山东省泰安市第二中学2025-2026学年高一上学期1月月考英语试题

泰安二中2025级高一上学期学情调研 英语试题 满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the man’s sister want to do? A. Walk dogs for others. B. Provide medical care for pets. C. Do something for wild animals. 2. When does the woman’s favorite TV show start? A. At 4:30 p.m. B. At 4:35 p.m. C. At 5:15 p.m. 3. How does the woman probably feel at last? A. Encouraged. B. Worried. C. Disappointed. 4. What problem did the man have with skiing? A. He was afraid of heights. B. He failed to keep balance. C. He couldn’t afford the equipment. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Bad sides of a game. B. Language-learning ways. C. Challenges in a learning game. 第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 6. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. In a school. B. In a hospital. C. In a bookshop. 7. What will the man do first? A. See a doctor. B. Talk to Lily. C. Go to the library. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 8. Which section interested Sophie most at the science fair? A. The AI section. B. The space section. C. The chemistry section. 9. What did the speakers do at the science fair? A. They saw the model of Mars. B. They saw some science research. C. They learned more about spaceships. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 10. What does the woman say the painting is more about? A. Feelings. B. Figures. C. scenes. 11. What was the man’s first impression of the painting? A. It looked like real things. B. It was not so organized. C. It was too colorful. 12. Which color shows the artist’s unique idea? A. Green. B. Blue. C. Red. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 13. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Brother and sister. B. Husband and wife. C. Neighbors. 14. What did Gary do last weekend? A. He guided tourists around the city. B. He took part in a clean-up activity. C. He planted trees along a river. 15. What will Emma do next time? A. Join Gary to do volunteer work. B. Email the organizer directly. C. Make more friends. 16. Why does Gary suggest making posters? A. To decorate the community. B. To encourage others to volunteer. C. To raise money for hurt animals. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。 17. When is the speech probably given? A. At the end of exams. B. On the first day of a new term. C. At the beginning of the graduation event. 18. What is the main challenge for the students in school? A. To get higher marks. B. To apply to university. C. To keep an open mind. 19. What change will the school probably make this year? A. Including more independent projects. B. Reducing the number of tests. C. Canceling group activities. 20. Who is going to give a speech next? A. A student leader. B. A school director. C. A classroom teacher. 第二部分阅读 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A This museum has been in a famous old building since 1898. It holds more than 400,000 artworks, from paintings of the 1100s to modern art. Famous works include Repin’s Barge Haulers on the Volga and royal tableware (餐具), showing Russia’s art history through eight centuries. The building, designed by Rossi, combines classical style with modern display rooms, including special galleries to protect delicate exhibits. Exhibition Highlights The recent exhibition Echoes of the Tsars (until December 2025) features 120 rarely displayed items: Royal Treasures: Golden Fabergé eggs and king’s clothing New Art Styles: Bold paintings from the 1920s Hidden Stories: Personal letters of famous artists Interactive touchscreens provide 3D reconstructions of lost artworks, while audio guides tell behind-the-scenes stories. Visitor Guidelines Hours: 10 AM-6 PM (closed Tuesdays) Admission: €15 (free for under-18s) Rules: No flash photography Backpacks must be checked No food/drinks in galleries PS: Wheelchair parking and guides are provided. Pro Tip: Visit weekdays before noon to avoid crowds. 1. What is a highlight of the exhibition Echoes of the Tsars? A. Personal letters of famous people in Russia. B. Modern digital 3D reconstructions of lost artworks. C. Royal tableware from the 1920s. D. Rarely exhibited Russian royal items. 2. Which of the following is not listed in visitor guidelines? A. Camera using policy. B. Wheelchair renting policy. C. Food and drink policy. D. Backpacks security policy. 3. What is the admission fee for a family of two parents and two primary school children? A. €15 B. €30 C. €45 D. €60 B In a Tokyo workshop, 72-year-old potter Hiroshi Tanaka sits bent over a spinning wheel, his hands shaping a lump of clay (粘土) into a teacup. Outside, young people line up, phones in hand, waiting to take photos of the process. This scene, once rare, is now common across Asia and Europe: traditional crafts — pottery, weaving, hand-dyed textiles — are enjoying a surprising revival, even as digital tools control daily life. Why are people drawn to these slow, labor-intensive practices? Psychologists point to “digital fatigue”: the constant flow of emails, messages, and social media updates leaves many people desiring activities that demand focus. Unlike scrolling through a screen, crafting requires patience. A single ceramic bowl might take days to mold, fire, and glaze. “It’s the opposite of instant satisfaction,” says London-based craft historian Elena Ruiz. “That’s exactly its appeal.” This revival isn’t just about nostalgia (怀旧的). Modern craftsmen are combining old techniques with new ideas. In Florence, Italy, a third-generation weaver uses 17th-century weaving machines to create fabrics for luxury brands, but adds patterns inspired by street art. In Seoul, a paper-maker integrates recycled coffee grounds into traditional hanji paper, making it both eco-friendly and trendy. These innovations keep crafts relevant, attracting younger consumers who value uniqueness over mass production. Critics argue that the trend risks turning crafts into mere “artistic products”. They worry that workshops become photo spots rather than places of learning, and that the pressure to create “Instagram-worthy” pieces weakens the depth of traditional skills. Yet supporters argue that any attention is good. “If a teenager buys a hand-woven scarf because it looks cool online, they might later ask about how it was made,” notes Ruiz. “Interest is the first step toward preservation.” For Tanaka, the newfound popularity is a chance to pass on his knowledge. “My father thought pottery would die with machines,” he says, wiping clay from his apron. “But young people now want to learn. They see it’s not just about making things — it’s about making meaning.” 4. Why does the author mention “digital fatigue” in Paragraph 2? A. To criticize the overuse of digital tools in daily life. B. To stress people are less interested in social media. C. To explain why people desire focus-requiring activities. D. To prove crafts require more patience than digital activities. 5. What do examples in Paragraph 3 show? A. Innovation is more important than tradition. B. Traditional crafts can adapt to modern tastes. C. Young consumers prefer eco-friendly products. D. Luxury brands depend on traditional techniques. 6. Which following statement would both critics and supporters most likely agree on? A. Traditional crafts possess values that need to be preserved. B. Innovation is in conflict with maintaining traditional skills. C. Young consumers alone will determine the future of craftsmanship. D. Digital exposure unavoidable harms the uniqueness of traditional crafts. 7. What’s the main idea of the passage? A. Young people are responsible for preserving traditional skills. B. Traditional crafts are replacing digital products in modern life. C. Modern innovations are ruining the authenticity of traditional crafts. D. The revival of traditional crafts reflects a desire for meaning in a digital world. C In recent years, prefabricated dishes have grown rapidly popular in China. These are pre-cooked, seasoned, and packaged meals that require little to no preparation, offering a quick and convenient dining option without sacrificing major taste or nutrition. As people grow increasingly busier, time for cooking has become a rare resource. Prefabricated dishes address this pressing need by offering a significant reduction in meal preparation time. Other factors also contribute to their popularity — such as the convenience of e-commerce and delivery services that allow easy online ordering and quick home delivery, and the role of modern technology like vacuum and adjusted atmosphere packaging slows food spoilage. Along with precise temperature control and bacteria-killing techniques that ensure safety and quality, it is ultimately the fundamental demand for time-saving solutions in a nonstop world that serves as the primary driving force for their widespread acceptance. However, the rise of prefabricated dishes is not without concerns. Health issues remain a primary consideration, as some products contain additives and preservatives, which could pose risks if consumed excessively. Additionally, when compared to traditional freshly prepared meals, they often fall short in keeping the original flavor and nutritional value. In response, governments have carried out stricter safety standards and enhanced quality control measures. Meanwhile, certain manufacturers are actively exploring the use of natural ingredients and reducing additives to improve nutritional composition. As a growing trend in China’s food industry, prefabricated dishes provide undeniable convenience, yet consumers are advised to remain cautious about their dietary choices. The future of the industry relies on balanced development — where convenience, safety, and health can coexist. 8. What is the main reason behind the popularity of prefabricated dishes according to the text? A. The social trend of pursuing a modern lifestyle. B. The government’s strong promotion and support. C. The superior flavor they offer compared to home-cooked meals. D. The time-saving convenience they provide in a fast-paced society. 9. The underlined word “spoilage” in Paragraph 2 most probably means the process of ______. A. losing nutritional value B. changing original flavor C. becoming bad or unfit to eat D. being delivered to customers 10. Which of the following best describes the current situation of prefabricated dishes according to the text? A. They are gradually replacing traditional cooking in most households. B. They are achieving widespread acceptance and also arousing doubts. C. They are considered as equally nutritious as freshly prepared meals. D. They have mostly addressed food safety issues through regulations. 11. What is the author’s attitude toward the industry’s future? A. Favorable. B. Objective. C. Critical. D. Indifferent. D Artificial intelligence (AI) has shown competence across various fields, but matching human creativity remains hard to achieve. However, companies like StoryFit are using AI in a much novel way, particularly in the film industry, where it is changing greatly how scripts are developed, and stories are told. Initially, Monica Landers, founder and CEO of StoryFit, used AI technology to aid publishers in narrowing down their “slush piles” (未处理的文稿) to a shortlist of promising books. However, StoryFit found the publishing industry’s growth potential insufficient and targeted the film industry instead. Consequently, it has become the force behind several successful films in recent years. Primarily, StoryFit analyzes a script’s marketability (市场潜力), assessing where a story fits with the audience and how each storytelling element connects with audiences. The film industry is high-risk, with considerable investments required before generating returns. StoryFit provides data on whether those risks are likely to be fruitful. StoryFit’s AI technology checks character qualities to evaluate audience responses, determining how heroic or relatable a main character might be. This information allows creative professionals to identify potential character imbalances. Beyond marketability, StoryFit also analyzes audience connections to the storyline, offering insights into aspects such as the audience’s emotional journey throughout an episode or the impact of a favorite character’s departure. The company also reports on plot inconsistencies, such as characters behaving consistently with their established qualities or disappearing from the storyline. Nevertheless, Landers emphasizes that their role is to draw inspiration from the data rather than comment on the script. She stated, “You have people whose whole careers are based on making those decisions. But we can be a technology voice that helps them to shine a light on what’s happening or not happening in the script.” Using AI technology like StoryFit in the film industry shows artificial intelligence’s potential to enhance storytelling. As the technology advances, its impact on the film industry will only grow, paving the way for more engaging and emotional cinematic experiences. 12. What caused StoryFit to shift its focus from publishing to films? A. The financial difficulties of publishing. B. The limited future of publishing. C. The decreasing customer base of publishing. D. The lack of AI competence in publishing. 13. According to Landers, what is StoryFit’s role in script analysis? A. A data-driven advisor. B. A decision-maker. C. A marketing specialist. D. A content developer. 14. What is the author’s attitude toward the application of AI in the film industry? A. Unclear. B. Supportive. C Objective. D. Negative. 15. What is the best title for the passage? A. AI’s Failure to Match Human Creativity B. StoryFit: A Great Company Leading the Film Industry C. AI Transforms Script Development in Film D. The Challenges of AI in High-Risk Industries 第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 I’ve done my share of stress-eating with ice cream or distracting my anxiety by buying something online that I don’t need just to give myself a lift. ____16____ But when it comes to true self-care, I’ve found what really works for me. It doesn’t cost anything, except for investing in new shoes every eight months — running. ____17____It has also been a comfort to know that I can do it when I need to as a way to ground myself and appreciate the good stuff in my life. How did I begin running? My sister Lorie is an inspiring athlete who introduced me to running almost 5 years ago. ____18____ About six months later, I ran my first 5K road race and loved it. Racing is fun because you’re part of a group enjoying the outdoors and smiling at people cheering you on. ____19____ Heading out the door alone for a quick 5K is something I usually do. I’ve always liked setting my own schedule, so running is like self-care I can control. Plus, you can make it as hard as you want it to be. That depends on how fast or how far you want to go. That really works for me. I like to feel energized, and running certainly does that. It has helped me cope with the lows of my depression. And as I’ve learned over the years, you can’t avoid stress from your life, but you can counter it with relaxation in whatever form works best for you. ____20____ However, adding in the effort of running makes it an overall self-care win for me. A. It has helped me deal with difficult emotions. B. Only in this way can you live a stress-free life. C. However, I didn’t believe and refused to have a try. D. Some people get that me-time with a hot bath or a great book. E. I’m happy, though, to just run by myself in my neighbourhood. F. The way I “fix” myself isn’t always healthy or well-thought-out. G. As a beginner, I started out by running five minutes and walking a minute. 第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 完形填空 (共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 The August sun beat down without mercy. My father and I dragged our heavy backpacks through the dusty hills. My throat was parched, my legs weak. I was about to ___21___ when he pointed a dusty finger toward the horizon. “A ___22___,” he croaked. A spark of hope lit inside me. I ___23___ a fruit tree, its branches heavy with something sweet. My mouth ___24___ at the thought of a crisp apple. My father, more practical, guessed a pear tree. Fueled by this ___25___, we pushed on, our tired legs finding new strength. But as we got closer, my hope faded. The tree was a sturdy oak, but its branches held only ___26___. Disappointment washed over me. “It’s useless,” I muttered, ___27___ against the trunk. Just then, the sky darkened. A cool wind whipped up, and heavy raindrops began to fall. “Under here!” my father ___28___. We rushed beneath the oak’s wide canopy as the sky opened up. The tree acted as a perfect umbrella, its thick leaves ___29___ us completely. As dusk fell, a chill filled the air. Seeing me shiver, my father ____30____ fallen branches from around the tree’s base. Soon, he had a small, crackling fire going. We huddled close, its ____31____ pushing back the cold. Using a thick layer of dry oak leaves, we made a soft ____32____ for the night. Lying there, sheltered, I ____33____ the rain patter above. The tree I had called ____34____ had given us shelter and a safe rest. Some ____35____ are not the ones you seek, but the ones you find. 21. A. explain B. complain C. command D. measure 22. A. tree B. cave C. hut D. stream 23. A. discovered B. remembered C. designed D. imagined 24. A. opened B. ached C. tightened D. watered 25. A. goal B. vision C. order D. excuse 26. A. blossoms B. apples C. leaves D. pears 27. A. sinking B. beating C. crying D. kicking 28. A. sighed B. whispered C. argued D. called 29. A. refreshing B. protecting C. attracting D. squeezing 30. A. gathered B. burned C. bought D. arranged 31. A. light B. warmth C. smoke D. smell 32. A. chair B. tent C. bed D. pillow 33. A. thought of B. reflected on C. listened to D. worried about 34. A. priceless B. hopeless C. endless D. useless 35. A. gifts B. lessons C. chances D. memories 第Ⅱ卷 第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容 (1个单词) 或括号内单词的正确形式。 The 19th China Theater Festival, a ____36____ (particular) significant stage of the country to display theatrical achievements, was held from September 5 ____37____ 25 in 2025 in Hangzhou, East China’s Zhejiang Province. This 21-day cultural event, ____38____ aim is to showcase cultural charm through art forms like traditional Chinese opera and drama and provide ____39____ Chinese model in carbon reduction for large-scale events worldwide via its zero-carbon practices, drew global attention under the label of “China’s first carbon-neutral theater festival”. The secret to the theater festival’s carbon reduction lies in the in-depth integration of culture and high-tech ecology. ____40____ (rely) on digital platforms, the organizers created scenarios (场景) for public engagement. Audiences ____41____ (encourage) to use public transportation to head to theaters. E-tickets and e-program brochures covered almost every performance. Moreover, the opening performance on Friday night in Hangzhou was Northward, ____42____ (adapt) from Chinese novelist Xu Zechen’s novel of the same name. Minimal use of props (道具) can be seen as another move ____43____ (reduce) carbon emissions while it didn’t lessen the performance’s charm at all. With “zero-carbon” as its theme, the theater festival’s positioning as a role model has extended far beyond the cultural field with ____44____ (measure) such as promoting a “Clean Plate Campaign” in dining areas to reduce food waste, and using recyclable materials for stage construction. The theater festival used art to illustrate that cultural events can coexist with ecological protection. This, perhaps, is the unique wisdom China can use to make a ____45____ (contribute) to global climate issues. 第四部分 基础知识+写作 (共两节，满分40分) 第一节 基础知识 (满分20分) 一. 单词拼写 (共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分) 46. All the data that I r______ to just now in the report were collected from reliable sources. (根据首字母单词拼写) 47. The beauty of the sunrise over the sea is beyond d______ (描述). (根据中英文提示单词拼写) 48. China, a country with a long history, is home to ______ (多样化) of ethnic groups, each contributing uniquely to its rich cultural heritage. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 49. Here I sincerely express my a______ if you could help take my applications into consideration. (根据首字母单词拼写) 50. He a______ to climb the mountain, but the bad weather stopped him. (根据首字母单词拼写) 51. Nowadays more and more people have come to realize the importance of a b______ diet. (根据首字母单词拼写) 52. When we make a mistake, we should sincerely apologize so that we can be ______ (原谅) and move forward. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 53. Many ancient buildings in this area have been well ______ (保存), which makes our city more attractive. (根据汉语提示单词拼写) 54. The old photo always r______ me of the happy days we spent together during the summer vacation. (根据首字母单词拼写) 55. To promote environmental a______ (意识) among the public, the government has launched a series of educational campaigns and public service advertisements. (根据中英文提示单词拼写) 二. 翻译句子 (共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分) 56. 我们上周参加的活动对提升大家的口语很有帮助。(be of+抽象名词) (汉译英) ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 57. 阅读是学习如何有创造性地表达自己的最佳方法之一。(疑问词+不定式)(汉译英) ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 58. 无论保护这个项目有多么困难，我们都不能放弃。(让步状语从句)(汉译英) ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 59. 正如报道所说，很多野生动物正在消失，所以我们必须采取措施保护它们。(as非限制性定语从句) (汉译英) ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 60. 这次远足不仅增强了我们的体质，而且还培养了我们的团队精神。(not only... but also... 倒装句)(汉译英) ___________________________________________________________________________________________ 第二节 应用文写作 (满分20分) 61. 10月16日是世界粮食日(World Food Day), 你校为了提高学生珍惜粮食的意识举办了一系列活动。假定你是校英语报的记者，请你为校英语报写一篇活动报道。内容要点包括： 1. 活动过程; 2. 活动反响。 注意： 1. 写作词数应为80左右; 2. 请在答题卡的相应位置作答。 ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 泰安二中2025级高一上学期学情调研 英语试题 满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟 第Ⅰ卷 第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。 1. What does the man’s sister want to do? A. Walk dogs for others. B. Provide medical care for pets. C. Do something for wild animals. 2. When does the woman’s favorite TV show start? A. At 4:30 p.m. B. At 4:35 p.m. C. At 5:15 p.m. 3. How does the woman probably feel at last? A. Encouraged. B. Worried. C. Disappointed. 4. What problem did the man have with skiing? A. He was afraid of heights. B. He failed to keep balance. C. He couldn’t afford the equipment. 5. What are the speakers mainly talking about? A. Bad sides of a game. B. Language-learning ways. C. Challenges in a learning game. 第二节 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 6. Where does the conversation most probably take place? A. In a school. B. In a hospital. C. In a bookshop. 7. What will the man do first? A. See a doctor. B. Talk to Lily. C. Go to the library. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 8. Which section interested Sophie most at the science fair? A. The AI section. B. The space section. C. The chemistry section. 9. What did the speakers do at the science fair? A They saw the model of Mars. B. They saw some science research. C. They learned more about spaceships. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 10. What does the woman say the painting is more about? A. Feelings. B. Figures. C. scenes. 11 What was the man’s first impression of the painting? A. It looked like real things. B. It was not so organized. C. It was too colorful. 12. Which color shows the artist’s unique idea? A. Green. B. Blue. C. Red. 听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。 13. What is the relationship between the speakers? A. Brother and sister. B. Husband and wife. C. Neighbors. 14. What did Gary do last weekend? A. He guided tourists around the city. B. He took part in a clean-up activity. C. He planted trees along a river. 15. What will Emma do next time? A. Join Gary to do volunteer work. B. Email the organizer directly. C. Make more friends. 16. Why does Gary suggest making posters? A. To decorate the community. B. To encourage others to volunteer. C. To raise money for hurt animals. 听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。 17. When is the speech probably given? A. At the end of exams. B On the first day of a new term. C. At the beginning of the graduation event. 18. What is the main challenge for the students in school? A. To get higher marks. B. To apply to university. C. To keep an open mind. 19. What change will the school probably make this year? A. Including more independent projects. B. Reducing the number of tests. C. Canceling group activities. 20. Who is going to give a speech next? A. A student leader. B. A school director. C. A classroom teacher. 第二部分阅读 (共两节，满分50分) 第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. D 2. B 3. B B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. C 5. B 6. A 7. D C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. C 10. B 11. B D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. B 13. A 14. B 15. C 第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分) 阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. F 17. A 18. G 19. E 20. D 第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分) 第一节 完形填空 (共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. B 22. A 23. D 24. D 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. A 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. A 第Ⅱ卷 第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分) 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. particularly 37. to 38. whose 39. a 40. Relying 41. were encouraged 42. adapted 43. to reduce 44. measures 45. contribution 第四部分 基础知识+写作 (共两节，满分40分) 第一节 基础知识 (满分20分) 一. 单词拼写 (共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分) 【46题答案】 【答案】referred##eferred 【47题答案】 【答案】description##escription 【48题答案】 【答案】varieties 【49题答案】 【答案】appreciation##ppreciation 【50题答案】 【答案】attempted##ttempted 【51题答案】 【答案】balanced##alanced 【52题答案】 【答案】forgiven 【53题答案】 【答案】preserved 【54题答案】 【答案】reminds##eminds 【55题答案】 【答案】awareness##wareness 二. 翻译句子 (共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分) 【56题答案】 【答案】The activity we took part in last week is of great help to improving everyone’s spoken English. 【57题答案】 【答案】Reading is one of the best ways to learn how to express ourselves creatively. 【58题答案】 【答案】No matter how difficult/However difficult it is to protect this project, we cannot give up. 【59题答案】 【答案】As is reported many wild animals are disappearing, so we must take measures to protect them. 【60题答案】 【答案】Not only did this hike build up our bodies, but also developed our team spirit. 第二节 应用文写作 (满分20分) 【61题答案】 【答案】Possible version 1: Recently, in honor of World Food Day, our school organized an impactful event to arouse the public’s awareness of food crisis. To emphasize the global food security issues, the event began with insightful speeches from some distinguished guests. At the same time, a captivating exhibition vividly illustrated global food challenges. Everyone present was spurred by the powerful visualizations. The highlight of the event was a fundraising ceremony to support a local charity. Needless to say, the activity was significant. It served as a powerful reminder of the collective duty we bear in addressing global food challenges, fostering a sense of commitment among participants. Possible version 2: In celebration of World Food Day on October 16th, our school organized a series of activities to promote awareness about the importance of cherishing food resources. The day kicked off with an assembly where students learned about global food challenges and the need to reduce food waste. Following this, engaging workshops encouraged discussion son sustainable eating habits and how individual choices impact the environment. In the cafeteria, a campaign focused on food waste awareness was launched. Students were urged to take only what they could eat, and leftovers were collected for donation to local charities. The response to the activities was overwhelmingly positive. They effectively raised awareness about the importance of cherishing our food resources. The hope is that these lessons will drive lasting changes in behavior and a sense of responsibility to ward global food security. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $