安徽芜湖市无为市2025-2026学年度第一学期期末学习质量检测七年级 英语试题卷

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2026-02-01
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2025~2026学年度第一学期期末学习质量检测七年级英语试题卷 注意事项: 1.你拿到的试卷满分为120分,考试时间为120分钟; 2.试卷包括“试题卷”(8页)和“答题卷”(2页)两部分。 3.请务必在“答题卷”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题是无效的; 4.考试结束后,请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分) Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 What does the girl want? A. B. C. 2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 What can Grace do? A. B. C. 3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 Where is Kate? A. In the USA. B. In China. C. In the UK. 4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 Whose key is it? A. John’s. B. Mary’s. C. Jim’s. 5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 When does the girl do housework? A. On Fridays. B. On Saturdays. C. On Sundays. Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 6. Where is the gym? A. Next to the school hall. B. Next to the dining hall. C. Behind the school. 7. What does John like to do in the gym? A. Play ball games. B. Do some cleaning. C. Do exercise. 听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 8. What do Tony’s grandparents like doing? A. Playing chess. B. Going fishing. C. Going hiking. 9. When do they often go fishing? A. In the afternoon. B. In the morning. C. In the evening. 10. What does Tony think of fishing? A. It’s not fun. B. It’s not easy. C. It’s interesting. Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 11. Which subject does Sara like best? A. English. B. Chinese. C. History. 12. When does Sara go to the English club? A. On Fridays. B. On Saturdays. C. On Sundays. 13. What can Sara do in the club? A. Read newspapers. B. Sing songs. C. Play games. 14. Where does Sara usually watch English news? A. In the library. B. In the club. C. At home. 15. Why does Sara want to learn English well? A. To go to the UK. B. To get a good grade. C. To be an English teacher. Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,填写下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】 About Linda Family members Her parents, her little sister and she School days ●They’re fun and ____16____. ●At around 7:30, she goes to school. ●She ____17____ at school from 9:00 to 3:40. ●After school, she dances with her friends in the club. ●She usually has ____18____ at seven. ● After that, she does her ____19____. ●She goes to bed at ____20____. 第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分) Ⅴ.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分) 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 21. 划线部分读音与其他三个不同的是______。 A. age B. cake C. take D. bag 22. I think math is interesting ______ difficult. What do you think? A. and B. so C. but D. or 23. —Mike, your 13-year-old brother has the same ________ as you. —Yeah, children grow fast. A. hobby B. height C. name D. grade 24. —Who is the man? —He is ______ father. A. Jim and Jane’s B. Jim and Jane C. Jim’s and Jane’s D. Jim’s and Jane 25. The time on the clock is ______. A. a quarter to ten B. a quarter past ten C. a quarter to eleven D. a quarter past eleven 26. I can speak English, but I ______ speak French. A. do B. can’t C. don’t D. can 27. —________ do you usually get up in the morning, Peter? —At 6 o’clock. A. What time B. How C. Which D. Who 28. Mr. Black, can you help us to ______ the notices on the smart whiteboard? A. look at B. act out C. put up D. blow out 29. —The book is so fun. I’m ______ it. —You can take it home and read it. A. good for B. different from C. similar to D. interested in 30. —Rongrong, happy birthday to you! —______, Mingyu. A. That’s easy B. Good idea C. Thank you D. Bye for now Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分) 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A There is a new student called Lily in our school. Let me tell you about ____31____. Lily is from the USA, so she can speak English very ____32____. She is ____33____ and always smiles at others. Lily and I are in the same group. We often ____34____ exercise together after class. She is good ____35____ math, so she helps me with math problems. I help her with Chinese ____36____ she thinks it’s a little difficult. On weekends, we sometimes go to the library. There are ____37____ interesting books there. Lily likes reading storybooks, and I like them, ____38____. Last Saturday, she lost her pencil box. I helped her ____39____ it. We found it under the desk. She was very ____40____, and we became better friends. 31. A. him B. her C. it D. them 32. A. well B. good C. nice D. best 33. A. friendly B. boring C. busy D. smart 34. A. do B. does C. doing D. to do 35. A. in B. at C. on D. for 36. A. because B. before C. after D. if 37. A. much B. any C. many D. little 38. A. too B. either C. also D. never 39. A. look after B. look for C. look at D. look like 40. A. excellent B. funny C. quiet D. happy B Everyone has their birthdays. People celebrate birthdays in almost every ____41____ all over the world. Some ways are ____42____ from country to country. But there are also different ways to celebrate birthdays. Here are some. In Denmark (丹麦), flags are very special. Parents always ____43____ a birthday cake with a national flag on it for their birthday child. And they also put a ____44____ outside their window. It means a child in the house is celebrating a birthday. In Holland (荷兰), all the people at the party must cover (遮盖) their eyes with cloth. And then, they search for (寻找) the gifts in the house. The one who finds the gift can ____45____ it. In Argentina (阿根廷), a girl’s fifteenth birthday is the most important. Parents always have a ____46____ party to celebrate. At the party, the birthday ____47____ must dance with her father first, and then the boys. In India, children usually wear white clothes to school. But on their ____48____, children wear colorful clothes to school and ____49____ chocolate to everyone in the class. Their best friends help them do this. In Israel (以色列), the birthday child sits in a chair with lots of flowers. His or her friends and parents will lift (举起) the chair. The ____50____ they lift are the birthday child’s age. 41 A. village B. town C. city D. country 42. A. different B. similar C. interesting D. boring 43. A. eat B. have C. cook D. prepare 44. A. flag B. flower C. cake D. gift 45. A. need B. have C. blow D. spend 46 A. handsome B. meaningful C. tidy D. difficult 47. A. woman B. man C. boy D. girl 48. A. birthdays B. school days C. sad days D. boring days 49. A. give out B. talk about C. think about D. work out 50. A. kilos B. heights C. celebrations D. times Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 根据对话内容,从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Hi, Alice. B: Hello, Bob. A: ____51____ B: It’s bad. I don’t like Wednesdays. A: Why? B: ____52____ A: Oh, you don’t like art, right? B: No, I don’t. ____53____ A: Really? I like music too I can play the piano beautifully. B: That’s great. We have a music festival at our school. ____54____ A: Sure. ____55____ B: Next week. A: Cool! I’ll be there on time. A. OK. Thank you for telling me about it. B. My favorite subject is music. C. Because I have art on Wednesdays. D. When is the music festival? E. Do you want to play the piano at the festival? F. What’s your favorite subject? G. How’s your day? 第三部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分) 第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A Clubs Activities Time and Place Cooking Club Learn to cook Chinese food like mapo tofu, jiaozi and baozi. 4:30 p.m. on Tuesdays in Room 303. Book Club Read stories, talk about books and make new friends. After school on Thursdays in Room 406. Nature Club Watch birds, take photos of plants or flowers and visit nature parks. 2 to 4 every Saturday afternoon in nature parks. Music Club Perform at school concerts and outside events, and practice music skills. 3:30 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. on Wednesdays and Fridays in the music room. 56. Bob likes reading, so where can he go? A. Room 303. B. Nature parks. C. Room 406. D. Music room. 57. If a student only has time on weekends, what club can he join? A. Cooking Club. B. Book Club. C. Nature Club. D. Music Club. 58. What can Jane learn on Tuesdays? A. To read stories. B. To watch birds. C. To practice music skills. D. To cook food. B There are many subjects at school. Do you know the “labor class”? It’s different from other classes. A study says Chinese students only spend 12 minutes a day on housework. That’s less than 72 minutes in the US, 42 minutes in South Korea and 36 minutes in France. So many schools open labor classes to help students live better. I’m happy about that. What can we learn from these classes? First, we can learn life skills (技能) which are good for us. Teachers teach us helpful things like planting trees, growing tomatoes, keeping pets and cooking. These skills are easy for adults (成年人), but they’re hard for us to learn well. Second, we can help our parents. Parents are busy with their work and tired (疲倦的) after a day. If we can look after ourselves and help them with housework, they will feel relaxed, and we will be happy too. 59. Why do some schools open labor classes? A. To teach students plant trees. B. To help students have a better life. C. To have a different kind of lesson. D. To help parents with their work. 60. What does the writer think of life skills? A. Different. B. Useful. C. Busy. D. Happy. 61. What does the underlined (划线的) word “relaxed” mean in Chinese? A. 明智的 B. 愤怒的 C. 放松的 D. 冷静的 62. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Different countries have different housework time. B. Labor classes can help students learn skills and help parents. C. How labor classes are different from other classes. D. There are many subjects at school. C ①School days look very different for students in different countries! Let’s take a look at how three students spend their school time. ②In South Korea, Minji starts school at 8:00 in the morning and she goes home at 4:00 in the afternoon. She has seven classes every day, and she eats her lunch in the classroom with a 40-minute lunch break. It’s a nice time to relax with her classmates in the classroom. ③Luca is from Italy. His school day is really early—it starts at 8:30 a.m. and finishes at 1:30 p.m. His school is not like Minji’s. He only gets a 15-minute break for a quick lunch, so he has to eat fast! ④Mia lives in Australia. Her school day begins at 9:00 a.m. and ends at 3:30 p.m. She has a one-hour lunch break, and she eats in the school dining hall. She loves this time because she can chat with friends while eating. ⑤See? Even though they are all students, their school days are so different. It’s interesting to learn about these differences! 63. How long is Minji’s school day? A. 8 hours. B. 5 hours. C. 9 hours. D. 7 hours. 64. Why does Luca have to eat his lunch quickly? A. Because he has seven classes a day. B. Because his lunch break is very short. C. Because he needs to chat with friends in the dining hall. D. Because his school day is really early. 65. What’s the structure (结构) of this passage? A. ①/②③④⑤ B. ①/②/③/④⑤ C. ①/②③④/⑤ D. ①②③④/⑤ D Hello, everyone! My name is Mike. I have a happy family. We enjoy different activities in our free time. My father loves playing chess. Every Sunday afternoon, he plays it with his friend, Mr. Wang, in the park. He thinks playing chess can make him think better. My mother likes going hiking. She often goes hiking with her friends on weekends and shares interesting stories with us after that. My brother Jason is good at playing the violin. He practices it for an hour every evening and hopes to be a musician in the future. As for me, my favorite is ping-pong. I like playing ping-pong with my classmates after school. It makes me strong and happy. We have different hobbies, but we love each other deeply. 66. Who is Mr. Wang? A. Mike’s father. B. Mike’s brother. C. Mike’s classmate. D. Mike’s father’s friend. 67. When does Mike’s mother usually go hiking? A. On weekends. B. On Fridays. C. After school. D. Every evening. 68. How many people are there in Mike’s family? A. Four. B. Five. C. Six. D. Seven. 69. Which is the best title (标题) for the passage? A. My Favorite Sport. B. My Family’s Free Time Activities. C. A Good Musician. D. My Parents’ Hobbies. E The world has a lot of people, and the number is growing. How can we get enough (足够的) food? Growing food in big cities might be a good way, and now there are many urban farms (城市农场) all over the world. Urban farms are “farms” in big cities—they can be in tall buildings or city parks. For example, the Pasona Farm in Japan grows food in an office building, and there are over 200 kinds of vegetables, fruits and rice. In the Netherlands, a big office building is now home to the Urban Farm De Schilde. It grows food on the building’s top floor and has a fish farm at the bottom (底部). Workers there sell fresh fruit and vegetables to supermarkets and restaurants. Many schools also have their own gardens. Students grow food there, learning scientific growing methods (科学种植方法) and how to work together. They even use the food they grow to feed classmates at school. Starting a farm or garden is hard work, but it helps many people and can be fun too! 70. Why do urban farms appear? A. To make the city bigger. B. To have enough food. C. To teach students to grow vegetables. D. To sell fresh fruit. 71. What can we know about urban farm in the Netherlands? A. It is in a city park. B. People can keep fish there. C. There are over 200 kinds of vegetables. D. It grows food at the bottom. 72. What is the third paragraph (段落) mainly about? A. How students learn scientific growing methods. B. Who works in school gardens. C. What students get from school gardens. D. How students grow vegetables in school gardens. 