期末练习卷(温州卷) 2025-2026学年人教版七年级英语上册
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保密★启用前
2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试(温州市专用)
英 语
(考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分)
学校:___________姓名:___________班级:___________考号:___________
考生注意:
1.本试题卷共10页,满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试难度:0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
参考答案
题号
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
答案
C
B
B
C
B
A
B
B
A
B
题号
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
答案
B
C
B
A
C
B
A
C
C
A
题号
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
答案
C
B
A
B
D
A
B
C
A
B
题号
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
答案
C
D
B
D
A
C
A
D
B
D
题号
46
47
48
49
50
答案
C
A
B
B
C
1.C
【原文】A: My name is Mary Smith. Nice to meet you.
B: Nice to meet you too.
2.B
【原文】M: Do you play the violin, Judy?
W: No. It’s my mother’s violin. She plays it very well.
3.B
【原文】A: Hi, Alice. Our school wants to start a music club. Do you want to join?
B: Sure. I can play the guitar. What about you, Peter?
A: I’d love to, but I can’t play any musical instruments.
B: Oh, but you can sing well.
A: Exactly. And I am good at dancing too.
Q: Can Peter sing and dance well?
4.C
【原文】A: We’ll have a football match. Can you come here between nine and ten tomorrow?
B: Sorry, I won’t be free until 11 o’clock.
5.B
【原文】W: Good morning, Peter. I am your new class teacher. You can call me Ms Hui. Nice to meet you.
M: Good morning, Ms Hui. Nice to meet you, too.
Question: Who is Peter’s class teacher?
6.A 7.B
【原文】W: Good morning, Mr. Smith.
M: Good morning. May I know your name?
W: I’m Jenny Brown.
M: What class are you in, Jenny?
W: I’m in Class 3, Grade 7.
M: Where are you from?
W: I’m from London, in the UK.
8.B 9.A 10.B
【原文】M: Hi, Sally. Can I ask you some questions?
W: Sure.
M: How old are you?
W: I’m thirteen years old. I’m in a new school this year.
M: Do you have a library in your school?
W: Yes, it’s behind our classroom building. I often go there.
M: Good girl. Do you have biology at school?
W: Yes, I do. It’s difficult but important.
M: Do you like it?
W: Of course.
11.B 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.C
【原文】 Mr. and Mrs. Green have a daughter Cindy and a son Paul. Cindy likes red. Her room is red everywhere. She doesn’t like sports. She always watches TV. Paul likes sports. He likes soccer and basketball. He has two soccer balls and a basketball. He often plays basketball in the morning and plays soccer in the afternoon.
16.B 17.A 18.C
本文是一篇应用文,通过表格形式对比了Jerry和Susan一天的时间安排,包括上学、上课、午餐、休息、课后活动及做作业等时间。
16.细节理解题。根据表格中Susan的时间安排“8:00 begin to have classes”可知,Susan在8:00开始第一节课。故选B。
17.细节理解题。根据表格中Jerry的时间安排“12:30 have lunch at school”可知,Jerry在学校吃午饭。故选A。
18.推理判断题。根据表格中Jerry的时间安排“17:30 play basketball”,可知Jerry在下午打篮球,C选项正确。故选C。
19.C 20.A 21.C 22.B
本文是一篇应用文,主要介绍了学校里的不同俱乐部,包括故事讲述俱乐部、英语俱乐部、篮球俱乐部和艺术俱乐部,以及学生们在这些俱乐部中的活动和学习情况。
