内容正文:
惠城区2025-2026学年度第一学期期末教学质量检测学校 班级 姓名 座位号
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七年级英语试题
本试卷共6页,51小题,满分90分。考试用时90分钟。
注意事项:1.答卷前,考生务必用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔将自己的学校、姓名、考号和座位号填写在答题卡上。将条形码粘贴在答题卡“条形码粘贴处”。
2.作答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案,答案不能答在试卷上。
3.非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答。答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;如需改动,先划掉原来的答案,然后再写上新的答案;不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁,考试结束后将答题卡交回。
5.本次检测不考:一、听说应用部分(1-30小题)。
二、语法选择(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)。
请通读下面短文,掌握其大意,根据语法和上下文连贯的要求,从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Hello everyone! My name is Zhang Meng. Today is my first day in junior high. This is my new school. 31 three buildings and a playground. It’s not very big, 32 it’s really beautiful. I really like it. I love sports very much. I like running, playing football and swimming. I’m also a helpful girl. I like helping people with 33 problems. I’m a bit nervous now, but I’m also excited to meet new teachers and 34 .
My parents ask me, “ 35 do you feel about the new school life?” I say, “It 36 me excited, but I am a bit worried. I have a lot of tasks and homework. It’s hard 37 my time. What should I do?” They give me 38 paper boat and say, “Dear, you will face new problems. Sometimes, you have to sail your boat by yourself. 39 fact, it’s OK to make mistakes. Just try your best and work hard. We are 40 here to help.” I feel so warm and thankful for their words. All in all, I will enjoy my journey in junior high.
31.
A.There is
B.There are
C. There were
32.
A. but
B.or
C. and
33.
A. them
B. their
C. theirs
34.
A. classmate
B. classmates
C. classmates’
35.
A.What
B.Where
C. How
36.
A. makes
B. made
C. will make
37.
A. plan
B. plans
C. to plan
38.
A. a
B. an
C. the
39.
A. On
B. At
C. In
40.
A. never
B. always
C. seldom
三. 完形填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)。
请通读下面短文,掌握其大意,从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Nana is a student from Grade Seven. She loves Chinese traditional 41 very much.
One day, her teacher told the class about paper-cutting.“That’s 42 !”She thought. She wanted to learn 43 , so she asked her grandma for help.
Grandma was very happy to agree. She showed Nana how to draw a simple (简单的) flower first. Nana drew it 44 . Then she 45 to cut. At first, she cut too fast and made a small 46 . But grandma said: "It’s okay. Keep 47 !"
Nana tried again. She practiced every evening after doing her 48 . After a few days, she could make nice paper cuts.
Now Nana shares her 49 with her friends. “I’m 50 the school art festival.I want to share my works with more people.”She says.
41.
A. art
B. band
C. museum
D. university
42.
A. missing
B. boring
C. scary
D. amazing
43.
A. him
B. her
C. it
D. them
44.
A. madly
B. politely
C. carefully
D. silently
45.
A. rushed
B. started
C. refused
D. needed
46.
A. decision
B. difference
C. wish
D. mistake
47.
A. practicing
B. collecting
C. connecting
D. protecting
48.
A. project
B. homework
C. best
D. duty
49.
A. balloon
B. hobby
C. reunion
D. firework
50.
A. pointing out
B. knocking around
C. picking up
D. preparing for
四、阅读理解(每小题2分,共15小题,共30分)。
请阅读A、B两篇短文,从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A 篇
Three students are talking about their favourite festivals.
Lingling
I like the Spring Festival best. It’s an important festival in China. We hang balloons and lanterns in the house. My whole family sit together for a big dinner. We talk, laugh and eat a lot of nice food, like dumplings and fish. After dinner, we watch TV or play games. Some people also set off small fireworks outside.It’s really fun.
Hu Lei
My favourite festival is the Dragon Boat Festival. It’s on the fifth day of the fifth lunar month. I always eat zongzi during the festival. It is also my favourite food. The best part of the festival is the dragon boat races. The riversides are always full of people. That’s interesting!
Mark
I’m from England and I like Christmas best. It’s a popular festival in many countries. It falls on December 25th every year. People usually put up a Christmas tree at home, share a large meal together, and give each other gifts. It’s really a wonderful festival that brings people closer.
51.What does Lingling think of the Spring Festival?
A. Boring. B. Difficult. C.Fun. D. Tiring.
52.When is the Dragon Boat Festival?
A. On December 25th. B. On the fifth day of the fifth lunar month.
C. In January or February. D. On the first day of the first lunar month.
53.Where is Mark from?
A. America. B. Canada. C.China. D. England.
54.What do people NOT usually do on Christmas according to(根据)Mark?
A. Eat zongzi. B. Put up a Christmas tree.
C. Share a large meal. D. Give each other gifts.
55.Which is the best title (标题) of the passage?
A. The Importance of The Spring Festival B.Dates of Three Popular Festivals C. Three Students’ Favourite Festivals D. How to Celebrate Christmas
B 篇
Tea is one of the most popular drinks around the world. But do you know that “your cup of tea” is not just about drinking tea? In daily English, this phrase(短语) has another meaning. It means something or someone that you like or are interested in. For example, if playing the piano is not your cup of tea, it means you don’t like playing the piano.
Different countries have different tea cultures. In China, tea is often served when friends or family get together. People drink it in teahouses or at home anytime. In Japan, there is a famous tea ceremony(仪式).From making tea to serving it, people must follow strict rules(规则). It is a way to show respect(尊敬) and peace. In Britain, drinking afternoon tea is a tradition. People usually have black tea with milk, together with cakes and sandwiches. They see it as a good time to relax and chat with friends. No matter how people drink tea or what “your cup of tea” refers to, tea always plays an important part in connecting people and carrying cultures.
56.What does the phrase “your cup of tea” mean in daily English?
A. A cup of tea you like. B. Something or someone you enjoy.
C. A traditional drink in your country. D. A time when you drink tea.
57.According to the passage, In China, people drink tea______.
A. only in teahouses. B. only at home.
C. in teahouses or at home. D. anywhere.
58.What do British people usually have with black tea?
A. Rice and vegetables. B. Cakes and sandwiches.
C. Biscuits and fruit. D. Milk and eggs.
59.What can we infer(推断) from the passage?
A. “Your cup of tea” has more than one meaning.
B. Chinese people like to drink tea when playing the piano.
C. The Japanese tea ceremony is very casual (随意的).
D. British people drink afternoon tea to work better.
60.Why is tea important according to the passage?
A. It is the most popular drink in the world.
B. It helps people learn strict rules.
C. It connects people and carries different cultures.
D. It makes teahouses become popular places.
C篇
配对阅读。左栏是五个人的情况介绍,右栏是七则人物简介。请为每个人匹配对应的人物简介,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
61.Linda can play table tennis well. She often plays table tennis at weekends.
62.Tim is a rock music lover. He plays the electric guitar in the school band.
63. Mrs. White doesn’t go to work every day. She stays at home and cooks meals for her family.
64.Mr White is a teacher. He is 42 years old. He is also a bird-watcher.
65.Jack is old, but he still works on the farm every day.
A. My grandpa is a farmer. He is 70 years old, but he still likes to do some farm work.
B. My sister likes table tennis very much. She often plays it with me on Sundays.
C. My father is a geography teacher. He loves watching birds in his free time.
D. My mother doesn’t have a job. She just stays at home and cooks food for my family.
E. My grandpa is old. He likes playing the erhu in the park with his friends.
F. My brother likes rock music very much. He is a member(成员)of school band. We often play the electric guitar together.
G. My cousin likes sports. He often plays table tennis with his classmates after school.
五、短文填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)。
请从方框内选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使文章完整连贯。注意每空一词,每词仅用一次,有两词为多余项。请将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
sound celebrate fantastic with put hunt
engineer careful lost touching rescue we
I’m in the wildlife park with my classmates. We are excited to see many 66 animals. First, we watch the beavers. Look! One beaver is cutting a tree 67 its teeth. And the other two are 68 the sticks in the river. They are building their home in it. This is amazing! Beavers are really “nature’s 69 ”!
Suddenly, we hear a small 70 . A little bird falls from a tree and looks scared. A boy wants to 71 it, but he doesn’t know how. Luckily, a worker from the park comes. He picks up the bird 72 and checks its legs.He tells us that the bird is not hurt, but it gets 73 from its family. We help look for its parents and soon find them nearby. The little bird flies to its family quickly — it is a 74 moment.
On our way back, we talk about the day. We learn that animals are 75 fantastic friends. We should be kind to them and protect their homes.
六、读写综合:(本大题分A、B两部分,共25分)
A. 回答问题(共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)。
请阅读下面短文,根据所提供的信息,回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整切题,并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
Hello! My name is Li Fang. I have a happy family. There are five people in my family: my grandparents, my parents and I. We love each other.
Now I am a junior high school student. There are many subjects, but I like English best because it’s very interesting and useful. I like speaking English with my classmates. I join the school English club. I go to the club on Saturdays. Our English teacher is Miss Wang. She loves us very much. But she is very strict with us. And we love her too. She often tells us some funny English stories. She likes sports very much. After class, she often plays volleyball with us. She also plays the violin very well. She often plays the violin and we sing and dance together, too. Miss Wang is really good with us.
My favourite sports are volleyball and swimming. I usually go swimming on Sundays with my friend, Li Wei. My favourite animal is a dog. I often play with it after school. It’s my friend too.
76. How many people are there in Li Fang’s family?
___________________________________________________________________________
77. Why does Li Fang like English best ?
___________________________________________________________________________
78. When does Li Fang go to the English club?
___________________________________________________________________________
79. Who plays the violin very well?
____________________________________________________________________________
80. What are Li Fang’s favourite sports?
____________________________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达(本题15分)
请根据要求完成短文写作,并将写作内容写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
81.假如你叫李华,你刚进入一所新的初中学校,你的新同学想了解你。请你以“This Is Me ”为题写一篇短文,介绍你自己。
这就是我
爱好:
至少一个具体爱好,简单说明喜欢的原因
个人介绍:
姓名、年龄
未来计划:
1.学习计划
2.兴趣发展计划
注意:
(1)可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息。
(2)不能照抄原文;不得在作文中出现真实校名、地名和考生的真实姓名。
(3)语句连贯,词数70左右。作文的标题和开头已经给出,不计入总词数,也不必抄写在答题卡上。
This Is Me
Hello, everyone! Now let me introduce myself.________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
This is me. Thank you!
惠城区2025-2026学年第一学期期末教学质量检测
七年级英语试题参考答案
2. 语法选择(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
31-35 BABBC 36-40 ACACB
三.完形填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
41-45 ADCCB 46-50 DABBD
四.阅读理解(本大题共15小题,每小题2分,共30分)
51-55 CBDAC 56-60 BCBAC 61-65 BFDCA
五.短文填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)
66. fantastic 67. with 68. putting 69. engineers 70. sound
71.rescue 72.carefully 73. lost 74. touching 75. our
六.读写综合(本大题分为A、B两部分,共25分)
A.回答问题(本大题共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
76. Five./Five people./There are five people in Li Fang’s family.
77. Because it’s very interesting and useful.
78. On Saturdays.
79. Miss Wang./ Li Fang’s English teacher, Miss Wang.
80. Volleyball and swimming./Li Fang’s favourite sports are volleyball and swimming.
B.书面表达(本题15分)
参考范文:
This Is Me
Hello, everyone! Now let me introduce myself. My name is Li Hua. I am 13 years old.
My hobby is reading English stories. I like it because it not only makes me happy, but also helps me learn more new English words and know interesting things.
I have two plans for the future. First, I will listen carefully in class and finish my homework on time every day. This is my study plan. Second, I am interested in writing. I will read more English storybooks and try to write short English stories by myself.
This is me. Thank you!
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