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。 Hello everyone. My name is Lily. I’m a Canadian girl. This is my new school. It’s not large, but it’s really lovely. There’s a nice garden in the center of the school. The music room is beside the garden, and behind the music room is the cafeteria—teachers and students often have their breakfast there. Look! That’s our science building. It has thirty classrooms in total. In my science class, there are fifty students: twenty-two of them are boys, and the rest are girls. On the left of the science building is the school library, which has lots of storybooks. I often read books there in my free time. The art building is behind the science building. I love my new school. What about yours? 73. What does Lily think of her new school?(不超过10个词) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 74. What is on the right of the school library?(不超过5个词) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 75. What does Lily often do when she is free?(不超过10个词) __________________________________________________________________________________________ 第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分) Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。 76. You can s______ (很快) learn to do housework for your family. 77. Maths is a useful subject in our d______ (日常的) life. 78. Mary b______ (刷) her teeth every morning. 79. It’s our d______ (职责) to keep our classroom clean and tidy. 80. We r______ (升起) the flag on Mondays. It’s a special way to start the week. Ⅹ.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分) 81. 我们在各种场合经常会遇到“自我介绍”。假如你是李华,请你根据下面表格中的内容写一篇英语短文,向你的新同学做一下自我介绍。 Name Li Hua Age 12 From Wuwei City Favorite Subjects English and Chinese Hobbies Playing basketball and reading books … … 要求: (1)语言流畅,语句通顺; (2)短文必须包括表格中的全部内容,可适当发挥; (3)不少于60词(句首已为你写好,不计入总词数)。 Hello, everyone! ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025~2026学年度第一学期期末学习质量检测七年级英语试题卷 注意事项: 1.你拿到的试卷满分为120分,考试时间为120分钟; 2.试卷包括“试题卷”(8页)和“答题卷”(2页)两部分。 3.请务必在“答题卷”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题是无效的; 4.考试结束后,请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分) Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】B 【3题答案】 【答案】B 【4题答案】 【答案】A 【5题答案】 【答案】B Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 【6~7题答案】 【答案】6. A 7. C 【8~10题答案】 【答案】8. B 9. B 10. A Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. B 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. A Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. busy 17. stays 18. dinner 19. homework 20. 10:00##10##ten 第二部分 语言知识运用(共三大题,满分35分) Ⅴ.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分) 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21题答案】 【答案】D 【22题答案】 【答案】C 【23题答案】 【答案】B 【24题答案】 【答案】A 【25题答案】 【答案】C 【26题答案】 【答案】B 【27题答案】 【答案】A 【28题答案】 【答案】C 【29题答案】 【答案】D 【30题答案】 【答案】C Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分) 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A 【31~40题答案】 【答案】31. B 32. A 33. A 34. A 35. B 36. A 37. C 38. A 39. B 40. D B 【41~50题答案】 【答案】41. D 42. B 43. D 44. A 45. B 46. B 47. D 48. A 49. A 50. D Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 【51~55题答案】 【答案】51. G 52. C 53. B 54. E 55. D 第三部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分) 第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。 A 【56~58题答案】 【答案】56. C 57. C 58. D B 【59~62题答案】 【答案】59. B 60. B 61. C 62. B C 【63~65题答案】 【答案】63. A 64. B 65. C D 【66~69题答案】 【答案】66. D 67. A 68. A 69. B E 【70~72题答案】 【答案】70. B 71. B 72. C 【73~75题答案】 【答案】73. It’s not large but really lovely./It’s not large but it’s really lovely. 74. The science building. 75. She often reads books in the school library. 第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分) Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分) 根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。 【76题答案】 【答案】soon 【77题答案】 【答案】daily 【78题答案】 【答案】brushes##rushes 【79题答案】 【答案】duty##uty 【80题答案】 【答案】raise##aise Ⅹ.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分) 【81题答案】 【答案】 例文 Hello, everyone! My name is Li Hua. I am 12 years old and I come from Wuwei City. My favorite subjects are English and Chinese because they are interesting and useful. In my free time, I enjoy playing basketball and reading books. Playing basketball makes me strong and helps me make new friends. Reading books opens my mind to different worlds. I hope we can become good friends and have a great time together in our new class. 第1页/共1页 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $2025至2026学年度第一学期期末学习质量检测七年级英语听力材料。一短对话理解,你将听到5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题请,在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项,每段对话读两遍。One, can I help you? Yes, please. I want some balloons for an evening party. Can I help you? Yes, please. I want some balloons for an evening party. Two, can you play the piano? Grace. yes, I am good at IT. Can you play the piano? Grace. yes, I am good at IT. Three, is that kate? Yes, he is in beijing now. Is that kate? Yes, he is in beijing now. For is that your Brown key? Mary, no. IT isn't. It's my classmate Jones. My key is . black. Instead of . your Brown key? Mary, no, IT isn't. It's my classmate Jones. My key is black. Five, do you help with housework at home? Yes, I always . do housework with my parents on saturdays. Do you help with housework at home? Yes. I always do housework with my parents on saturdays. 2、长对话理解。你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题请,在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍,听下面一段对话,回答第六、七小题。John, is there a gym in your school? Yes, there is. Is next to the school hall. Do you often go there? Yes, the games is large, and I like to do exercise there. John, is there a gym in your school? Yes, there is. Is next to the school hall. Do you often go there? Yes, the gym is large, and I like to do exercise there. 听下面一段对话,回答第8至10小题。I see a fishing rod in that box. Who's is IT, tony? It's my grandparents. Both of them like fishing a lot. really. I also like IT. When do they often go fishing . every morning? And they like going fishing at the park next to my home. Oh. it's a good place for fishing. What about you? Do you like fishing? No, IT is not fun for me. I like to go hiking. I see a fishing rod in that box whose is IT, tony? It's my grandparents. Both of them like fishing a lot. really. I also like IT. When do they often go fishing every morning? And they like going fishing at the park next to my home. Oh, it's a good place for fishing. What about you? Do you like fishing? No, IT is not fun for me. I like to go hiking. 3、短文理解。你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题请,根据短文内容,在每小题所给的ABC3个选项中选出一个最佳选项,短文读两遍。Hi, i'm . Sarah. I'm a middle school student at school. My favorite subject is chinese. Chinese is easy for me. I also like english. To learn english well. I join the english club at school. I go there every friday afternoon. In the club, I can watch english films, sing english songs and read english stories. They make english learning interesting at home. I usually watch english news on T, V. It's a little difficult, but I keep doing that. I want to learn english well because I want to take a trip to the U. K. Hi, i'm Sarah. I'm a middle school student at school. My favourite subject is chinese. Chinese is easy for me. I also like english. To learn english well. I join the english club at school. I go there every friday afternoon. In the club, I can watch english films, sing english songs and read english stories. They make english learning interesting at home. I usually watch english news on T, V. It's a little difficult, but I keep doing that. I want to learn english well because I want to take a trip to the U. K. 4、信息转换,你将听到一篇短文,请根据短文内容写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空只填一词,短文读两遍。Hello, my name is Linda. I am fourteen years old. I live in canada with my parents and my little sister jane. Every school day, I, I have a fun and busy life in the morning. I get up late, so I need to prepare all my things for school in twenty minutes. At around seven thirty, I leave home. From nine to three forty, I stay at school. I have six lessons every day, and they are all very interesting. After school, I like to dance with my friends in the dance club. Dinner time is usually at seven. After that, I need to do my homework. At ten, I say good night to my family and go to bed. Hello, my name is Linda. I am fourteen years old. I live in canada with my parents and my little sister jane. Every school day, I have a fun and busy life. In the morning, I get up late, so I need to prepare all my things for school in twenty minutes. At around seven thirty, I leave home. From nine to three forty, I stay at school. I have six lessons every day, and they are all very interesting. After school, I liked to dance with my friends in the dance club. Dinner time is usually at seven. After that, I need to do my homework. At ten, I say good night to my family and go to bed.

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安徽芜湖市无为市2025-2026学年度第一学期期末学习质量检测七年级 英语试题卷
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安徽芜湖市无为市2025-2026学年度第一学期期末学习质量检测七年级 英语试题卷
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安徽芜湖市无为市2025-2026学年度第一学期期末学习质量检测七年级 英语试题卷
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