19.词句猜测题。根据文章第二段“Sam is in the story-telling club. Some students in this club are good at telling stories. On Monday and Wednesday afternoons, Sam meets them in Classroom 301, and they tell fun stories in turn (轮流).”可知,Sam在故事讲述俱乐部,这个俱乐部的一些学生擅长讲故事,Sam在周一和周三下午在301教室与他们见面,他们轮流讲有趣的故事。由此可推断,“them”指代的是故事讲述俱乐部的学生。故选C。
20.细节理解题。根据文章第三段“The English-speaking students there can help her with her English. They speak English and tell stories in English.”可知,在英语俱乐部里,说英语的学生可以帮助Susan学习英语,他们用英语交谈和讲故事。因此,Susan是通过和学生们用英语交谈来学习英语的。故选A。
21.细节理解题。根据文章第二段“On Monday and Wednesday afternoons, Sam meets them in Classroom 301...”,第三段“Every day after school, Susan comes to this club.”,第四段“In the gym, from 4:00 p. m. to 5:00 p. m. from Wednesday to Friday, the club’s PE teacher tells students some skills (技巧) about playing basketball.”以及第五段“There are art classes in this club on Tuesday afternoons and Thursday afternoons.”可知,故事讲述俱乐部在周一和周三下午活动,英语俱乐部每天放学后活动,篮球俱乐部在周三到周五下午4点到5点活动,艺术俱乐部在周二和周四下午有课。因此,学生们在周四可以参加英语俱乐部、篮球俱乐部和艺术俱乐部的活动。故选C。
22.主旨大意题。根据文章第一段“There are many clubs in our school. Students can join different kinds of clubs, like the music club, the English club, the sports club and the story-telling club.”以及全文内容可知,本文主要介绍了学校里的不同俱乐部以及学生们在这些俱乐部中的活动和学习情况。因此,文章的主旨大意是介绍学校里的一些俱乐部。故选B。
23.A 24.B 25.D 26.A
本文讲述奶奶85岁生日时,家人各自准备礼物,迈克因不会拍照、做饭、画画而苦恼,最后得知奶奶最想要的礼物是陪伴。
23.词句猜测题。根据“‘I give her a photo,’ says Brian. ‘I take it with my new camera’”可知,it指代前文提到的a photo,即照片,故选A。
24.细节理解题。根据“‘I make her favourite cake,’ says Mike’s mum”可知,迈克的妈妈为奶奶做了最喜欢的蛋糕,故选B。
25.细节理解题。根据“‘Everyone has a gift for you, but me... I don’t have anything to give you,’ says Mike with an unhappy face”可知,迈克得知其他人都有礼物后,因自己没有礼物而不开心,带有抱歉的情绪,故选D。
26.最佳标题题。根据全文内容可知,本文围绕家人为奶奶准备生日礼物、迈克寻找礼物,最终发现奶奶最想要的礼物是陪伴展开,核心是为奶奶准备的生日礼物相关内容,故选A。
27.B 28.C 29.A 30.B
本文是一篇记叙文。主要介绍了作者最喜欢的科目英语以及她的英语老师Miss Green有趣的授课方式。
27.细节理解题。根据第1段“For me, it’s really interesting...”可知,Cindy认为英语很有趣。故选B。
28.细节理解题。根据第3段“Before class, she reads a short story to us.”可知,Miss Green在上课前会读一个小故事。故选C。
29.词句猜测题。根据第3段“We play the roles in the book to learn English.”可知,她们通过扮演书中的角色来学习英语,因此“role-play”在这里表示‘角色扮演’的意思。故选A。
30.最佳标题题。全文围绕Cindy最喜欢的英语科目,介绍了她对英语的兴趣以及Miss Green有趣的教学方法。因此“My Favourite Subject”是最佳标题。故选B。
31.B 32.D 33.A 34.E 35.On weekends, I usually do homework, watch movies, and play football with my family.
本文介绍杰克的周末生活,他会先做作业,再帮妈妈做饭、看书、和朋友打篮球,十分享受周末时光。
31.根据“Hello, I’m Jack. I have a great time on weekends.”可知,此处需要总起句引出下文的周末活动,选项B“这是我做的一些事情”,起到总领全文的作用,符合语境。故选B。
32.根据“I think doing homework first is a good habit.”可知,此处是对先做作业习惯的总结,选项D“那么你为什么不也先完成作业呢”,承接上文提出建议,符合语境。故选D。
33.根据“I read storybooks in the afternoon.”可知,此处对应的活动是读书,选项A“读书”,与下文内容匹配,符合语境。故选A。
34.根据“I play basketball with my friends in the park.”可知,此处对应的活动是做运动,选项E“做运动”,与下文内容匹配,符合语境。故选E。
35.开放性试题,言之有理即可。故填On weekends, I usually do homework, watch movies, and play football with my family.
36.C 37.D 38.B 39.D 40.A 41.C 42.A 43.D 44.B 45.D 46.C 47.A 48.B 49.B 50.C
本文是Bella的自我介绍,她是北京的一名新学生,因朋友不多希望结交新朋友,文中介绍了自己的年龄、特长、喜好、联系方式等信息。
36.我是这里的新生,所以我现在没有很多朋友。
nice友好的;warm温暖的;new新的;sorry抱歉的。根据“so I don’t have many friends now”可知,是因为刚到这里(是新生)才没太多朋友,故选C。
37.你能做我的朋友吗?
student学生;teacher老师;cousin表亲;friend朋友。根据“so I don’t have many friends now”可知,Bella希望对方成为自己的朋友,故选D。
38.我擅长英语,所以我可以在英语方面帮助你。
draw画画;help帮助;meet遇见;teach教。根据“I’m good at English, so I can...you with it.”可知,此处是说在英语方面帮助你,help sb. with sth.意为“在某方面帮助某人”。故选B。
39.我最喜欢的颜色是蓝色,所以我有很多蓝色的东西。
white白色;brown棕色;green绿色;blue蓝色。根据“so I have many blue things”可知,Bella最喜欢的颜色是蓝色,故选D。
40.看,我的包是蓝色的。
my我的;her她的;his他的;your你的。根据“I’m Bella.”可知,文章是Bella的自我介绍,此处指“Bella的包”,应用“我的”,故选A。
41.一周中我最喜欢的一天是星期五,因为那天我们有音乐课。
idea想法;weather天气;day天;colour颜色。根据“of the week is Friday”可知,是指一周里最喜欢的某一天,故选C。
42.我也喜欢在空闲时间写歌。我的朋友Lena认为我是个好作者。
write写;remember记得;find找到;read读。根据“My friend Lena thinks I’m a good writer”可知,Bella会写歌,故选A。
43.我最喜欢的运动是乒乓球。我打得很好。
swimming游泳;basketball篮球;football足球;ping-pong乒乓球。根据“We can meet and play ping-pong”可知,Bella最喜欢的运动是乒乓球,故选D。
44.你也喜欢打乒乓球吗?
now现在;too也;here这里;again再次。根据“Do you like playing it”可知,此处是询问对方是否也喜欢这项运动,故选B。
45.明天是星期六,我不用上学。
Tuesday星期二;Wednesday星期三;Friday星期五;Saturday星期六。根据“don’t go to school”可知,此处是周末,选项中只有Saturday是周末,故选D。
46.我的号码是564-7362。
book书;time时间;number号码;classroom教室。根据“564-7362”和“You can call me”可知,这是电话号码,故选C。
47.我也喜欢在炎热的日子游泳,因为它能让我凉爽。
hot炎热的;cold寒冷的;cool凉爽的;warm温暖的。根据“because it can make me cool”可知,是在炎热的日子游泳,故选A。
48.夏天我们也可以一起去游泳。
after在……之后;in在(季节、月份等);at在(具体时间点);on在(具体日期)。summer是季节,前面用介词in,故选B。
49.如果你想更多地了解我,欢迎给我打电话或写信!
tell告诉;know了解;say说;think认为。根据“If you want to...more about me”可知,此处说如果你想更多地了解我,know about意为“了解”,故选B。
50.感谢你听我介绍。
Thank感谢(动词,需接宾语);Sorry抱歉;Thanks感谢(名词);Hello你好。根据“for listening to me.”可知,此处表示感谢你听我的介绍。Thanks for doing sth.是固定句型,意为“感谢做某事”,故选C。
51.spend 52.a lot of 53.Each 54.counts 55.guitar
本文主要讲述了作者和表亲们每年夏天在奶奶家度过的快乐时光,包括一起采摘橙子、数橙子以及晚上在树下举办聚会等活动
51.每年夏天,我和我的表亲们在奶奶家度过快乐的时光。根据“Every summer, my cousins and I...happy time together in grandma’s house.”可知,此处表达的是度过时光,spend time表示“度过时光”,且句子是一般现在时,主语是复数,所以动词用原形。故填spend。
52.我们帮她摘橙子——院子里有很多橙子树。根据“there are...orange trees in the yard.”可知,此处表示有很多橙子树,a lot of表示“很多”,修饰可数名词复数。故填a lot of。
53.我们每个人都得到一个小袋子来装我们的橙子。根据“...of us gets a small bag to put our oranges.”可知,此处表示我们每个人,each of us表示“我们每个人”,位于句首首字母大写。故填Each。
54.之后,奶奶总是数我们有多少个橙子。根据“grandma always...how many oranges we have.”可知,此处表示奶奶数橙子,count表示“数”,句子是一般现在时,主语是第三人称单数,所以动词用第三人称单数形式。故填counts。
55.我的表弟蒂姆弹吉他,我们围坐在他身边,轻声唱歌。根据“My cousin Tim plays the...”可知,此处表示弹奏某种乐器,guitar表示“吉他”,play the guitar表示“弹吉他”。故填guitar。
56.celebrate 57.twin 58.May 59.soon 60.same 61.party 62.boring 63.classmate 64.send 65.family
本文主要讲述了双胞胎兄弟比尔和鲍勃计划以不同寻常的方式庆祝他们的生日,他们计划帮助一位有困难的同学的母亲。
56.你怎样庆祝你的生日?根据“How do you...”可知,助动词do后实义动词要用原形,空处应填动词原形celebrate“庆祝”。故填celebrate。
57.比尔和鲍勃是双胞胎兄弟。根据汉语提示可知,“双胞胎的”twin,twin brothers表示“双胞胎兄弟”。故填twin。
58.他们的生日在五月,不久就要到了。根据汉语提示可知,“五月”May。故填May。
59.他们的生日在五月,不久就要到了。根据汉语提示可知,“不久”soon,此处是副词形式。故填soon。
60.每年总是一样的。根据汉语提示可知,“相同”same,the same“相同的”。故填same。
61.我们举办一个盛大的生日聚会。根据汉语提示可知,“聚会”party,此处是名词形式,birthday party表示“生日聚会”。故填party。
62.这听起来很乏味,对吧?根据汉语提示可知,“乏味的”boring,sound后面接形容词作表语,此处用来形容生日庆祝方式,属于事物,用来形容事物用boring。故填boring。
63.你知道我的同班同学大卫吗?根据汉语提示可知,“同班同学”classmate,这里指的是他们的同班同学大卫,所以用单数形式。故填classmate。
64.他们为他妈妈买了很多东西,并帮助送她去看医生。根据汉语提示可知,“送”send,是动词,help sb. do sth.表示“帮助某人做某事”,因此此处应用动词原形send。故填send。
65.比尔的家庭多么热心肠啊!根据汉语提示可知,“家庭”family,这里指比尔的家庭,用单数形式。故填family。
66.photos 67.prepares 68.the 69.because 70.spending 71.unusual 72.him 73.to make 74.grandpa’s 75.for
本文是一篇记叙文,讲述了作者一家过中秋节的经历与感受。
66.我们总是吃一顿丰盛的家庭晚餐,拍全家福。“take photos”是固定短语,意为“拍照”,此处用复数形式表泛指,故填photos。
67.我爷爷通常会准备一顿大餐。全文时态为一般现在时,主语“My grandpa”是第三人称单数,谓语动词用prepare的第三人称单数形式prepares,故填prepares。
68.晚饭后,我们总是在花园里吃月饼。此处特指前文提到的“a big family dinner”,用定冠词the修饰,故填the。
69.在我家,那一夜(吃月饼)是必备的习俗,因为它圆圆的形状象征着亲情。根据“It’s a must on that night in my family…their round shape stands for family love”可知,前后句为因果关系,后句解释前句的原因,用连词because,故填because。
70.我们真的很享受和家人在一起的时光。“enjoy doing sth.”是固定搭配,意为“享受做某事”,spend的动名词形式为spending,故填spending。
71.然而,今年很不寻常,因为爷爷不能和我们在一起了。结合语境“爷爷不在身边”,与往常不同,用usual的反义词unusual,意为“不寻常的”,故填unusual。
72.我们都非常想念他。空格处需填宾格作宾语,he的宾格为him,故填him。
73.所以我们决定打视频电话!“decide to do sth.”是固定搭配,意为“决定做某事”,故填to make。
74.当我们在屏幕上看到爷爷微笑的脸庞时,我们感到温暖又开心。空格处需填名词所有格修饰“smiling face”,表示“爷爷的”,故填grandpa’s。
75.这对我们所有人来说都是一个特别的时刻。根据“…all of us”可知,“for sb.”表示“对某人来说”,故填for。
76.例文:
Hello, everyone. I’m Li Hui, a 12-year-old student in Grade Seven. My family is a warm one with three members, and I always feel happy and loved in it.
My father is 42 years old and he’s a policeman. He likes fishing in his free time. My mother is 40, and she works as a teacher. Reading is her favorite hobby. As for me, I enjoy listening to music a lot, and it helps me relax when I feel tired.
We usually take a walk or watch a film on weekends. On Dongzhi, we make dumplings and eat tangyuan together. I love my family deeply, and I know their love is the most important thing in my life.
[总体分析]
①题材:本文是一篇材料作文;
②时态:以一般现在时为主;
③提示:文章完整覆盖核心要点,包含“个人基本信息、家庭构成、家庭成员详情、家庭日常活动、个人情感”,信息全面,逻辑连贯,情感饱满。
[写作步骤]
第一步,开篇自我介绍,以问候语切入,点明“温暖家庭”的核心主题;
第二步,分述家庭成员与爱好;
第三步,描述家庭活动与升华情感,直接抒发对家人的深爱,点明家人的爱的重要性。
[亮点词汇]
①warm family温暖的家庭
②in one’s free time在某人的空闲时间
③work as a teacher担任一名教师
④favorite hobby最喜欢的爱好
⑤take a walk散步
[高分句型]
①Reading is her favorite hobby.(动名词作主语)
③As for me, I enjoy listening to music a lot, and it helps me relax when I feel tired.(when引导的时间状语从句)
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$保密 启用前 2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试(温州市专用) 英 语 (考试时间:100分钟 试卷满分:120分) 学校:_姓名:_班级:_考号:_ 考生注意: 1.本试题卷共10页,满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。 2.答题前,请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。 3.答题时,请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求,在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答,在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。 4.考试难度:0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型] 第一部分 听力 (满分20分) 第一节:听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1分) 1.What’s the girl’s first name? A.Smith. B.Jenny. C.Mary. 2.Who can play the violin well? A.Judy. B.Judy’s mother. C.Judy’s sister. 3.Q: Can Peter sing and dance well? A.No, he can only sing very well. B.Yes, he can. C.No, he can’t. 4.What time will the woman be free tomorrow? A.At nine. B.At ten. C.At eleven. 5.Who is Peter’s class teacher? A.Ms Smith. B.Ms Hui. C.Ms Zhao. 第二节:听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1.5分) 听下面一段对话,完成下面小题。 6.What class is Jenny in? A.In Class 3. B.In Class 7. C.In Class 2. 7.Where is Jenny from? A.The US. B.The UK. C.The PRC. 听下面一段对话,回答三个小题。 8.How old is Sally? A.12 years old. B.13 years old. C.14 years old. 9.What’s behind the classroom building? A.The library. B.The sports field. C.The teachers’ building. 10.How does Sally feel about biology? A.Interesting. B.Important. C.Easy. 第三节:听下面一段独白,独白后有5个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。(每小题1.5分)。 11.What is Cindy’s last name? A.Miller. B.Green. C.Smith. 12.What color does Cindy like? A.Purple. B.Blue. C.Red. 13.What does Cindy always do? A.She plays sports. B.She watches TV. C.She plays computer games. 14.How many soccer balls does Paul have? A.Two. B.Three. C.Four. 15.What does Paul often play in the morning? A.Volleyball. B.Soccer. C.Basketball. 第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分40分) 第一节 阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分) 阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Here is a form (表格) of Jerry’s and Susan’s days. Jerry’s day Susan’s day 7:10 go to school 7:00 go to school 8:20 begin to have classes 8:00 begin to have classes 12:30 have lunch at school 12:30 have lunch at home 13:00 have a rest (休息) 13:00 listen to music 17:30 play basketball 17:30 play computer games 19:00 do his homework 19:10 do her homework 16.What time does Susan begin the first class? A.At 7:10. B.At 8:00. C.At 7:20. D.At 7:30. 17.Jerry has lunch_. A.at school B.at home C.in the library D.at the sports centre 18.What can we know from the text (文本)? A.Jerry and Susan are in the same class. B.Susan listens to music before lunch. C.Jerry plays basketball in the afternoon. D.Jerry and Susan do their homework at the same time. B There are many clubs in our school. Students can join different kinds of clubs, like the music club, the English club, the sports club and the story-telling club. Sam is in the story-telling club. Some students in this club are good at telling stories. On Monday and Wednesday afternoons, Sam meets them in Classroom 301, and they tell fun stories in turn (轮流). This is good for Sam’s writing and speaking. Sam also makes friends there. Susan joins the English club. It is in Classroom 201. Every day after school, Susan comes to this club. The English-speaking students there can help her with her English. They speak English and tell stories in English. Susan gets some useful ways to learn English. Andy loves sports, so he is in the basketball club. In the gym, from 4:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m. from Wednesday to Friday, the club’s PE teacher tells students some skills (技巧) about playing basketball. Laura wants to draw pictures. She joins the art club. There are art classes in this club on Tuesday afternoons and Thursday afternoons. The art teacher always shows some nice photos to students. Laura can draw with them. 19.What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 2 refer to (指代)? A.Monday and Wednesday afternoons. B.The English-speaking students. C.The students in the story-telling club. D.Some nice photos from the art teacher. 20.How can Susan learn English in the English club? A.By speaking to students in English. B.By learning with English teachers. C.By writing fun English stories. D.By reading English books. 21.Which clubs can students go on Thursdays? a. The story-telling club. b. The English club. c. The basketball club. d. The art club. A.abc B.acd C.bcd D.abd 22.What is the main idea of this passage? A.Ways to learn English. B.Some clubs in our school. C.Time to play sports. D.Skills about telling stories. C It is Grandma’s 85th birthday. People in the family talk about gifts for her. “I give her a photo,” says Brian. “I take it with my new camera (照相机). What gift do you want to give her?” he asks his 5-year-old brother Mike. “I don’t know,” says Mike. “I don’t have a camera. And I don’t know what to prepare.” Mike goes into the kitchen. His mum is busy cooking. “Mum, what do you want to give to Grandma?” “I make her favourite cake,” says Mike’s mum. “I can’t make cakes. I don’t know how to do them,” says Mike. He goes to his sister’s room. “Susan, what do you give to Grandma?” “I make her a birthday card,” says Susan. “I’m not good at drawing. I don’t know how to make it,” says Mike. He then goes and sits next to Grandma on the sofa. “Everyone has a gift for you, but me. I can’t take a photo, cook or draw. I don’t have anything to give you,” says Mike with an unhappy face. Grandma puts her arms (胳膊) around the little boy. “No one (没有人) has the time to come and stay with me. That’s what you can give me,” says Grandma. Mike feels happy and says “Happy Birthday” to his grandma. 23.What does the underlined (划线的) word “it” refer to (指代)? A.A photo. B.A camera. C.A birthday cake. D.A card. 24.What does Mike’s mum make for Grandma’s birthday? A.Some bread. B.A cake. C.Some noodles. D.Some dumplings. 25.How does Mike feel after knowing others’ gifts? A.Excited. B.Happy. C.Surprised. D.Sorry (抱歉). 26.What can be the best title (题目) for the passage (文章)? A.The Birthday Gifts for Grandma B.The Importance (重要性) of Being Happy C.Birthday Customs (风俗) Around the World D.The Way to Make Grandma Happy D Hello! My name is Liu Ying and my English name is Cindy. My favourite subject is English. For some students, English is boring. For me, it’s really interesting, because we can do some fun things in class. Look! The woman in the photo is our English teacher, Miss Green. She is twenty-five years old and she is from Britain. Her Chinese is very good, but in class she only speaks English with us. Why is her English class so interesting? Before class, she reads a short story to us. It is relaxing. In class, Miss Green likes using picture cards to help us to learn English. We can play games in class too. And role-play is my favourite in her class. We play the roles in the book to learn English. It’s great fun! We have five English classes a week, three in the morning and two in the afternoon. We’re happy to see Miss Green every school-day. 27.What does Cindy think of English? A.Difficult. B.Interesting. C.Boring. 28.What does Miss Green do before class? A.She plays a game. B.She uses picture cards. C.She reads a story. 29.What does the underlined word “role-play” in the text mean in Chinese? A.角色扮演 B.演讲比赛 C.猜谜游戏 30.What is the best title (标题) for the text? A.My Schooldays B.My Favourite Subject C.My Classmates and Teachers 第二节 任务型阅读(共5题,每小题2分,满分10分) 阅读下面材料,从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项),并回答最后小题。 Hello, I’m Jack. I have a great time on weekends. _ Do my homework first. I finish my maths and English homework in the morning. Then I can play happily. I think doing homework first is a good habit. _ Help my mum cook. I wash vegetables and set the table for dinner. My mum says I’m helpful. _ I read storybooks in the afternoon. The stories make me happy. _ I play basketball with my friends in the park. It’s cool and I feel relaxed. Weekends are my favourite time. I love them. A.Read books. B.Here are some things I do. C.Play computer games. D.So why not finish your homework first too? E.Play sports. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.What do you often do on weekends? (不少于10词) 第三部分 语言运用 (共三节,满分40分) 第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题,每小题1分,满分15 分) 阅读下面短文,然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。 Hi, I’m a student in Beijing. I’m 36 here, so I don’t have many friends now. Can you be my 37 ? Now let me introduce (介绍) myself. I’m Bella. I’m thirteen. I’m good at English, so I can 38 you with it. My favourite colour is 39 , so I have many blue things. Look, 40 bag is blue. My favourite 41 of the week is Friday, because we have a music class that day. I love music. I listen to music after school. I also like to 42 songs in my free time. My friend Lena thinks I’m a good writer. My favourite sport is 43 . I can play it well. Do you like playing it 44 ? Tomorrow is 45 and I don’t go to school. We can meet and play ping-pong. My 46 is 564-7362. You can call me. And I also like to swim on 47 days, because it can make me cool. We can also go swimming together 48 summer. That’s all about me. If you want to 49 more about me, you’re welcome to call or write to me! 50 for listening to me. 36.A.nice B.warm C.new D.sorry 37.A.student B.teacher C.cousin D.friend 38.A.draw B.help C.meet D.teach 39.A.white B.brown C.green D.blue 40.A.my B.her C.his D.your 41.A.idea B.weather C.day D.colour 42.A.write B.remember C.find D.read 43.A.swimming B.basketball C.football D.ping-pong 44.A.now B.too C.here D.again 45.A.Tuesday B.Wednesday C.Friday D.Saturday 46.A.book B.time C.number D.classroom 47.A.hot B.cold C.cool D.warm 48.A.after B.in C.at D.on 49.A.tell B.know C.say D.think 50.A.Thank B.Sorry C.Thanks D.Hello 第二节 词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分) A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,每词仅用一次 a lot of, guitar, each, spend, counts Every summer, my cousins and I 51 happy time together in grandma’s house. We help her pick (采摘) oranges—there are 52 orange trees in the yard. 53 of us gets a small bag to put our oranges. After that, grandma always 54 how many oranges we have. In the evening, we usually have a party under the big tree. My cousin Tim plays the 55 , and we sit around him, singing softly. It’s the most relaxing part of our day there. B:阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。 When is your birthday? How do you 56 (庆祝) your birthday? Do you ever do anything different on your birthday? Bill and Bob are 57 (双胞胎的) brothers. Their birthday is in 58 (五月) and it is coming 59 (不久). They are talking about it. “Every year it’s always the 60 (相同). We have a big birthday 61 (聚会). We ask our friends to come, play games and eat a birthday cake. It sounds 62 (乏味), right? This year I want a different one.” Bill says. “Do you know our 63 (同班同学) David? His mother is not healthy. She must see a doctor, but she doesn’t have much money. So I want to have a yard sale to get some money to help her.” “Let’s do it!” says Bob. When their parents know about this, they want to help David’s mother, too. They buy a lot of things for his mum and help 64 (送) her to the doctor. How warm-hearted Bill’s 65 (家庭) is! After knowing about the story, do you also want a different birthday next year? 第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分) 阅读下面短文,在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中单词的正确形式。 The Mid-Autumn Festival is a time for family reunion. We always have a big family dinner and take family 66 (photo). My grandpa usually 67 (prepare) a big meal. And after 68 meal, we always eat mooncakes in the garden. It’s a must on that night in my family 69 their round shape stands for family love. We really enjoy 70 (spend) our time with family. However, this year is quite 71 (usual) because my grandfather can’t be with us. He is now a patient in the hospital. We all miss 72 (he) very much. So we decide 73 (make) a video call! When we see 74 (grandpa) smiling face on the screen, we feel warm and happy. It is a special moment 75 all of us. We look forward to the day when he is back home. 第四部分语言运用 (共一节,满分20分) 76.家是港湾,家人是最重要的,总有许多温暖的瞬间让我们感动。假设你是李辉,你的英语老师让你在课堂上介绍家人信息并分享充满爱的家庭时光。请根据下表中的提示内容,用英语写一篇短文。 要求: 1.词数80以上; 2.文中不得出现真实的校名,人名; 3.要包含所给全部信息,可适当发挥。 Li Hui’s family Name Age Job Hobby Activities Li Hui 12 a student in Grade Seven listening to music Usually:Walk/ Watch films/... On Dongzhi: Make dumplings and eat tangyuan together …… Father 42 a policeman fishing Mother 40 a teacher reading Feeling: happy/ warm...... Hello, everyone. I’m Li Hui _ 学科网(北京)股份有限公司 $听力考试正式开始。My name is mary smith. Nice to meet you. Nice to meet you too. My name is mary smith. Nice to meet you. Nice to meet you too. Listen to the next question. Do you play the violin. judy? No, it's my mother's violin. Should place IT very well. Do you play the violin? judy? No, is my mother's violin. SHE placed very well. Listen to the next question. Hi Alice. Our school wants to start a music club. Do you want . to join? Sure, I can play the guitar. What about you, Peter? I'd love to, but I can play any musical instruments. Oh, but you can sing . well exactly, and i'm good at dancing too. Question can pay the thing and does well. Hi Alice. Our school wants to start a music club. Do you want to join? Sure, I can play the guitar. What about you, Peter? I'd love to, but I can play any musical instruments. Oh, but you can sing . well exactly, and i'm good at dancing too. Question, can Peter sing and dance well? Listen to the next question. We'll have a football match. Can you come here between nine and ten tomorrow? Sorry, I won't be free until eleven o'clock. We'll have a football match. Can you come here between nine and ten tomorrow? Sorry, I won't be free until eleven o'clock. Listen to the next question. Good morning, Peter. I am your new class teacher. You can call me the nice to . meet you. Good morning, miss. We nice to meet you too. Who is Peter's class teacher? Good morning, Peter. I am your new class teacher. You can call in the silly. Nice to meet you. Good morning, miss. We nice to meet you too. Who is Peter's class teacher? Listen to the next . question. Good morning, mr. smith. Good morning. May I know your name? I'm Jenny Brown. What class are you in? Jenny? I'm in class three. Great seven. Where are you from? I'm from london in the U. K. Good morning, mr. smith. Good morning. May I know your name? I'm Jenny Brown. What class are you in? Jenny? I'm in class three. Great seven. Where are you from? I'm from london in the U. K. Listen to the next question. Hi, Sally. Can I ask you some questions? sure. How old are you? I'm thirty years old. I'm in a new school this year. Do you have a library in your school? Yes, it's behind our classroom building. I often go there. Good girl, do you have biology at school? Yes, I do. It's difficult, but . important. Do you like IT? Of course. Hi Sally. Can I ask you some questions? sure. How old are you? I'm thirteen years old. I'm in a new school this year. Do you have a library in . your school? Yes, it's behind our classroom building. I often go there. Good girl. Do you have biology at school? Yes. I do. It's difficult, but important. Do you . like IT? Of course. Listen to the next . question, mr. And mrs. Green, have a daughter, Cindy and the sun. paul. Cindy likes red. Her room is red everywhere. SHE doesn't like sports. He always watches TV. Paul likes sports. He likes soccer and basketball. He has two soccer balls and a basketball. He often plays basketball in the morning and play soccer in the afternoon. mr. And mrs. Green have a daughter, Cindy, and the son paul. Cindy likes red. Her room is red everywhere. SHE doesn't like sports. He always watches T, V. Paul likes sports. He likes soccer and basketball. He has two soccer balls and a basketball. He often plays basketball in the morning and play soccer in the afternoon. 听力部分到此结束。
2025-2026学年七年级英语上册期末练习卷(温州卷)
英语·答题卡
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选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂)
第一部分(听力)(第1-5每小题1分,6-15每小题1.5分,共20分)
1[A][B][C][D]
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16.A1[B1[CJ[D1
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第三部分第一节完形填空(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答,超出黑色矩形迈框限定区域的答案无效!
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
第二节词汇运用(共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
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