安徽合肥市第四十五中学2025-2026学年第一学期期末七年级英语试卷

2025-2026学年第一学期七年级英语试卷 注意事项： 1.你拿到的试卷满分为120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2.试卷包括“试题卷”和“答题卷”两部分。请在“答题卷”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题是无效的。选择题用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应的答案标号涂黑。 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does Jack like best about the Spring Festival?? A. B. C. 2. Where does Frank’s mother work? A. B. C. 3. Who is interested in plants? A. Tom. B. Tom’s grandmother. C. Mary. 4. What will the woman do tonight? A. Watch a football game. B. Finish her task. C. Do the housework. 5. How many students are there in Tina’s class? A. 18. B. 17. C. 35. Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 6. Where are the books? A. In the bag. B. On the bed. C. On the desk. 7. What color is the pencil? A. Red. B. Green. C. Brown. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。 8. What kind of party is it? A. A dancing party. B. A food party. C. A music party. 9. What time will the party start? A. At about 6:30 pm. B. At about 7:30 pm. C. At about 8:30 pm. 10. How will the family go to the party? A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By bus. Ⅲ.短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. When does Bill often go to the zoo? A. On Sundays. B. On Saturdays. C. On Fridays. 12. Why does Bill like pandas? A. Because they’re very interesting. B. Because they’re very friendly. C. Because they` re very cute. 13. How old is Lanlan? A. One year old. B. Two years old. C. Three years old. 14. What animals does Jenny like? A. Pandas. B. Monkeys. C. Lions. 15. Who thinks lions are interesting? A. Ben. B. Jenny. C. Bill. Ⅳ.信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 City Book Festival Time Next ________. Place In Zhongshan Park. Activities You can ________ around different bookshops. You can buy ________ books at most.（至多） You may see your favourite ________ You can get ________ drinking water everywhere. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） Ⅴ.单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1. —Peter, is this hat on the bed ________? —No, it is my________. A. your; sister B. yours; sister’s C. your; sister’s D. yours; sister 2. —I hear you will take part in the English writing competition (比赛). —Yes. I think it’s a great________ for me, but I will try my best. A. answer B. result C. relationship D. challenge 3. —The song My Motherland and I (《我和我的祖国》) is very ________ in China. —Yes, Chinese people often sing this song to show their love for the country. A. boring B. dark C. popular D. difficult 4. —Lily, it’s not a good idea to ________ your bad feelings. Please share them with others. —You are right. Thank you for your advice. A. bring B. take C. hide D. catch 5. —If we don’t protect nature, some animals may ________ in the future. —Sure. We should be kind to nature and protect the plants and animals. A. die out B. throw away C. knock around D. get lost 6. —Linda is really good at maths and English. —She always works hard. ________, she becomes a top student in our class. A. In fact B. As a result C. At first D. On time 7 —Hello! May I speak to Kate? —Sorry, she isn’t in. She ________ ping-pong outside. A. is playing B. played C. will play D. plays 8. —Wow, I can hear nice music. Where does it come from? —It comes from ________ the building. The music club is having a practice inside. A by B. along C. at D. within 9. Mr Li doesn’t like shopping and he ________ goes to the supermarket in his spare (空闲的) time. A. always B. seldom C. often D. sometimes 10. —What do you think of the book The Old Man and the Sea? —________. I read it every weekend. A. That’s enough B. Of course not C. It is my cup of tea D. It’s really boring Ⅵ.完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A There is a big zoo in my town. I often go there with my parents by ____11____ on weekends. It usually takes about ____12____ minutes for my father to drive there. We often leave home at about eight and ____13____ there at about eight twenty. I like pandas. First, there are pandas only in China, so it is ____14____ to see them in other countries. Second, they are very cute. Third, they are one of China’s symbols (象征) for being ____15____. But now pandas are in great danger, so we must ____16____ them. Now I am watching two pandas in the zoo. I ____17____ want to go near and play with them. ____18____ I also want to give them some food to eat. But quickly, I ____19____ the rules in the zoo: First, don’t go near to the animals. Second, don’t give your ____20____ to the animals. We all should try to make animals live a happy life. 11. A. car B. bus C. train D. bike 12. A. twelve B. fifteen C. twenty D. thirty 13. A. walk B. get C. ride D. take 14. A. boring B. easy C. important D. difficult 15. A. scary B. friendly C. quiet D. nervous 16. A. save B. keep C. miss D. listen 17. A. never B. really C. only D. very 18. A. And B. But C. So D. Or 19. A. forget B. teach C. write D. remember 20. A. toy B. water C. food D. milk B It is Chinese New Year’s Eve (除夕). ____21____ people are at home staying with their ____22____. But Ms Li is still ____23____. She is a policewoman and she works on the train. It is a ____24____ job. During the Spring Festival she is even busier. There are so many people taking the train to go home. Ms Li often spends New Year’s Eve on the train. At eight, Ms Li ____25____ her family. They are ____26____ the Spring Festival Gala (春晚). “Happy New Year!” her ____27____ says on the phone. “Mum, I made some dumplings for you. When you ____28____ tomorrow, you can enjoy them.” Ms Li feels sorry for her family, ____29____ she can’t enjoy the important day with them. But she is also proud and she never ____30____ her decision to be a policewoman. 21. A. Little B. Few C. Most D. Much 22. A. farmers B. families C. teachers D. workers 23. A. in the hospital B. in the post office C. at school D. at work 24. A. busy B. strong C. bad D. small 25. A. calls B. talks C. takes D. saves 26. A. reading B. watching C. talking D. looking 27. A. brother B. cousin C. daughter D. husband 28. A. come back B. get off C. put away D. get up 29. A. so B. and C. but D. because 30. A. rises B. joins C. shares D. regrets Ⅶ.补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据对话内容，从选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两个为多余选项。 A: Hello, Li Hua. ____31____ B: We have eight lessons a day. A: What’s your favorite lesson? B: The labour (劳动) class. ____32____ A: Really? ____33____ B: We can learn to cook and plant vegetables. A: That’s really amazing. When do you have the lesson? B:____34____ A: Can you show me some photos of the vegetables? B: Sure!____35____ A: Thank you. B: You are welcome. A. It’s not very useful. B. On Friday afternoon. C. We have one labour class every week. D. I will show the photos to you this evening. E. How many lessons do you have a day? F. What can you learn in the labour class? G. Do you like the labour class? 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ.阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Every year, our club holds a great parent-child activity—Sunshine Club Family Day. This year, it will be on 15 May. Do you want to have fun with your parents on that day? Come and join our Sunshine Club with your family! Activities: *10:00 am—11:50 am: A talk show about the club *12:00 pm—12:50 pm: Lunch ($3 per person) *1:30 pm—2:30 pm: Magic shows *2:30 pm—3:00 pm: Face painting *3:00 pm—4:00 pm: Fun sports games Where: The hall, 316 Main Street, Fun for your family! Tel: 4165980517 Email: clubozcfxx@gmail.com 36. When is the Sunshine Club Family Day this year? A. On 5 May. B. On 15 March. C. On 15 May. D. On 5 March. 37. If Peter and his parents get to the club at 10:00 am, they can ________ first. A. have lunch B. watch a talk show C. paint their faces D. watch sports games 38. How much should Peter and his parents pay (付款) for lunch? A. $3 B. $6 C. $9. D. $12 B I will visit Chuxiong, Yunnan this July. I am sure I will have a great time there. I will also celebrate a great festival—the Torch Festival (火把节) with the people there. The Torch Festival is a festival about fire. People think fire is important because they think fire can keep bad things away from them. Even today, people still have the tradition of using fire to protect crops (农作物)—pests (害虫) eat crops and they are afraid (害怕的) of fire. So fire is always a key part of the festival. For many people in Yunnan today, the festival is not just about holidays. It is also about their history and culture. During the festival, people wear traditional clothes and sing beautiful songs. I think the best part will be dancing around a big fire at night. It is a festival filled with joy. People in some other places also celebrate the Torch Festival. In Liangshan, Sichuan Province, more people celebrate the festival. For the people there, family traditions are really important during the festival. 39. Why do people think fire is important for the Torch Festival? A. Because fire can cook delicious food. B. Because fire can keep bad things away. C. Because fire can light up the night. D. Because fire can help people make friends. 40. What can we know about pests from the text? A. They like fire. B. Fire is their food. C. They are bad for crops. D. They are important to crops. 41. What does the writer think is the best part of the festival? A. Wearing traditional clothes. B. Singing traditional songs. C. Dancing around a big fire. D. Getting together for a family dinner. 42. What is the purpose (目的) of this text? A. To introduce a festival. B. To tell us fire is important. C. To ask people to visit Yunnan. D. To talk about something about pests. C A school in Hangzhou is holding a “dads only” parent-teacher meeting! Why? Because usually, moms go to these meetings, and dads are often absent. In 67.5% of Chinese families, moms help kids with homework. This meeting hopes to make dads help kids more in their growth. Why Dads Often Miss Parent-teacher Meetings Some dads say: * “I am too busy with work.” * “Traditionally, dads make money, and moms do family things. School meetings feel like a mom’s job.” * “I am not good at talking to teachers. My wife is better.” * “In fact, I just want to relax.” A Dad’s Advice Luo Xuepeng, a teacher and dad, says, “Dads help kids grow rational (理性的); they help kids develop (形成) good habits and become outgoing.” Experts (专家) Say When dads spend time with kids, children: ✔do better in math ✔feel confident (自信的) ✔handle stress (处理压力) better This school shows: Dads are important in kids’ growth. 43. Why does the Hangzhou school hold a “dads only” meeting? A. To make dads talk better. B. To make dads help kids more. C. To give advice to dads only. D. To help dads relax only. 44. The underlined (划线) word “Miss” probably means “_________” in Chinese. A. 参加 B. 想念 C. 丢失 D. 错过 45. What is the main idea of the text? A How dads relax. B. Why moms go to meetings. C. Dads are important in kids’ growth. D. Dads are often busy with work. D A happy child has a hobby. That’s what my mom always says. My hobby is studying the night sky. My sister’s hobby is playing the piano. Many people have hobbies like ours. But some people have strange (奇怪的) hobbies. Jim, a friend of mine, collects rocks (石头). Everywhere he goes, he stops and looks at rocks. If he finds an interesting one, he takes it home and adds it to his collection. His mom says that he has to stop. His room is getting full of rocks. When I was in Germany last year, I saw a boy called David reading a book on a train. I said to him, “That is a good book.” He said, “Yes, it is a good book. You can see that it has a green cover (封面). I love collecting books with green covers.” That’s a strange hobby. His dream is to have one wall with only green books on it. And as Mom always says, “A happy child has a hobby.” What’s your hobby? 46. What is Jim’s hobby? A. Studying the night sky. B. Collecting rocks. C. Collecting green-cover books. D. Playing the piano. 47. What does the underlined word “it” refer to (指的是) in Paragraph 3? A. The house. B. The wall. C. The dream. D. The train. 48. Where may the text come from? A. A magazine (杂志). B. A dictionary. C. A map. D. A menu. 49. What’s the best title (标题) for the text? A. Hobbies make us happy. B. How to choose a hobby. C. Hobbies help us make friends. D. We should not have strange hobbies. E ①Can trees talk? Some scientists say that trees can really “talk”! ②First, some trees use chemicals (化学物质) to talk. When insects (昆虫) come, the trees give out (发出) chemicals from the leaves. Some of these chemicals keep insects away. Other chemicals can make birds come to kill the insects. ③Second, trees also use sound to talk. People can’t hear these sounds, but trees are making the sounds. ④Third, trees use the “Wood Wide Web (树联网)” to share information (信息) and even food with each other. However, there are also some bad things for the “Wood Wide Web”. Some trees may take too much food from others. ⑤In a word, trees talk to each other in different ways. Now, scientists are learning more about these ways and maybe one day we will be able to “talk” with trees ourselves. 50. How many ways can trees “talk”? A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four. 51. What are the bad things for the “Wood Wide Web”? A. People can’t hear the sounds. B. Trees use the “Wood Wide Web” to share information. C. Trees use the “Wood Wide Web” to share food. D. Trees may take too much food from other trees. 52. What is the structure (结构) of the text? (①=Paragraph (段落) 1②=Paragraph2,…) A. B. C. D. F 阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题 (请注意每小题的词数要求)。 Many fish live in a pool. They never listen to others. There is a kind old duck near the pool. The old duck tells the fish it is dangerous not to listen to others, but the fish don’t listen to him. One afternoon, two fishermen (渔民) find the fish. They plan to come back with a fishing net the next day. The duck hears their plan. He tells the fish about the fishermen’s plan and asks them to leave before morning. But the fish don’t worry about the two fishermen. They say fishermen never catch them. The next morning, the two fishermen come and catch all the fish. The fish cry and regret not listening to the old duck. This story tells us: We should listen to kind advice. 53. Where do many fish live? (不超过10个词) ______________________________________ 54. What do the two fishermen plan to do? (不超过15个词) ______________________________________ 55. What can we learn from the story? (不超过10个词) ______________________________________ 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ.单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 56. We should keep s________ (不做声的) in the meeting room. 57. There is a f________ (森林) near our house. We can take a walk after dinner. 58 Chinese people in China like to t________ (款待) their guests to a big meal. 59. It is m________ (午夜) now. Cindy is sleeping in the bed. 60. Judy will s________ (送出) a letter to me this Monday. Ⅹ.书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 61. 在中国传统文化中，“家”是一个永恒的话题。家人给我们温暖和力量。你的学校开展了以“My Happy Family”为主题的英文演讲活动。假设你是朱晓萌，请你根据以下思维导图，写一篇演讲稿，向大家介绍你的幸福家庭。 注意 1.文中不得出现真实姓名和校名等相关信息。 2.词数60左右，开头和结尾已给出不计入总词数。 My Happy Family Hello, everyone. I am Zhu Xiaomeng. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ That’s all. Thank you! 2025-2026学年第一学期七年级英语试卷 注意事项： 1.你拿到的试卷满分为120分，考试时间为120分钟。 2.试卷包括“试题卷”和“答题卷”两部分。请在“答题卷”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题是无效的。选择题用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应的答案标号涂黑。 第一部分 听力（共四大题，满分20分） Ⅰ.短对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does Jack like best about the Spring Festival?? A. B. C. 2. Where does Frank’s mother work? A. B. C. 3. Who is interested in plants? A. Tom. B. Tom’s grandmother. C. Mary. 4. What will the woman do tonight? A. Watch a football game. B. Finish her task. C. Do the housework. 5. How many students are there in Tina’s class? A. 18. B. 17. C. 35. Ⅱ.长对话理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第6、7题。 6. Where are the books? A. In the bag. B. On the bed. C. On the desk. 7. What color is the pencil? A. Red. B. Green. C. Brown. 听下面一段对话，回答第8至10题。 8. What kind of party is it? A. A dancing party. B. A food party. C. A music party. 9. What time will the party start? A. At about 6:30 pm. B. At about 7:30 pm. C. At about 8:30 pm. 10. How will the family go to the party? A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By bus. Ⅲ.短文理解（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。 11. When does Bill often go to the zoo? A. On Sundays. B. On Saturdays. C. On Fridays. 12. Why does Bill like pandas? A. Because they’re very interesting. B. Because they’re very friendly. C. Because they` re very cute. 13. How old is Lanlan? A. One year old. B. Two years old. C. Three years old. 14. What animals does Jenny like? A. Pandas. B. Monkeys. C. Lions. 15. Who thinks lions are interesting? A. Ben. B. Jenny. C. Bill. Ⅳ.信息转换（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。 City Book Festival Time Next ________. Place In Zhongshan Park. Activities You can ________ around different bookshops. You can buy ________ books at most.（至多） You may see your favourite ________ You can get ________ drinking water everywhere. 第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，满分35分） Ⅴ.单项填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分） 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【1题答案】 【答案】B 【2题答案】 【答案】D 【3题答案】 【答案】C 【4题答案】 【答案】C 【5题答案】 【答案】A 【6题答案】 【答案】B 【7题答案】 【答案】A 【8题答案】 【答案】D 【9题答案】 【答案】B 【10题答案】 【答案】C Ⅵ.完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分） 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 A 【11~20题答案】 【答案】11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. C B 【21~30题答案】 【答案】21. C 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. D Ⅶ.补全对话（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 【31~35题答案】 【答案】31. E 32. C 33. F 34. B 35. D 第三部分 阅读（共两节，满分40分） Ⅷ.阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【36~38题答案】 【答案】36. C 37. B 38. C B 【39~42题答案】 【答案】39. B 40. C 41. C 42. A C 【43~45题答案】 【答案】43. B 44. D 45. C D 【46~49题答案】 【答案】46. B 47. B 48. A 49. A E 【50~52题答案】 【答案】50. C 51. D 52. A F 【53~55题答案】 【答案】53. They live in a pool. 54. They plan to catch fish with a fishing net. 55. We should listen to kind advice. 第四部分 写（共两大题，满分25分） Ⅸ.单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。 【56题答案】 【答案】silent##ilent 【57题答案】 【答案】forest/orest 【58题答案】 【答案】treat##reat 【59题答案】 【答案】midnight##idnight 【60题答案】 【答案】send##end Ⅹ.书面表达（共1小题；满分20分） 【61题答案】 【答案】参考范文： My Happy Family Hello, everyone! I’m Zhu Xiaomeng. Let me tell you about my family. There are three people in my family. They are my parents and I. My father is a doctor. He likes helping others. My mother is a teacher. She likes running. As for me, I like reading. My parents are busy most of the time. But we do many things together on weekends, such as reading books, doing sports and visiting my grandparents. I have a happy family. I enjoy the time with my family. That’s all. Thank you. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $