy source. C. To introduce a new system that combines multiple technologies. D. To warn people of the serious global food and water shortage. 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Sunday night fear, a common feeling of anxiety about the upcoming workweek or schoolweek, often spoils the last moments of weekends. But you don’t have to let this fear ruin your weekend. ____16____. ●Don’t fill your weekend with too many things ____17____. If you pack every minute with housework, outings, or tasks, you’ll end up tired by Sunday evening — exactly when you need energy to ease into the new week. Leave gaps in your schedule: curl up with a light book, put on your favorite playlist, or just sit by a window and daydream. ●Do a little prep for the new week on Sunday evening. Spend 15 minutes packing your schoolbag listing key tasks or tidying your desk. ____18____. You’ll wake up feeling in control, not scrambling to find your homework or keys — and that sense of readiness cuts down on morning stress, too. ●____19____. Instead of worrying about all the difficult stuff ahead (a big test, a busy work meeting), think back to a bright moment from the weekend: a silly game with your friends, the delicious snack you had on Saturday afternoon, or a walk you took in the sunshine. ●Plan a small “Monday treat”. It could be a cup of milk tea on your way to school, or 10 minutes of playing your favorite game after finishing homework. This small expectation will make you look forward to Monday. Try these small changes, and Sunday nights won’t feel like a “countdown to stress” anymore. ____20____: a chance to rest, get ready, and feel calm before the new week begins. A. Stay away from dangerous things B. Focus on happy things, not worries C. You’ll turn them into a peaceful break D. Here are some simple ways to deal with it E. These small preps save you from a state of disorder F. Overplanning makes your weekends unexpectedly tiring G. Sunday nights are so boring that you always want to escape from them 第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Sajid, a Pakistani known as a “foreign son-in-law” in Suqian, Jiangsu, speaks fluent Chinese and runs a popular live-streaming (直播) business. With over 3million followers, he ____21____ Pakistani traditional and local products like hand-woven carpets and Himalayan salt to Chinese netizens. But few know he once struggled badly with cultural ____22____ and loneliness when he first came to China. In 2006, Sajid ____23____ from Pakistan to study international trade at Nanjing University of Aeronautics and Astronautics. He felt ____24____ due to language barriers and different food, struggling to fit in. ____25____, dorm managers’ kind care — greeting him and giving him fruits — ____26____ him to speak up, and his Chinese improved rapidly. During ____27____, he met his wife Cai Tongying. Their cross-border relationship was doubted, but Sajid’s decision to stay in China and hard work ____28____ her family’s approval. After graduation, he ____29____ the field of Sino-Pakistani trade. A 2019 viral video of him speaking Chinese made him ____30____ live-streaming. Though he faced ____31____ like learning live skills and building supply chains, his ____32____ and hard work paid off. By 2024, his sales had ____33____ 6 million yuan, connecting Chinese and Pakistani products. Now, he ____34____ more overseas opportunities to expand trade and deepen the two countries’ ____35____, becoming a great civilian representative. 21. A. promotes B. develops C. describes D. exhibits 22. A. hit B. crash C. attack D. shock 23. A. escaped B. came C. traveled D. migrated 24. A. upset B. happy C. annoyed D. calm 25. A. Gradually B. Obviously C. Luckily D. Sadly 26. A. forced B. encouraged C. invited D. allowed 27. A. education B. trade C. college D. graduation 28. A. agreed B. refused C. accepted D. won 29. A. ignored B. started C. left D. entered 30. A. turn to B. turn off C. turn up D. turn down 31. A. failure B. challenges C. pressure D. doubts 32. A. confidence B. patience C. determination D. curiosity 33. A. reached B. included C. valued D. predicted 34. A. wastes B. seeks C. offers D. quits 35. A. impression B. harmony C. understanding D. friendship 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 Dawan Chickens, the mascots (吉祥物) of the 15th National Games, became highly popular online shortly after the games ____36____ (start) in the Guangdong-Hong Kong-Macao Greater Bay Area. Their official names are “Xiyangyang” and “Lerongrong”, and the nickname “Dawan Chickens” comes from their round bodies, which remind people ____37____ Cantonese chicken dishes. The mascots are designed based on Chinese white dolphins, ____38____ rare marine animal in the Pearl River Estuary. On ____39____ (they) heads, three-colored waves stand for Guangdong, Hong Kong and Macao, ____40____ shows the close bond between the three regions. Dawan Chickens ____41____ (play) by students from martial arts schools. Each performer wears an 8-kilogram costume and performs for 4-5 hours every day. Instead of following fixed dance steps, they create random moves to interact with audiences, making the mascots ____42____ (deep) loved. Besides being cute, they carry cultural meanings, representing a new style of cultural ____43____ (express) and the vibrant spirit of the Greater Bay Area. As a symbol of joy and unity, Dawan Chickens not only show the Greater Bay Area’s vitality ____44____ also help promote regional integration. With these beloved mascots _____45_____ (continue) to charm people online and offline, they have become a delightful bridge connecting sports, culture, and public enthusiasm. It is no wonder that they have won the hearts of people across the country. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 46. 假定你是李华，你的外国朋友Tom近期发来消息，想知道你校刚结束的校园文化节(Campus Culture Festival)的具体情况。请你给他写一封英语邮件，内容包括： 1. 活动信息； 2. 活动内容； 3. 你的收获。 注意：1. 写作词数应为80左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡上的相应位置作答。 Dear Tom, ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 At Riverside High, the yearly “Green Campus Co-creation” activity was going on. All Grade 10 classes had to make useful environment-friendly plans to show the school. Mike, a quiet boy in Class 3, had always had trouble with being nervous around people. He loved drawing and often drew creative ideas in his notebook. But the thought of speaking in front of others made his hands shake — he was afraid he would stutter (结巴) or that others would laugh at his shyness. His friend Emma, however, was outgoing and kind. She had noticed Mike felt uncomfortable in group activities before and always tried to make him feel part of the group. When Mike’s group talked about ideas for the activity, his teammates chatted happily about making posters and cleaning up the school. Mike sat on the edge of the desk, twisting the corner of his notebook with his fingers. In the notebook, he had drawn detailed plans for colorful recycling boxes — each for a different class. Though his ideas were good, he stayed quiet because he was afraid of being laughed at. When someone looked at him, his face turned red. He quickly turned to a blank page and pretended to draw pictures freely. Emma, who had been watching him, sat close during the break. She patted his arm softly and said quietly, “I saw your drawings, Mike. They’re great. Our group really needs your creative ideas, and no one here will judge you. Teens like us all care about our friends, right? Talking nicely to each other doesn’t just make the activity better. It also takes away that stressful feeling of ‘not being good enough.’” Her warm smile and honest eyes made Mike feel less worried. 注意：1. 所续写短文的词数应为150左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡上的相应位置作答。 When the group got together again, Emma gave Mike a small nod. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Everyone cheered and nodded at him. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 保密★启用前 黔南州2025—2026学年度第一学期期末质量监测 高一 英语 注意事项： 1. 本试卷共8页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 2. 答题前将姓名、准考证号、座位号准确填写在答题卡指定的位置上。 3. 选择题须使用2B铅笔将答题卡相应题号对应选项涂黑，若需改动，须擦净另涂;非选择题在答题卡上对应位置用黑色墨水笔或黑色签字笔书写。在试卷、草稿纸上答题无效。 第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does the woman want to do? A. Go shopping. B. Cook breakfast. C. Have some coffee. 2. What is the man asking for? A. A pen. B. A menu. C. A password. 3. What does the woman probably think of the man? A. He is lonely. B. He is anxious. C. He is kind. 4. What are the speakers talking about? A. The weather. B. Exercise. C. The city. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. New friends. B. Old neighbors. C. Former classmates. 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. What is the man’s attitude to the tourists? A. Supportive. B. Uncaring. C. Negative. 7. What does the woman suggest? A. Building more museums. B. Offering a discount to locals. C. Controlling the number of visitors. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。 8. How often does the woman work at the zoo? A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week. 9. What is the main reason for the woman to work at the zoo? A. She needs money. B. She likes the workers there. C. She wants to help animals. 10. What does the woman want to be when she’s older? A. A zoo keeper. B. An animal trainer. C. An animal doctor. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。 11. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a gym. B. In an office. C. In a playground. 12. When does the woman usually work out? A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening. 13. What will the man do next? A. Lift weights. B. Ride a bike. C. Take a shower. 听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。 14. What has the woman lost? A. Her book. B. Her shoes. C. Her bag. 15. When does the group need to be at Hadrian’s Wall? A. By 10:00 a.m. B. By 1:00 p.m. C. By 2:00 p.m. 16. Why does the woman want to eat something soon? A. She missed lunch. B. She missed breakfast. C. She missed the snacks. 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。 17. Who is the speaker probably talking to? A. Teachers. B. Parents. C. Students. 18. What is the main purpose of the talk? A. To give advice. B. To raise a question. C. To explain a problem. 19. What is the second tip for remembering things? A. Talking. B. Sleeping. C. Writing. 20. What does the speaker suggest at the end of the talk? A. Writing the information down. B. Getting more sleep. C. Doing some exercise. 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分50分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. B 3. A B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. B 6. A 7. A C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. D 10. A 11. D D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. D 13. C 14. B 15. C 第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16 D 17. F 18. E 19. B 20. C 第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节，满分30分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. A 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. D 第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. started 37. of 38. a 39. their 40. which 41. are played 42. deeply 43. expression 44. but 45. continuing 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(满分15分) 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Tom, I’m glad you’re interested in our Campus Cultural Festival, which just ended last Friday. It lasted three days with the theme “Embrace Diversity, Celebrate Youth”. The festival offered various activities. A food fair featured traditional snacks, while the talent show included singing, dancing and drama. The handcraft exhibition displayed paper-cutting and calligraphy works. I joined a folk music performance with my classmates, playing the erhu for a traditional tune. This experience deepened my understanding of diverse cultures, improved teamwork skills, and made the school life more colorful. I wish you could have been here! Yours,s Li Hua 第二节(满分25分) 【47题答案】 【答案】【参考范文】 When the group got together again, Emma gave Mike a small nod. Heart beating fast, Mike held his notebook tightly and took a shaking breath. “I... I’ve got an idea,” he said quietly, his fingers shaking as he opened the pages. Emma moved closer with an encouraging smile, and he slowly showed his drawings of bright recycling boxes. “Each class could have one — with special designs and clear labels for paper, plastic, and glass,” he explained, his voice becoming steady as he pointed to the outlines. The teammates stopped talking, leaning forward with wide eyes, their interest taking the place of any judgment. Everyone cheered and nodded at him. “That’s great, Mike! These boxes will make recycling feel like a game!” a teammate said loudly, clapping hard. Emma gave him a proud smile, while others added questions about materials and colors. A warm feeling spread through Mike’s chest as his shyness disappeared, replaced by excitement as he talked more about his idea. Together, they made the drawings into real things, and their colorful recycling stations became the most popular part of the “Green Campus Co-creation” activity. When Mike later stood in front of the class to show their project, his voice still shook a little, but he spoke clearly — knowing his friends’ support would always help him through. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $