陕西省榆林市2025-2026学年高三12月联考英语试卷

2025~2026高三12月联考 英语 全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并收回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a shop. B. In a theater. C. In a children's park. 2. What does the woman dislike about the building? A. Its design. B. Its position. C. Its neighborhood. 3. How much will the man pay? A. $8. B. $15. C. $30. 4. What will the woman probably do next? A. Tell the man her address. B. Take the package with her. C. Delivery her package by herself. 5. What does the man mean? A. The woman is lying. B. The woman is always late for school. C. The woman should look after her mother. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Where are the speakers now? A. In Vancouver. B. In San Francisco. C. In Seattle. 7. What does the man do? A. A student. B. A travel agent. C. A teacher. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What do we know about the speakers? A. They are a couple. B. They are good friends. C. They are strangers. 9. What will the man do for the woman? A. Offer her a free meal. B. Make plans with her and her family. C. Help her create a restaurant business. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. How did the speakers arrive? A. On foot. B. By taxi. C. By car. 11. What are the speakers probably going to watch? A. A car race. B. A tennis game. C. A soccer match. 12. Why did the speakers arrive earlier? A. To find Peter. B. To get a good place. C. To meet the players. 听第9段材料，回答13至16小题。 13. What does the man probably do? A He's a dentist. B. He's a salesman. C. He's a dentist's assistant. 14. What does the man suggest about the woman's teeth? A. They're so nice. B. They're damaged. C. They look dirty. 15. How often does the woman usually brush her teeth? A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a day. 16. What did the man do to the woman? A. He cleaned her teeth. B. He checked her eyes. C. He replaced her toothbrush. 听第10段材料，回答17至20题。 17. What will the children do during the trip? A. Admire artworks. B. Talk with scientists. C. Do voluntary work. 18. How long will it take to get to the destination? A. About half an hour. B. About one hour. C. About two hours. 19. What is free of charge? A. The lunch. B. The bus ride. C. The entrance fee. 20. Whom is the talk mainly for? A. Students. B. Teachers. C. Parents. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Future Industries: Which Ones Will Rule? As we move towards the future, it is important to consider which industries will have the greatest potential for growth and success. Here are a few of the most promising sectors: Technology The technology industry has been on an upward trend for years and shows no signs of slowing down. From artificial intelligence and virtual reality to blockchain and the Internet of Things, there are countless opportunities in this field. Healthcare With an aging population and increasing demand for healthcare services, the healthcare industry is expected to see significant growth in the coming years. This includes everything from medical devices and medicines to telemedicine and home health care. Renewable energy As concerns about climate change continue to mount there is growing demand for clean and sustainable energy sources. Solar, wind, and hydropower are just a few of the renewable energy sectors that are ready for explosive growth. E-commerce Online shopping has become increasingly popular over the past decade, and this trend shows no signs of stopping. As more people turn to e-commerce for their shopping needs, businesses in this space will continue to thrive. Education With the rise of automation and artificial intelligence, there is a growing need for workers with specialized skills and knowledge. This has led to a large increase in demand for education and training programmes, making this sector a promising one for investment. These are just a few of the many industries that are expected to see significant growth in the coming years. By keeping an eye on these trends, investors can position themselves for success in the future. 1. Which industry has been promoted by the continuous aging society? A. Technology. B. Healthcare. C. E-commerce. D. Education. 2. What is the direct reason for the increasing emphasis on renewable energy? A. Global climate change. B. The improvement of technology. C. The shortage of non-renewable resources. D. The globalization and industrial competition. 3. What makes education a promising industry in the future? A. An increase in population. B. The demand for online shopping. C. The development of economy. D. Training for talents with particular skills. B If you struggle to fit exercise into your busy workweek but find time to work out on weekends or days off, you might be considered a “weekend warrior”. This term can sometimes carry a hostile meaning, implying a lack of commitment to regular exercise. However, recent research suggests that those who concentrate their workouts into one or two days can enjoy similar health benefits to those who exercise consistently throughout the week, if they complete the same total amount of exercise. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends that adults engage in at least 150 minutes of moderate exercise or 75 minutes of high intensity exercise each week to maintain good health. A study conducted by researchers in China specifically explored the effects of weekend warrior works on brain health. They employed data from over 75,000 individuals in the UK and categorized participants into three groups: those who exercised regularly throughout the week, those who only exercised on weekends, and those who did not exercise at all. The study followed participants, averaging 62 years of age, for about eight years. The findings were striking: weekend warriors exhibited a comparable reduction in their risks of developing conditions such as dementia and depression, similar to those who exercised consistently throughout the week. The researchers concluded that the critical factor influencing health outcomes was not the frequency of exercise but rather the total amount of exercise performed. In a related study of the US, which involved nearly 90,000 participants in the UK, researchers confirmed this idea. They found that anyone who engaged in at least 150 minutes of exercise at any point during the week significantly reduced their risk of developing over 200 diseases compared to those who did not meet this exercise standard. In conclusion, there is no inherent problem with being a weekend warrior. As long as individuals are meeting the recommended exercise guidelines, the timing of their works is less important than previously thought. 4. Which is closest in meaning to the underlined word “hostile” in paragraph 1? A. Impartial. B. Negative. C. Objective. D. Ambiguous. 5. What is the WHO’s suggestion for weekly exercise? A. 225 minutes of exercise. B. 75 minutes of intensive exercise. C. 75 minutes of moderate exercise. D. Any amount of exercise is acceptable. 6. What did the study in China find about weekend warriors in paragraph 3? A. They are much healthier than regular exercisers. B. They have a higher risk of developing diseases. C. They can get similar health benefits as regular exercisers. D. They should change their exercise habits for better results. 7. What can be concluded from the last paragraph? A. “Weekend warrior” exercise pattern is not effective for health. B. The frequency of exercise is more important than the total amount. C. The WHO doesn’t recommend “weekend warrior” exercise pattern. D. Exercising weekends can match weekly exercise benefits if total amount is met. C Noise pollution poses a significant threat to various animal species, seriously impacting their natural behaviors and ecological roles. Among its harmful effects, the most serious is that it confuses acoustic signals critical to animal communication and survival. Animals rely on these signals for crucial activities such as finding mates, warning others of danger, and coordinating group behaviors. However, noise pollution often overlaps with these frequencies, obscuring (使模糊) vital messages. Furthermore, noise pollution alters animal behaviors essential for their reproductive success. For instance, courtship rituals (求偶仪式) in birds can be affected, leading to decreased mating success and, consequently, fewer offspring. In some cases, the stress caused by constant noise exposure can result in reduced egg production among birds and marine species. This impact extends beyond reproduction, influencing the overall health and population dynamics of affected species. The impact is wide-ranging, affecting mammals and marine life. Even species known for their adaptability, such as certain marine mammals and birds, are not immune to the effects of noise pollution. In water, noise from shipping, underwater construction, and recreational activities can interfere with marine mammals’ navigation and communication, essential for their survival. The World Health Organization (WHO) recognizes noise pollution as one of the most harmful forms of environmental pollution worldwide. Its widespread presence in the whole ecosystems highlights its potential to unsettle the entire food web and ecological balance. As human activities continue to occupy natural habitats, the long-term effects of noise pollution intensify, posing an increasingly urgent threat to biodiversity. Efforts to reduce noise pollution are crucial for preserving ecosystems and protecting vulnerable animal populations. Implementing sound management practices, regulating noise levels in sensitive habitats, and raising awareness about the ecological impacts of noise pollution are essential steps toward fostering healthier environments for all species. By addressing noise pollution comprehensively, we can protect the complex web of life. 8. What’s the main effect of noise pollution on animal communication? A. It destroys animals’ natural habitats. B. It influences animals’ ability to find food. C. It affects animals’ adapting to the new environments. D. It disturbs important sounds animals need for survival. 9. How does noise pollution affect bird reproduction? A. It reduces birds’ need for courtship rituals. B. It shortens the life cycle of birds’ offspring. C. It lowers mating success by troubling courtship rituals. D. It changes the choice of egg-laying places among bird species. 10. What does the author want to express by mentioning WHO? A. Noise pollution mostly happens in urban areas. B. Noise pollution has negative effects mainly on humans. C. Noise pollution brings about food safety issues. D. Noise pollution is a global issue impacting wildlife. 11. What is the text mainly about? A. Threats brought by noise pollution to wildlife. B. Animal messages covered by noise pollution. C. Measures to reduce noise pollution in the wild. D. Impacts of noise pollution on ecological balance. D People have traditionally been hired based primarily on the degree they earned, the job they had, or the people they knew. Skills were not a big part of the conversation in the hiring, or in the economy overall. That’s changing. Workers better understand the need to articulate (清晰地表达) the skills they have and the skills they want. And businesses, eager to fill roles in this historically tight labour market, have started to focus on whether people have the skills to get the job done. Skills come first. We need to take advantage of this momentum (势头). Skills-first hiring needs to become the new way to connect talent to opportunity. The World Economic Forum estimates we’ll need to reskill over one billion people by 2030. Employees consider opportunities to learn and grow as the primary driver of great work culture, yet our data shows only 52% of employees feel their manager encourages the use of work time to learn new skills. This major disconnect will start to impact employers as the skills-economy continues to grow. By caring about employees’ careers, investing in their skills development, and helping them transform into new roles, companies benefit too. When leaders offer growth opportunities through internal mobility, they keep their employees nearly twice as long as their peers. A focus on upskilling needs employers to change their concept of business management. Everyone from the top down needs to understand how critical ongoing learning and upskilling is, not only from an employee’s growth perspective (角度), but also for maintaining a company’s competitive edge. The organizations that keep their employees on top of new technologies are the ones that will see success in this new world of work. Never in the history of the labour market has been a clear or reliable way to understand whether people and jobs are matched in the most efficient way. The labour market has worked from some, but skills can change that. By harnessing (利用) new data and tools that make it easy for people and companies to identify talent based on skills, along with the access to building more diversified and equitable networks, we have the ability to help fill the most in demand jobs based on what a candidate can do. This will not only create greater equity in our economy, but also greater dynamism. It will create new levels of progress and prosperity. 12. What does the text mainly discuss? A. A skills-first labour market is emerging. B. The skills needed for jobs have changed. C There comes a marked shift in business demands. D. The labour market is becoming more competitive. 13. How can employers benefit from skill training according to the text? A. It helps improve the stability of the workforce. B. It develops employers’ decision-making ability. C. It is helpful in building excellent corporate culture. D. It enhances employees’ sense of responsibility. 14. What is a requirement for upskilling? A. A network running on the principle of equity. B. A mentality shift at the management level. C. The cooperation between labour and management. D. A system that encourages self-improvement. 15. What is the purpose of the text? A. To introduce the development of the labour market. B. To share a unique view about the economy. C. To explain why the world of work needs to put skills first. D. To analyze the importance of skills to social progress. 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Are worms the heroes we didn’t know we needed? Silent, slimy and wriggling (扭动), you might think that worms are good for nothing except bait (诱饵) on the end of a fishing pole. ____16____ The British naturalist Charles Darwin said that no other animal has “played such an important part in the history of the world as these lowly organised creatures”. They have lived on Earth for 600 million years and have even survived five mass extinctions. ____17____ Earthworms literally move the earth, and this is why farmers love them. As they travel, they aerate (使透气) the soil by loosening, mixing and oxygenating it. ____18____ They are effectively a small but very efficient plough (犁). But it’s not just earthworms that deserve praise. In 2022, a group of scientists at the Margarita Salas Centre for Biological Research isolated enzymes (酶) found in wax worm saliva (唾液) which are plastic-eating. _____19_____ It’s hoped that by producing these enzymes on an industry-level scale, we will have a more environmentally friendly way to reduce plastic pollution. _____20_____ Bloodworms are small sea creatures which press themselves into the mud of the ocean floor. Scientists at the University of California, Santa Barbara have been studying their jaws, which are made up of 10% copper proteins (铜蛋白) and are so strong that they last the worm’s entire five-year lifespan. Because of this research, engineers may start using the jaws as inspiration for the design and manufacture of materials like concrete. So, next time you see a worm, show it a little respect. They really are changing the world! A. So, what do worms do that is so great? B. Worms have a lifespan of a few months. C. And worms are even inspiring the building industry. D. It increases the ground’s capacity to hold and empty water. E. However, there is more to the humble worm than meets the eye. F. Humans produce more than 300 million tons of plastic every year. G. These can break down a very common plastic that normally breaks down over many years. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 The 2024 Paris Olympics delivered unforgettable moments of triumph, perseverance, and sportsmanship. One story is that of Hunter Woodhall, a Paralympic runner whose journey is the ___21___ to determination and self-belief. Woodhall’s story ___22___ with a life-changing decision by his parents when he was born with a condition preventing bone formation in his legs. They ___23___ to remove both legs below the knee. With ___24___ legs, Woodhall competed in many sports events. Ultimately, he ___25___ his calling on the track. In his youth, Woodhall competed in various local and national ___26___, winning the Utah state high school championship in the 400 meters with a(n)___27___ time of 47.64 seconds. His success led him to compete against able-bodied athletes in college and then ___28___ in the Paralympics. His father attributes Woodhall’s drive to his own inner ___29___, and Woodhall pushed himself to excel. Since 2015, Woodhall has competed in the World Championships, winning medals and ___30___ along the way. It was on the track that he met his future ___31___, Olympic Gold Medalist Tara Davis. Their love story became the most heart-warming moments of the 2024 Olympics. After a race, Woodhall’s embrace with Davis ___32___ hearts around the world, as he whispered to her, “I knew we could do it.” Woodhall’s journey is a powerful ___33___ that with determination and perseverance, anything is achievable. Woodhall’s ___34___ is not just defined by his medals, but by the lives he touched along the way. His story reminds us greatness isn’t ___35___ by circumstances, but by the courage to rise above them. 21. A. barrier B. clue C. access D. evidence 22. A. began B. expanded C. transformed D. reacted 23. A. forgot B. chose C. continued D. promised 24. A. flexible B. huge C. artificial D. strange 25. A. found B. covered C. tried D. changed 26. A. celebrations B. events C. challenges D. investments 27. A. scary B. untrue C. impressive D. disappointing 28. A. independently B. emotionally C. internationally D. humbly 29. A. confusion B. explanation C. foundation D. motivation 30. A. recognition B. foundation C. advice D. freedom 31. A. wife B. coach C. competitor D. minister 32. A. froze B. melted C. opened D. broke 33. A. joke B. accident C. criticism D. reminder 34. A. weapon B. influence C. force D. legend 35. A. sponsored B. tackled C. measured D. quoted 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 A growing number of artistic shows and events have recently been unfolding nationwide during the peak summer travel season. Instead of being presented in the cultural spaces of major cities, now these new art exhibitions ____36____ (take) root in rural towns or smaller Chinese cities. Behind this movement is a new trend: The cultural resources of rural areas are now bringing up diverse art events. Art has long been perceived as a cultural game ____37____ matters the most to first-tier cities. Whether in urban museums ____38____ galleries, art creations seem to be housed within their own ivory towers (象牙塔), ____39____ (wait) for visitors to approach them while remaining distant from their surrounding environment. ____40____ (compare) with the disconnection of art in cities, rural towns seem to ____41____ (actual) be capable of merging (融合) art and everyday life together. Take the Sankui township’s art show in Wenzhou, Zhejiang Province as an example. Its art installations draw ____42____ (inspire) from the local terraced fields (梯田). Both sculptures and photography seamlessly fit perfectly into the rural background, allowing spectators to walk in the farmland’s wind-shaped wheat waves ____43____ (experience) art. Such a scene reveals how rural areas’ local features and landscapes can ____44____ (broad) the view for artistic creation.____45____ other words, it frees art from big-city ivory towers. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 46. 假定你是李华，你校广播站将增加15分钟的英语节目(Special English)。请你给负责的外教Bob写一个邮件，内容包括： 1. 对该举措的态度； 2. 对内容的建议。 注意： 1. 写作词数应为80左右； 2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。 Dear Bob, ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。 It was a regular day at the smartphone store. My job was to help customers all, whether it was something as simple as transferring contacts or as tricky as fixing a phone that wouldn’t turn on. People came in stressed about their phones all the time, but I knew how to handle it. And I liked the work. There was something satisfying about solving problems and sending people on their way with their devices working as they should. Then Joe appeared. He looked to be in his late 40s. His hair was slightly graying, with strands falling across his forehead as if he’d been running his hands through it. His shirt was untucked, and his tie was loose and hanging at an odd angle around his neck. He was practically running toward the counter, his face turning red, eyes wide with panic. He grasped his phone like it was a lifeline, his fingers white from the grip. “You need to give me a new phone!” Joe almost shouted, waving his phone in the air like it was about to explode. “This one you sold me a few days ago is broken! My phone’s camera is totally messed up, and I need a decent photo right now!” I tried to stay calm. Something about Joe’s urgency made me pay closer attention. “Let’s take a look at what’s going on,” I said, signalling him to hand me the phone. Then he thrust the phone into my hands, nearly dropping it in a hurry. “Look at this! Every picture is ruined!” His voice was sharp, and he sounded out of breath. I opened the photo gallery. The pictures looked like something out of a funhouse mirror. “Hmm,” I said, trying to keep my tone neutral. “It looks like there’s a filter (滤镜) turned on, sir.” Joe’s frustration grew visibly, his face covered with disbelief. “No, there wasn’t! I didn’t mess with anything! My photos were fine when I took them. They have to be fixed — now!” 注意： 1.续写词数应为150个左右; 2.请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。 I calmly explained to Joe that it was an easy fix. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ As he prepared to leave, Joe paused, and then turned back. ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 2025~2026高三12月联考 英语 全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。 注意事项： 1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。 2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。 3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并收回。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. Where does the conversation take place? A. In a shop. B. In a theater. C. In a children's park. 2. What does the woman dislike about the building? A. Its design. B. Its position. C. Its neighborhood. 3. How much will the man pay? A. $8. B. $15. C. $30. 4. What will the woman probably do next? A. Tell the man her address. B. Take the package with her. C. Delivery her package by herself. 5. What does the man mean? A. The woman is lying. B. The woman is always late for school. C. The woman should look after her mother. 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分） 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。 6. Where are the speakers now? A. In Vancouver. B. In San Francisco. C. In Seattle. 7. What does the man do? A. A student. B. A travel agent. C. A teacher. 听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。 8. What do we know about the speakers? A. They are a couple. B. They are good friends. C. They are strangers. 9. What will the man do for the woman? A Offer her a free meal. B. Make plans with her and her family. C. Help her create a restaurant business. 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。 10. How did the speakers arrive? A. On foot. B. By taxi. C. By car. 11. What are the speakers probably going to watch? A. A car race. B. A tennis game. C. A soccer match. 12. Why did the speakers arrive earlier? A. To find Peter. B. To get a good place. C. To meet the players. 听第9段材料，回答13至16小题。 13. What does the man probably do? A. He's a dentist. B. He's a salesman. C. He's a dentist's assistant. 14. What does the man suggest about the woman's teeth? A. They're so nice. B. They're damaged. C. They look dirty. 15. How often does the woman usually brush her teeth? A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a day. 16. What did the man do to the woman? A. He cleaned her teeth. B. He checked her eyes. C. He replaced her toothbrush. 听第10段材料，回答17至20题。 17. What will the children do during the trip? A. Admire artworks. B. Talk with scientists. C. Do voluntary work. 18. How long will it take to get to the destination? A. About half an hour. B. About one hour. C. About two hours. 19. What is free of charge? A. The lunch. B. The bus ride. C. The entrance fee. 20. Whom is the talk mainly for? A. Students. B. Teachers. C. Parents. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A 【1~3题答案】 【答案】1. B 2. A 3. D B 【4~7题答案】 【答案】4. B 5. B 6. C 7. D C 【8~11题答案】 【答案】8. D 9. C 10. D 11. A D 【12~15题答案】 【答案】12. A 13. A 14. B 15. C 第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分） 阅读下面短文，从文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 【16~20题答案】 【答案】16. E 17. A 18. D 19. G 20. C 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 【21~35题答案】 【答案】21. D 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. A 32. B 33. D 34. D 35. C 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 【36~45题答案】 【答案】36. are taking 37. that##which 38. or 39. waiting 40. Compared 41. actually 42 inspiration 43. to experience 44. broaden 45. In 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（满分15分） 【46题答案】 【答案】Dear Bob, I am glad to hear the news of the upcoming addition of Special English. This not only increases the opportunities for our students to practice English listening, but also enriches our campus cultural atmosphere. Given the limited time, I think the content should not only be novel but also short, including campus news, student interviews, English knowledge and other forms. At the same time, we should constantly listen to the opinions of our schoolmates and stimulate their enthusiasm for learning English. I believe that under your guidance, this program will become better and better. Yours, Li Hua 第二节（满分25分） 【47题答案】 【答案】 I calmly explained to Joe that it was an easy fix. I turned off the filter with a few taps, and his pictures returned to normal. Joe blinked, his anger slowly fading into embarrassment. “Oh... I didn’t realize it was that simple,” he mumbled, with the tension leaving his body. I smiled, reassuring him that it happens to everyone. Joe let out a nervous laugh. “I guess I panicked for nothing.” I handed him his phone back, and for the first time since he arrived, Joe looked relaxed. As he prepared to leave, Joe paused, and then turned back. “Thank you,” he said. His voice was soft. “I’ve been going through a lot lately, and your help with repairing my phone really comforted me. You’ve been really kind.” His words hit me. Sometimes, it’s not just about fixing a phone — it’s about easing someone’s day. Joe walked out, looking less burdened, and I felt a sense of warmth knowing I had made a difference, however small. It reminded me why I loved my job. 第1页/共1页 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $