山东省济南市槐荫区2025-2026学年上学期八年级英语期末考试试题

2025～2026学年度第一学期期末质量检测八年级英语 (2026.01) 本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. She dances better. B. He went to the mountains. C. I’m going to exercise. 2. A. We won’t live on earth. B. Ann didn’t go anywhere. C. We can’t live without bees. 3. A. Can you pick me up? B. Does she sing louder? C. Will there be less food? 4. A. What an amazing smell! B. How clever you are! C. What scary sounds! 5. A. Where did you go? B. How long will people live? C. What are you reading? 第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. What did Ted do every morning? A. He went fishing. B. He went swimming. C. He went hiking. 7. What will Jack do first? A. Take out the rubbish. B. Feed the fish. C. Water the plants. 8. What may be the right job for Tony? A. A doctor. B. A teacher. C. A tour guide. 9. What would Frank probably do next? A Buy a new book. B. Tell the truth. C. Keep it a secret. 10. Why does Tina call the man? A. For a drawing activity. B. For an English club meeting. C. For a piano lesson. 第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. When will Ben give the speech? A. This Wednesday. B. Next Monday. C. Next Wednesday. 2. What did Ben do last month? A. He visited a car factory. B. He drew a robot design. C. He joined a robot club. 13. Why does Amy fell Ben about her uncle? A. To ask for Ben’s help. B. To give an example. C. To talk about her family. 14. What are the speakers talking about? A. Preparing a speech. B. Telling a family story. C. Making school plans. 15. Who are the two speakers? A. Mother and son. B. Teacher and student. C. Friends. 第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文听两遍。(听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间) 16. Why does John plan to join the English club? A. To make friends. B. To pracllse speaking. C. To write stories. 17. How often will John join the English club? A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week. 18. What will Diana do to protect redwood tree A. Clean the community garden. B. Plant tes and make posters. C Take photos of trees. 19. How willJennydearn.to make steamed fishnis week? A By watching videos online. B. By leaning from her family. C. By reading the recipe. 20 How can we get more imormation about life gears? A. Make a call. B. Send an e-mail. C. Talk face to face. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分，满分40分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Eat Well, Feel Great! Food gives us the energy we need to grow, learn, and be active every day. To stay healthy, eat different kinds of food at every meal. Dairy products (乳制品) We need to eat dairy products such as milk and cheese. Like fish, beans, and meat, dairy products help keep our bodies strong. Do it! Go for low-fat milk and cheese. They are healthier. Grain products (谷类食品) Don’t forget grains! Eat bread, rice and noodles to get energy for your day. Do it! Make sure to get enough grains to stay healthy. Fruit and vegetables Fruits and vegetables are important for staying healthy. Remember to eat enough of them at every meal. Do it! Try to eat different kinds of fruits and vegetables every day. Don’t forget to drink water. We should drink 6-8 glasses of water every day to help us stay healthy. 1. Which of the following is a kind of dairy products? A. Fish. B. Beans. C. Milk. D. Noodles. 2. How many kinds of grain products are mentioned in the text? A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five. 3. Which kind of food is missing according to the text’s advice? A. Grain products. B. Fruit and vegetables. C. Dairy products. D. Water. 4. What’s the writer’s opinion about eating well? A. Eat grains in different colors. B. Eat a lot of food as you like. C. Eat more fruit in one meal. D. Eat different kinds of food. 5. In which part of a magazine can we probably read the text? A. Art. B. Sports. C. Health. D. Education. B A boy helped watch over the barrels(桶) in his father’s factory in the winter vacation. Every morning, his father gave him a task of brushing the barrels and putting them in order, but the wind blew the barrels here and there overnight. The boy was so angry that he wrote a letter to the wind, “Please don’t blow down my barrels.” After seeing that, his father asked the boy with a smile, “Can the wind read your letter?” The boy said, “I don’t know. I have no choice but to make this request (请求).” The next morning, when the little boy ran to look over the barrels, he found that the wind blew barrels here and there again. The little boy felt very unhappy and cried. His father came and said kindly, “Son, don’t be sad. We may have no way to deal with the wind. but we can have our own ways to fight against the wind.” Then the little boy dried his tears and thought over and over. Finally, he thought of an idea. He filled the empty barrels with water. After that, he went home worriedly. The third morning, the little boy put on his clothes in a hurry and ran out. He was excited to find the barrels were placed in good order. The little boy smiled happily and told his father, “It’s a very simple way to make the barrels heavier.” The boy’s father smiled and nodded his head. We can’t change many things in the world, but we can change ourselves. 6. What was the boy’s job in the factory? A. To sell the barrels. B. To paint the barrels. C. To clean the barrels. D. To fill the barrels with water. 7. How did the boy’s father help him? A. He changed the boy’s job. B. He worked with the boy. C. He finished the task for the boy. D. He helped the boy find a way. 8. Why didn’t the barrels move after being filled with water? A. They became too heavy to move. B. The wind stopped that night. C. His father put them in order. D. The wind read his letter. 9. What’s the right order of the following events? ①The boy asked the wind for help but failed. ②He found the barrels in order the next morning. ③He saw the wind blow the barrels away. ④His father told him to find his own way. A. ①④③② B. ①③④② C. ③①④② D. ③④①② 10. What does the writer want to tell us? A. Better late than never. B. East or west, home is best. C. Practice makes perfect. D. God helps those who help themselves. C In recent years, drones (无人机) have become more and more popular. These small flying machines, which can be controlled by remote controls (遥控器), are now more than just toys for drone lovers. They are now playing important roles in many areas of our daily lives, making work and life easier. For example, drones are used for more than 50% of the work in building roads and bridges. In the energy business, the use of the drones reaches about 45%. On large farms, about one third of them use drones to check on their crops (庄稼). One of the most common uses of drones is in delivery (快递) services. Big companies like SF Express and JD.com have tested drone delivery for a long time. Instead of having delivery workers travel by bike or car, drones can not only carry small packages (such as books, snacks, and even medicine) to people’s homes quickly but also reach places that are difficult for cars to get to. This is especially useful in areas with heavy traffic, as drones can fly over cars and reach people’s homes faster. Drones also bring great benefits to farmers. Farmers use drones to check their crops. With special cameras, drones can fly over large fields and take clear pictures. By looking at these pictures, farmers can tell if their crops are healthy, if they need more water. Or if there are pests (害虫), so that they can take action right away to protect their plants. This helps farmers save a lot of time and energy instead of walking across the fields themselves. Besides, drones are useful in search and rescue work. When someone gets lost in the mountains or a forest, rescuers (救援者) can use drones to look for them. Because drones can cover large areas quickly and send real-time videos back to rescuers, it becomes much easier to find the lost person, especially in dangerous or hard-to-reach places. However, there are also rules for using drones. For example, drones cannot fly near airports (because they may cause problems for planes) and must not be used to take photos of other people’s houses without asking. Following these rules helps keep everyone safe and protects people’s personal privacy. As drones are helpful in so many ways, they are sure to become even more important in our daily lives in the future. 11. How is Paragraph 1 developed? A. By listing numbers. B. By telling stories. C. By comparing things. D. By giving reasons. 12. Why is drone delivery helpful in areas with heavy traffic? A. Drones are cheaper than delivery cars. B. Drones don’t need any energy to fly. C. Drones can carry very large packages. D. Drones can fly over cars and save time. 13. What can we learn from paragraph 3? A. Drones can take pictures of farmers. B. Farmers often use drones to plant crops. C. Drones make farming more efficient. D. Drones can replace farmers soon. 14. In which situation can drones be helpful according to the text? A. Cleaning windows of tall buildings. B. Finding a lost person in a forest. C. Carrying heavy packages in a factory. D. Taking pictures of tall buildings. 15. What is the purpose (目的) of the text? A To tell readers the popularity of drones. B. To introduce the uses of drones in daily life. C. To explain the reasons why drones are expensive. D. To describe the history and development of drones. D For many teenagers and adults, having a cup of hot coffee right after getting out of bed is a common way to start a busy day. It feels like a small but important daily habit that helps them wake up quickly. However, a report from ASAP Science says otherwise. It says that if we drink coffee soon after we get up—a common habit for many—it might actually be the worst time. A fact that surprises many people. When we wake up, our bodies start to make cortisol (皮质醇). Cortisol can help us think clearly, stay focused, and react quickly to things around us. The cortisol levels (水平) rise after we wake and climb to their highest in about an hour. Drinking coffee during this time brings two problems: first, it may lead our bodies to produce less cortisol, which is not good for our health; second, the high cortisol levels make coffee less helpful, making us feel less energetic than expected. And that’s why some of us drink more and more coffee to feel awake. So, when is the best time to enjoy a cup of coffee? The report suggests that we should wait until our cortisol levels start to drop. For most people, cortisol is at its highest between 8 a.m. and 9 a.m., then again between noon and 1 p.m., with a third high time happening around 7 p.m., which are the worst times to drink coffee. So if you want to have coffee, enjoy it after these times, and this popular drink will benefit you more. Three people read this interesting report and share their opinions. Jim, a coffee lover, said, “The best time to drink coffee is. whenever you want it—habits and personal choices are more important than strict rules.” Sarah joked, “I often wake up after I drink coffee.” Charlie said, “If someone needs a science report to tell them when to drink coffee, that seems a little sad.” 16. Why is it not good to drink coffee right after getting up? A. Cortisol can help us think clearly. B. High cortisol levels make coffee less useful. C. Coffee can make cortisol levels higher. D. Cortisol will make people feel sleepy. 17. What does the underlined word “otherwise” mean in paragraph 1? A. Differently. B. Similarly. C. Correctly. D. Suddenly. 18. Which is a good time for coffee, according to the text? (Picture: The changing levels of cortisol during a day) A. Point A. B. Point B. C. Point C. D. Point D. 19. What do the three people think of the report? A. They think it’s helpful. B. They want to follow it. C. They disagree with it. D. They benefit from it. 20. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Bodies Make Less Cortisol B. A Popular Drink in the World C. Different Opinions about Coffee D. The Best Time to Drink Coffee 第二节 阅读七选五(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分) 阅读下面短文、从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 When we talk about communication, we often think of talking with others. But do you know that we also talk to ourselves? For example, your mum asks you what you would like for breakfast. Many foods come to your mind: sandwiches, bread, milk... You might ask yourself, “Which is healthier?” or “Which one do I want today?” You think quietly and decide to have sandwiches. So, before you tell your mum what you want to eat, you are talking with yourself. ____21____ There are many kinds of inner (内在的) communication in our daily lives, like reading, writing, thinking, and remembering things. It also includes planning our day, solving problems, and even imagining the future. ____22____ Inner communication is just like a secret conversation happening inside us. Inner communication plays a role in our lives. It allows you to think about your own values and make it clear who you are.____23____ When you know what you want you can get on with yourself better. Also, inner communication helps keep an eye on your thoughts and realize your emotional state (状态) ____24____ And then you will try to cheer up and let them go. ____25____ If you understand your thoughts better, you will put yourself in others’ shoes when you talk to or listen to them. Then, you can communicate with people more easily and build good relationships with them. A. Good relationships improve inner communication. B. It’s important to have a healthy breakfast every day. C. This means it makes you understand yourself better. D. For example, you can notice your sad feelings in time. E. We call this kind of communication inner communication. F. Inner communication also helps you to talk with others better. G. These activities happen in our heads, and we don’t say them out loud. 第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分35分) 第一节 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分) 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 A: Hi! Mario. What are you doing? B: ____26____ There’s a big report about Zhang Zhanshuo, the swimming winner from Shandong the 14th National Games! A: Yeah, I know him! He’s amazing. ____27____ B: Of course. I’m in the swimming club and I practise a lot. A: Well, I want to be an astronaut (宇航员) when I grow up. B: Wow, why? A:____28____ And I like the Chinese astronauts Wang Yaping and Wang Haoze. They are my heroes. B: Sounds great! How are you going to do that? A: ____29____ And I’ll exercise every day to keep fit. B: Good luck. I hope your dream will come true one day. A:____30____ You too! I believe you can be a top swimmer like Zhang Zhanshuo. 26. A. My favorite color is blue. B. I have two brothers. C. I’m reading a sports magazine. D. The weather is sunny today. 27. A. Do you want to be an athlete like him? B. Who is singing over there? C. How much do you need? D. Can you help me? 28. A. I can’t hang up the photos. B. Because I like outer space. C. I’m going to get fitter. D. I made friends with them. 29. A. She calls his father. B. He wants to be a teacher. C. I’ll study science harder. D. They are good at writing. 30. A. See you then! B. How delicious! C. My pleasure! D. Thank you! 第二节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Wang Fa, a 14-year-old boy, said that the sport gave him a way out of his hometown in the mountains of Yunnan Province and changed his life. He ____31____ the first prize in men’s singles (单打) under 14 years old at the ASICS Tennis Junior Tour in Guangzhou in late August. When he was eight, Coach (教练) Zhang Xiaohong chose Wang and other kids to play tennis. At that time, the boy didn’t even know ____32____ tennis was, Zhang asked several boys to run and ____33____, the ball, Wang’s ____34____ ability caught Zhang’s eyes. “It would be a waste not to train such a talent (天才),” Zhang said. Wang’s parents didn’t want him to learn tennis at first ____35____ they didn’t have enough money. So Zhang ____36____ to teach him for free. The first time Wang and his friends left the mountains, they were ____37____. However, several days later, some of them wanted to ____38____ practising and go back home. To ____39____ them, Zhang organized (组织) fun team activities and cooked their favorite food. All the team players were touched and decided to stick with it. The team visited many ____40____ such as Beijing, Shanghai and Guangzhou for matches. Wang’s first match was in Shenzhen. The outside world was so different from his hometown that he was nervous. ____41____, he felt happy when he played more and made more friends. And he even got a chance to study in a city to get a better ____42____. By playing tennis, Wang became confident. “My ____43____ is to become a tennis player.” he said. “I want to take part in more matches and try my best to ____44____ more honor to my country. It’s amazing to see what ____45____ happen when I try my best to achieve my goals! 31. A. lost B. heard C. won D. gave 32. A. what B. where C. which D. who 33. A. finish B. solve C. catch D. pack 34. A. terrible B. common C. strange D. fantastic 35. A. though B. because C. if D. but 36. A. expected B. failed C. disagreed D. decided 37. A. angry B. bored C. excited D. worried 38. A. keep on B. give up C. grow up D. put out 39. A. calm B. point C. reach D. encourage 40. A. villages B. towns C. cities D. countries 41. A. Besides B. However C. Instead D. Then 42. A. education B. guide C. essay D. influence 43. A. opinion B. advice C. dream D. hobby 44. A. mix B. try C. pay D. bring 45. A. can B. should C. must D. need 第三节 阅读填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 There is a special jug (罐) on our kitchen table. I put some small pieces of paper and a pen next to the jug. Everyone in my family has ____46____ chance to write down something good in our daily life. With pieces of paper inside, we call the jug “Good Things Jug”. Our family faced many ____47____ (difficulty) and challenges last year, ____48____ the “Good Things Jug” gave us confidence and hope. Here are a few things from the “Good Things Jug”: “My wife ____49____ (buy) me a new tie yesterday. I like it very much.” “Last week, I was ____50____ (serious) ill, but with my parents’ care, I feel better now. I’m so thankful for their love.” “In the final exam, I got an A in maths! I achieved ____51____ (I) goal.” “On my birthday, my daughter made a birthday cake for me. I’m ____52____ (happy) mother in the world.” Our “Good Things Jug” is full ____53____ love, hope and happiness. The little messages remind us that we can always expect good things ____54____ (come), even during difficult times. If you create your “Good Things Jug” today, it ____55____ (make) a big difference in your future life. 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分) 第一节 情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分) 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 56. A: Who did Ella go to the park with last weekend? B: ________________________________________________________________ 57. A: ________________________________________________________________ B: Sorry, I have to make the bed. 58. A: What should we do with the tomatoes? B: ________________________________________________________________ 59. A: What does Steve want to be when he grows up? B: ________________________________________________________________ 60. A: ________________________________________________________________ B: There will be more people in cities in the future. 第二节 作文(满分25分) 61. 假定你是李华，学校英语报以“Cooking for My Family”为主题开展征文活动，请你写一篇参赛征文，描述一次你为家人做饭的具体经历以及你的感受。 注意： 1. 词数100左右； 2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3. 不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。 ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025～2026学年度第一学期期末质量检测八年级英语 (2026.01) 本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。 注意事项： 1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. She dances better. B. He went to the mountains. C. I’m going to exercise. 2. A. We won’t live on earth. B. Ann didn’t go anywhere. C. We can’t live without bees. 3. A. Can you pick me up? B. Does she sing louder? C. Will there be less food? 4. A. What an amazing smell! B. How clever you are! C. What scary sounds! 5. A. Where did you go? B. How long will people live? C. What are you reading? 第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. What did Ted do every morning? A. He went fishing. B. He went swimming. C. He went hiking. 7. What will Jack do first? A. Take out the rubbish. B. Feed the fish. C. Water the plants. 8. What may be the right job for Tony? A. A doctor. B. A teacher. C. A tour guide. 9. What would Frank probably do next? A. Buy a new book. B. Tell the truth. C. Keep it a secret. 10. Why does Tina call the man? A. For a drawing activity. B. For an English club meeting. C. For a piano lesson. 第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. When will Ben give the speech? A. This Wednesday. B. Next Monday. C. Next Wednesday. 2. What did Ben do last month? A. He visited a car factory. B. He drew a robot design. C. He joined a robot club. 13. Why does Amy fell Ben about her uncle? A. To ask for Ben’s help. B. To give an example. C. To talk about her family. 14. What are the speakers talking about? A. Preparing a speech. B. Telling a family story. C. Making school plans. 15. Who are the two speakers? A. Mother and son. B. Teacher and student. C. Friends. 第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文听两遍。(听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间) 16. Why does John plan to join the English club? A. To make friends. B. To pracllse speaking. C. To write stories. 17. How often will John join the English club? A. Every day. B. Once a week. C. Twice a week. 18. What will Diana do to protect redwood tree A. Clean the community garden. B. Plant tes and make posters. C Take photos of trees. 19. How willJennydearn.to make steamed fishnis week? A. By watching videos online. B. By leaning from her family. C. By reading the recipe. 20 How can we get more imormation about life gears? A. Make a call. B. Send an e-mail. C. Talk face to face. 第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分) 第一节 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分，满分40分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~5题答案】 【答案】1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. C B 【6~10题答案】 【答案】6. C 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. D C 【11~15题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. B D 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. B 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. D 第二节 阅读七选五(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分) 【21~25题答案】 【答案】21. E 22. G 23. C 24. D 25. F 第三部分 语言运用(共三节，满分35分) 第一节 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分) 【26~30题答案】 【答案】26 C 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D 第二节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【31~45题答案】 【答案】31. C 32. A 33. C 34. D 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. B 39. D 40. C 41. B 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A 第三节 阅读填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【46~55题答案】 【答案】46. a 47. difficulties 48. but 49. bought 50. seriously 51. my 52. the happiest 53. of 54. to come 55. will make 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分35分) 第一节 情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分) 【56~60题答案】 【答案】56. She went to the park/there with her grandparents. 57. Could you (please) sweep the floor?/Can you (help) sweep the floor? 58. We should cut (up) the tomatoes./We should cut them into pieces. 59. He wants to be a fireman (when he grows up). 60. What will the future be like?/What will cities be like?/What is your prediction about the future? 第二节 作文(满分25分) 【61题答案】 【答案】例文： Cooking for My Family Last Sunday, I decided to cook dinner for my family. It was a precious experience for me. With my mother’s help, I prepared tomato soup and fried eggs. First, I washed and cut tomatoes. Then I cooked them in a pot with water. After that, I fried eggs carefully. Though I was nervous, my parents smiled and praised the food. I felt proud and happy because I could share love through cooking. This experience taught me that cooking is not just about food, but also about caring for family. I will cook for them more often. From now on, I will try my best to do housework and prepare more delicious food for my family. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $