内容正文:
2025-2026学年上学期八年级英语期末模拟检测试题(山东济南专用)
(试卷满分:150分;考试时间:120分钟)
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A.I will go to the town library.
B.I went to the town library.
C.I never go to the town library.
【答案】A
【原文】I’m going to the town library.
2.A.My parents were busy cooking dinner.
B.My aunt was busy cooking breakfast.
C.My aunt was busy cooking dinner.
【答案】C
【原文】My aunt was busy cooking dinner.
3.A.Do you like the weather in your city?
B.How’s the weather in your city?
C.How about the people in your city?
【答案】B
【原文】How’s the weather in your city?
4.A.What did the brothers do? B.Where did Kate go yesterday? C.How is your holiday going?
【答案】B
【原文】Where did Kate go yesterday?
5.A.He couldn’t stop laughing. B.Wasn’t she more creative? C.Drinking milk is good for us.
【答案】A
【原文】He couldn’t stop laughing.
第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6.Who should be the monitor according to the man?
A.Betty. B.Joy. C.Tony.
【答案】A
【原文】A: Tony, I think Joy is really outgoing. What do you think?
B: Well. Betty is more outgoing and careful than Joy. I think she should be our monitor.
7.What did Anna do better in?
A.Drawing. B.Dancing. C.Singing.
【答案】C
【原文】A: I think Anna sang better than Mary, though Mary won the competition at last.
B: Yeah, but Mary danced better than Anna in the competition.
8.What did the girl think of the food in China?
A.It was terrible. B.It was delicious. C.It was too expensive.
【答案】B
【原文】A: Hello, I have heard that you have already been to China on your holiday. How was the food there?
B: Oh, it was fantastic. I have tried Mapo tofu, Beijing roast duck and some local dishes. They all tasted really good. I really like Chinese food.
9.Where did Jack go during the holiday?
A.To the mountains. B.To the beach. C.To the countryside.
【答案】A
【原文】M: Hi, Sally. How was your holiday?
W: Oh, it’s very relaxing. I enjoyed the sunshine on the beach in Hainan. How about you, Jack?
M: I went to the mountains with my friends.
10.Why can’t Peter go skating with the girl?
A.Because he doesn’t like it. B.Because he has to do chores. C.Because he has to do homework.
【答案】B
【原文】A: Hi, Peter. Can you go skating with me after school?
B: Sorry, I can’t. I have to do chores.
第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11.What’s the weather like now?
A.Sunny. B.Cloudy. C.Rainy.
12.What is the woman going to do?
A.To read some books. B.To go shopping. C.To have a picnic.
13.What does the man want to buy for his mother?
A.A watch. B.A bag. C.A dress.
14.Who does the man buy a hat for?
A.His father. B.Himself. C.The woman.
15.When may the man take a part-time job?
A.This summer vacation. B.This winter vacation. C.This weekend.
【答案】11.C 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.A
【原文】W: Haven’t got sunny days for so long. I wonder when the rain will stop.
M: The weather report says it will be sunny this weekend.
W: Great!
M: What are you going to do this weekend?
W: I’m going for a picnic with my cousin. What about you?
M: I’m planning to get a part-time job.
W: A part-time job?
M: Yes. I want to buy a scarf for my father and a watch for my mother. Also, I need a hat.
W: A nice plan, but it might be better to put it off till this summer vacation. You’ll have more time then.
M: Good idea. I will.
第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16.How is Lily different from most children in weight?
A.She is lighter. B.She is heavier. C.She has the same weight.
17.What did Lily do at school every day before?
A.Sat alone. B.Played games. C.Studied with friends
18.What did Miss Green say about Lily’s birthmark?
A.It felt like a flower. B.It made her special. C.It needed to be removed (除去).
19.What did Lily start to do after following Miss Green’s advice?
A.Stay at home. B.Say hello to classmates. C.Join clubs to make friends.
20.How does Lily feel about herself now?
A.Sad. B.Angry. C.Satisfied.
【答案】16.B 17.A 18.B 19.B 20.C
【原文】
Lily has a birthmark on her face. Besides, she has a greater weight than most children. She was afraid to talk to anyone at school because she thought other students would laugh at her. She sat alone every day and had no friends. One day her English teacher Miss Green noticed this. Miss Green told Lily that her birthmark made her special. She also taught Lily how to start a conversation like saying hi with a smile. Lily listened carefully and tried to follow the advice. She began to say hello to classmates and attend different activities. Slowly she found that people liked her kind heart, not just her face. Now Lily has successfully made many friends. She is satisfied with herself.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从短文后每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Zookeeper for One Day: Caring for Animals
● Site: Smithsonian’s National Zoo
● Time: October 24th,2023 6:30-18:30
● Ticket: 5 yuan per person
This week’s after-school activity is coming! This time we will go into the animal world. Visitors love to see the active animals. However, they may not know the hard work of the zookeepers. So now we invite you to be a zookeeper for one day. Every day, the keepers are busy preparing food, training animals and doing some other work. Let’s take a look at one of our workdays.
● 7:00 a.m.
The first thing we do in the morning is to check on all the animals. We should make sure everyone appears healthy. Our North American beavers (河狸) are active at night. We should give them a quick hello and try not to trouble their rest.
● 10:15 a.m.
Our daily sea lion show begins! Our visitors are always surprised by the cleverness of these animals. Through our shows, they also learn how to help protect sea animals.
● 2:20 p.m.
We train the other animals, including the river otters (河獭) and the ravens (渡鸦). Neither rain nor cold can keep us from our duties. We care for the animals 365 days a year.
● More Information: Call us at 8065-7981during 8:00 a.m.-6:00 p.m.
21.What can visitors do in the animal world?
A.See all kinds of special animals.
B.Enjoy many different local foods.
C.Play with many sea animals face to face.
D.Experience (体验) the hard work of the zookeepers..
22.What are the North American beavers doing when you check on the animals at 7:00a.m?
A.They are eating. B.They are sleeping.
C.They are playing. D.They are drinking.
23.When can we see the sea lion show?
A.At 7:00 a.m. B.At 8:30a.m. C.At 10:15a.m. D.At 2:20p.m.
24.What can you do if you want to get more information about activity?
A.Write a letter. B.Send a email.
C.Visit the website. D.Make a phone call.
25.What can we learn from this passage?
A.Every day, the keepers are busy cleaning the zoo.
B.River otters and ravens are dangerous animals.
C.The first thing we should do in the morning is to feed all the animals.
D.If you want to be a zookeeper, you should learn to train animals.
【答案】21.D 22.B 23.C 24.D 25.D
【解析】本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了一项有趣的课外活动——当一天动物园管理员。文中包括了活动的时间、地点、内容等信息。
21.细节理解题。根据“So now we invite you to be a zookeeper for one day. Every day, the keepers are busy preparing food, training animals and doing some other work. Let’s take a look at one of our workdays.”可知,游客可以体验一天动物饲养员的辛苦工作。故选D。
22.细节理解题。根据“Our North American beavers are active at night. We should give them a quick hello and try not to trouble their rest.”可知,早晨七点北美海狸在休息。故选B。
23.细节理解题。根据“10:15 a.m. Our daily sealion show begins!”可知,海狮表演在上午10点15分开始。故选C。
24.细节理解题。根据最后一段“More Information: Call us at 8065-7981during 8:00 a.m.-6:00 p.m.”可知,想要获取更多信息,可以打电话联系。故选D。
25.推理判断题。根据第一段“So now we invite you to be a zookeeper for one day. Every day, the keepers are busy preparing food, training animals and doing some other work.”可知,要想成为一个动物饲养员,你应该学习训练动物。故选D。
B
I was reading Malory Towers, a novel that was written by Enid Blyton. It was the last school term for Darrell Rivers, the novel’s main character. The girls were talking about what they were going to do after they left school.
Their conversation led me to think about what it was exactly that I wanted to become when I grew up. I got lost in thought. While some teenagers (青少年) have made a clear plan for themselves, my future looks so misty and uncertain. There are so many alternatives. How can I be sure that I will end up choosing a life that is meaningful?
The story in Malory Towers moved on. Darrell, as the head girl of the boarding school, said to the other girls, “One day, you will leave this school and go out into the world as young women. You should take with you curious minds, kind hearts and a will to help. You should take with you a good understanding of many things and a willingness to take duty, and show yourselves as women to be loved and trusted ... I count as our successes those who learn to be good-hearted and kind, wise and calm, good, sound women the world can lean (依靠) on.”
Yes, no matter what job I end up taking, as long as I have these excellent qualities, I’m sure that I will have a bright future!
26.What was the writer doing according to Paragraph 1?
A.Reading the novel Malory Towers. B.Writing a story about Darrell Rivers.
C.Preparing for the last school term. D.Talking with friends about dreams.
27.What does the underlined word “alternatives” refer to in Paragraph 2?
A.Different choices for the future. B.Different characters in the novel.
C.Different lessons at school. D.Different memories of the past.
28.We can infer (推断) that the author________.
A.has decided what job to take B.was driven to think about her future
C.doesn’t agree with Darrell’s opinion D.doesn’t like the story of Malory Towers
29.What are Darrell’s words mainly about?
A.The Plan for Leaving School. B.The Success at Malory Towers.
C.The Qualities of a Good Woman. D.The Responsibilities of a Head Girl.
30.Which would be the best title for the text?
A.My Favorite Novel: Malory Towers
B.Darrell Rivers, the Head Girl of Malory Towers
C.A Conversation About Future at Malory Towers
D.Finding Encouragement for Future from a Novel
【答案】26.A 27.A 28.B 29.C 30.D
【解析】本文是一篇记叙文,文章讲述了作者阅读恩尼德·布莱顿的小说《马洛里塔楼》时,被书中主角达雷尔和同学们关于毕业后未来的讨论触动,开始思考自己人生方向的故事。
26.细节理解题。根据“I was reading Malory Towers, a novel that was written by Enid Blyton.”可知,作者正在读《马洛里塔楼》这部小说。故选A。
27.词句猜测题。根据“my future looks so misty and uncertain”“How can I be sure that I will end up choosing a life that is meaningful?”可知,作者对未来感到迷茫,有很多不同的选择,所以“alternatives”指“未来的不同选择”。故选A。
28.推理判断题。根据“Their conversation led me to think about what it was exactly that I wanted to become when I grew up.”可知,小说中人物的对话促使作者思考自己的未来,B项表述正确。故选B。
29.细节理解题。根据达雷尔的话“you should take with you curious minds, kind hearts and a will to help... learn to be good-hearted and kind, wise and calm, good, sound women the world can lean on”可知,她的话主要围绕“优秀女性应具备的品质”展开。故选C。
30.最佳标题题。文章核心是作者通过阅读《马洛里塔楼》,从书中人物的话语中获得对未来的启发,明确了优秀品质对人生的重要性。故选D。
C
If you take a walk in a forest and look up, you’ll notice something amazing: the treetops don’t actually touch each other. Tiny gaps (缺口) appear between them, creating a special phenomenon (现象) called “crown shyness”. This interesting action shows us how trees communicate and live together in the ecosystem.
Trees like redwoods and ginkgo trees use this method to stay healthy and lively. They’re always competing for sunlight and water—the most important things for their survival. By keeping a certain distance from their neighbors, they protect their young shoots and leaves from damage (损坏). This wise action also helps stop harmful insects and diseases from spreading (传播) to other trees, just like we protect ourselves from sickness.
In fact, this behavior plays an important role in the whole forest ecosystem. Healthy trees are home to many creatures like ants and various birds. They store carbon and clean our air, making our environment better for all humans. We should understand how important it is to protect our forests, as they are closely linked with our environment and happiness.
So next time when you see trees standing with space between them, remember they’re teaching us how to be good neighbors in nature. Whether you’re a tree or a human, sharing space wisely and protecting each other brings happiness to everyone in this world.
31.What is “crown shyness”?
A.Trees fighting for sunlight and water. B.Gaps between treetops that do not touch.
C.A kind of insect that lives on trees. D.A method to keep the air clean and fresh.
32.Which human action is similar to the “wise action” of the trees in paragraph 2?
A.Studying hard to get good grades in school.
B.Eating healthy food to become taller and stronger.
C.Not standing too close to a friend who has a cold.
D.Sharing toys with friends to make everyone happy.
33.According to paragraph 3, what will probably happen if healthy trees are damaged?
A.We will live a much happier life. B.Many birds may lose their homes.
C.The air we breathe will be cleaner. D.The planet will be better for all humans.
34.According to the writer, what is the key to being a “good neighbor” for both trees and humans?
A.Staying far away from each other all the time.
B.Being the strongest and getting the best things.
C.Sharing space smartly and looking after each other.
D.Living together and sharing everything with each other.
35.What is the main purpose of this text?
A.To describe what a forest looks like.
B.To teach people how to keep trees healthy.
C.To tell us a lesson we can learn from trees.
D.To compare different kinds of trees and creatures.
【答案】31.B 32.C 33.B 34.C 35.C
【解析】本文通过介绍树木间保持适当距离的“树冠羞避”现象,揭示了其在避免伤害、维持健康方面的智慧,并引申出人类应学习这种明智共享空间、相互保护的共存之道。
31.细节理解题。根据“Tiny gaps (缺口) appear between them, creating a special phenomenon (现象) called ‘crown shyness’.”可知,“crown shyness”指的是树冠之间出现的微小空隙,这些树冠并不相互接触。故选B。
32.推理判断题。根据“This wise action also helps stop harmful insects and diseases from spreading (传播) to other trees, just like we protect ourselves from sickness.…”可知,树木保持距离的明智行为有助于阻止害虫和疾病传播到其他树木,就像我们保护自己远离疾病一样。不与感冒的朋友靠得太近,正是为了防止疾病传播,这与树木的行为逻辑相似。故选C。
33.细节理解题。根据“Healthy trees are home to many creatures like ants and various birds.”可知,健康的树木是许多生物,如蚂蚁和各种鸟类的家园。如果健康的树木遭到破坏,这些鸟类可能会失去它们的栖息地。故选B。
34.细节理解题。根据“Whether you’re a tree or a human, sharing space wisely and protecting each other brings happiness to everyone in this world.”可知,无论是树木还是人类,成为好邻居的关键在于明智地分享空间并相互保护。故选C。
35.主旨大意题。根据“So next time when you see trees standing with space between them, remember they’re teaching us how to be good neighbors in nature.”可知,本文通过描述“树冠羞避”现象,揭示了树木之间如何通过保持适当距离来实现健康共存,并最终引申出人类可以从树木的这种现象中学习这一智慧。故选C。
D
How many times have you found yourself in conversations with friends, family members or loved ones and discovered that you had completely shut off what they were saying? How much of our attention are we truly giving to the people who are supposed to be important to us?
According to a research by Wright State University, while most people believe they are good listeners who don’t need to improve their listening skills, the average person only listens at about 25 percent efficiency (效率).
So why aren’t we better listeners? As a society, we may be growing more narcissists (自我陶醉者). A 2007 study found a rise in self-centeredness and narcissism among college students. If we, as a culture, are becoming more self-centered, how can we, as individuals (个体), work to become more caring communicators?
We can begin by changing our attitudes toward conversations. As Stephen R. Covey wrote in his book The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People: Powerful Lessons in Personal Change, “Most people do not listen with the intention (意图) to understand but to reply.” A dialogue is a chance to learn, to see things from a new perspective (视角), to open your eyes to new information and possibilities. Yet, too often we communicate as if it’s a debate (辩论). We speak to hear our own voices. In doing so, we can space out when spoken to. We wait, perhaps even patiently or politely, for the other person to finish, so we can say something we feel is of value.
Wilson Mizner said, “A good listener is not only popular everywhere, but after a while, he knows something.” Listening doesn’t just enrich our knowledge on an intellectual (智力的) level; it also enables us to have a more personal, in-depth understanding of our closest friends. Relationships are truly enriched by an equal (平等的) back-and-forth exchange in communication. When these dynamics (动态) become more one-sided, we may lose interest and create distance (疏远) in our friendships, with less trust built and less honesty exchanged.
Maybe we aren’t as good listeners as we believe. Do we focus too much on ourselves-both in positive and negative ways? Do we get distracted by an inner coach, rather than living in the moment and really focusing on what’s being said? Thankfully, we can all improve our listening skills. As we learn to quiet that inner voice in our minds, we can start to open ourselves up to others, becoming better listeners, thinkers, lovers and friends.
36.What is the author’s purpose in showing the social phenomena in Paragraph 1?
A.To show most people are confident about their listening skills.
B.To point out the fact that people have low efficiency in listening.
C.To provide information about how people behave in conversation.
D.To express his worries about people’s shortage of attention when talking.
37.Why does the author cite the research data from the year 2007?
A.To prove college students have become more self-centered and narcissistic over time.
B.To show the belief in people’s listening skills is out dated and needs to be updated.
C.To provide an example of how society’s narcissism affects personal relationships.
D.To support the argument that society is becoming more self-centered and narcissistic.
38.What does the underlined phrase “space out” in Paragraph 4 mean?
A.Stay focused. B.Feel confused. C.Be absent-minded. D.Remain nervous.
39.Which of the following statements would the writer agree with?
A.We should speak to hear our own voices and opinions.
B.People should listen to learn and see things from a new way.
C.Most people listen with the intention to understand, not to reply.
D.A good listener is popular but does not necessarily know everything.
40.What would be the best title for this passage?
A.Why We Should Listen More and Speak Less
B.How We Can Improve Listening Skills Efficiently
C.The Influence of Narcissism on Social Communication
D.The Lower Efficiency of Listening in Modern Society
【答案】36.B 37.D 38.C 39.B 40.B
【解析】本文是一篇议论文,主要探讨了现代社会中人们倾听效率低下的现象及其原因,并提出通过改变对话态度来改善倾听能力的建议。
36.细节理解题。根据文章第1段“How many times have you found yourself in conversations with friends, family members or loved ones and discovered that you had completely shut off what they were saying? How much of our attention are we truly giving to the people who are supposed to be important to us?”可知,第一段的问题是为了引出人们倾听效率低的事实。故选B。
37.推理判断题。根据文章第3段“A 2007 study found a rise in self-centeredness and narcissism among college students... we, as a culture, are becoming more self-centered”可知,引用2007年数据是为了支持“社会整体变得更自我中心”的论点。故选D。
38.词句猜测题。根据文章第4段“We speak to hear our own voices. In doing so, we can space out when spoken to.”可知,“space out”指在对话中走神、心不在焉的状态。故选C。
39.观点态度题。根据文章第4段“A dialogue is a chance to learn, to see things from a new perspective”及第5段“Listening... enables us to have a more personal, in-depth understanding”可知,作者赞同倾听是为了学习和换位思考。故选B。
40.最佳标题题。本文讲述了人们在与别人交谈时时常分心,介绍了为什么我们不是更好的倾听者以及如何努力成为更有爱心的沟通者,所以选项B“如何有效提高倾听技能”为标题最合适。故选B。
第二节阅读七选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的七个选项中选出最佳选项填入空白处。选项中有两项为多余选项。
People often say “There’s no place better than home.” Homes can look very different around the world. Some live in tall apartments in cities, while others live in wooden houses in villages. 41
For many people, home is more than just a building with rooms. 42 Think about your home-the smell of your favourite food cooking, the sound of family laughter, or even your comfortable bed after a long day.
43 In a nice home, each person has their own jobs. Parents might cook meals while children can help with setting the table or sweeping the floor. Even younger kids can help with chores by cleaning their toys.
A true home is a place where people understand and support each other. For example, when children feel stressed about school, kind parents listen and help them. When parents come home from work and feel tired, children can show their love by making a cup of tea. 44
As an old saying goes, “Home is where the heart is.” 45 That’s because being with family in their own sweet home is the best feeling.
A.It’s a place full of love, joy and warmth.
B.Sharing the housework makes a home sweeter.
C.These little things make family members closer.
D.Wherever they go, people always want to come back home.
E.Some people like living in cities because there are more chances.
F.But no matter the size or style, what makes a house a true home?
G.A lot of new homes are now being built on the edge of the town.
【答案】41.F 42.A 43.B 44.C 45.D
【解析】本文是一篇议论文,主要讨论“家”的意义。
41.根据前文“Some live in tall apartments in cities, while others live in wooden houses in villages.”及后文围绕“真正的家的特质”展开论述可知,前文描述了家的不同外观形式,后文转向家的内在意义,选项F“但无论大小或风格,是什么让一座房子成为真正的家?”以设问形式承接前文的“家的外在差异”,自然引出后文对“家的本质”的探讨,故选F。
42.根据前文“For many people, home is more than just a building with rooms.”可知,前文强调“家不只是一栋有房间的建筑”,选项A“它是一个充满爱、欢乐和温暖的地方”补充了家的内在属性,解释了“家不止是建筑”的具体含义,故选A。
43.根据后文“In a nice home, each person has their own jobs. Parents might cook meals while children can help with setting the table or sweeping the floor.”可知,后文围绕“家人分担家务”展开,选项B“分担家务让家更温馨”作为段落主旨句,概括了该段核心观点,引出后文对家务分工的具体描述,故选B。
44.根据前文“For example, when children feel stressed about school... children can show their love by making a cup of tea.”可知,前文列举了家人间相互关心的具体小事,选项C“这些小事让家庭成员更亲密”总结了这些小事的意义,衔接前文的举例,呼应“家是理解与支持的地方”的观点,故选C。
45.根据前文“As an old saying goes, ‘Home is where the heart is.’”及后文“That’s because being with family in their own sweet home is the best feeling.”可知,前文引用谚语点明“心之所在即为家”,后文解释了原因,选项D“无论他们去哪里,人们总是想回家”承接谚语,表达了人们对家的渴望,衔接后文的原因阐述,故选D。
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分、满分5分)
从选项中选择合适的句子,补全对话。
Mark: What do you want to be when you grow up, Greg?
Greg: 46
Mark: Why do you want to be a teacher?
Greg: 47 I want to help others like they did.
Mark: Sounds interesting. 48
Greg: I’ll study education. And travel.
Mark: Travel?
Greg: Yes! Travel can help me find out the problems the kids in poor villages are having.
Mark: 49 When are you going to start?
Greg: 50
Mark: Wow, sounds wonderful. Hope your dream can come true.
Greg: Thank you.
46.A.I want to be an engineer. B.I want to be a teacher.
C.I want to be a scientist. D.I want to be a doctor.
47.A.Because my teachers helped me a lot. B.Because my English teacher is nice.
C.Because I study hard. D.Because I like learning English.
48.A.Where are you going to study? B.Why are you going to do that?
C.Who are you going to be? D.How are you going to do that?
49.A.Not really. B.Thank you.
C.I disagree. D.I see.
50.A.Once a month. B.For three years.
C.Two weeks ago. D.This winter vacation.
【答案】46.B 47.A 48.D 49.D 50.D
【解析】本文主要是Mark与Greg之间关于未来职业梦想的对话,Greg表示长大后想成为一名教师,并分享了想当教师的原因、实现梦想的计划及开始行动的时间。
46.根据上文Mark的提问“What do you want to be when you grow up, Greg?”以及下文Mark接着问“Why do you want to be a teacher?”可知,Greg的回答应是想成为一名教师,选项B“我想成为一名教师。”符合语境。故选B。
47.根据上文Mark的提问“Why do you want to be a teacher?”以及下文Greg的补充“I want to help others like they did.”可知,Greg想当教师的原因与他们的帮助有关,“他们”指代教师,选项A“因为我的老师帮了我很多。”符合语境。故选A。
48.根据下文Greg的回答“I’ll study education. And travel.”可知,Greg在说明为实现梦想会做的事,因此上文Mark的提问应是“如何实现这个梦想”,选项D“你打算怎么做呢?”符合语境。故选D。
49.根据上文Greg解释“Travel can help me find out the problems the kids in poor villages are having.”可知,Mark应是理解了Greg旅行的目的,选项D“我明白了。”符合语境。故选D。
50.根据上文Mark的提问“When are you going to start?”可知,Greg的回答应是具体的时间,选项D“今年寒假。”符合语境。故选D。
第二节完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
请认真阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
Before I started high school, my parents gave me the greatest gift any teenage boy could ask for: a cellphone. I lived on that phone all summer with my face buried (埋) in its screen. I paid no attention to anything else.
Now, you can imagine what a(an) 51 feeling I had when I learned that my dad had planned a family vacation for us. “This year,” my dad said, “we’ll be doing something special. We are going 52 .”
When we arrived at the campsite, I found that my phone no longer had service.
“What’s the matter?” I asked.
My dad said he 53 a place without cell service, and my phone would be useless 54 we returned home. I would be trapped in the forest for a week with no way to 55 the outside world. It made me 56 ! On the first night of the trip, I went to bed 57 I couldn’t sleep. But when I awoke in the morning, something 58 .
Instead of burying 59 in my phone, my eyes were fixed on something else: flowers, birds and other amazing animals. I began to 60 the beauty of nature. My anger turned to peace, finally, excitement. I felt relaxed as I 61 nature. For the 62 time, I thought camping without cell service might not be so bad.
Days passed in a flash with many fun 63 I hiked. I swam. I fished. My dad and I learned 64 to start a fire to cook. Dad told me stories of his life that I had never heard. When the vacation came to an end, I realized I hadn’t thought of my 65 once. What mattered most were the moments I was sharing with just my father and nature. This is exactly the gift I need.
51.A.wonderful B.awful C.exciting D.important
52.A.skiing B.shopping C.camping D.racing
53.A.chose B.served C.visited D.bought
54.A.if B.when C.unless D.after
55.A.discover B.understand C.guide D.connect
56.A.excited B.angry C.interested D.sure
57.A.and B.as C.although D.but
58.A.happened B.changed C.started D.lost
59.A.myself B.yourself C.himself D.herself
60.A.show B.expect C.introduce D.enjoy
61.A.look forward to B.took care of
C.was good at D.got close to
62.A.first B.second C.next D.last
63.A.discussions B.activities C.presents D.trips
64.A.why B.what C.how D.when
65.A.book B.family C.school D.phone
【答案】
51.B 52.C 53.A 54.C 55.D 56.B 57.D 58.B 59.A 60.D 61.D 62.A 63.B 64.C 65.D
【解析】本文讲述了作者沉迷手机时被父亲带去无信号的森林露营,从最初愤怒到最终发现自然之美并享受亲子时光的转变过程。
51.句意:现在,你可以想象当我得知我爸爸为我们计划了一次家庭度假时,我有多么糟糕的感觉。
wonderful精彩的;awful糟糕的;exciting令人兴奋的;important重要的。根据下文“It made me...”以及作者一开始对没有手机信号的反应可知,作者当时感觉不好,觉得这是个糟糕的事。故选B。
52.句意:“今年,”我爸爸说,“我们将做一些特别的事。我们要去露营。”
skiing滑雪;shopping购物;camping露营;racing赛跑。根据下文“When we arrived at the campsite”可知,是要去露营。故选C。
53.句意:我爸爸说他选了一个没有手机信号的地方,并且除非我们回到家,否则我的手机将毫无用处。
chose选择;served服务;visited参观;bought买。根据语境可知,爸爸是选了一个没有手机信号的地方去露营。故选A。
54.句意:我爸爸说他选了一个没有手机信号的地方,并且除非我们回到家,否则我的手机将毫无用处。
if如果;when当……时候;unless除非;after在……之后。根据语境可知,除非回到家,否则手机没用。故选C。
55.句意:我将被困在森林里一周,没有办法与外界联系。
discover发现;understand理解;guide引导;connect联系。根据语境可知,没有手机信号就无法与外界联系。故选D。
56.句意:这让我很生气!旅行的第一个晚上,我上了床,但是我睡不着。
excited兴奋的;angry生气的;interested感兴趣的;sure确定的。根据上文作者对没有手机信号的反应以及下文“My anger turned to peace”可知,一开始作者是生气的。故选B。
57.句意:这让我很生气!旅行的第一个晚上,我上了床,但是我睡不着。
and和;as当……时候;although虽然;but但是。根据语境可知,前后是转折关系,虽然上了床,但是睡不着。故选D。
58.句意:但是当我早上醒来时,一些事情改变了。
happened发生;changed改变;started开始;lost丢失。根据下文作者开始关注大自然可知,一些事情改变了。故选B。
59.句意:我没有把自己埋在手机里,我的眼睛固定在其他东西上:花、鸟和其他令人惊奇的动物。
myself我自己;yourself你自己;himself他自己;herself她自己。根据语境可知,这里说的是作者自己,用myself。故选A。
60.句意:我开始享受大自然的美。
show展示;expect期待;introduce介绍;enjoy享受。根据语境可知,作者开始享受大自然的美。故选D。
61.句意:当我靠近大自然时,我感到很放松。
look forward to期待;took care of照顾;was good at擅长;got close to靠近。根据语境可知,是靠近大自然时感到放松。故选D。
62.句意:第一次,我觉得没有手机信号的露营可能没那么糟糕。
first第一;second第二;next下一个;last最后。根据语境可知,这是第一次有这样的想法。故选A。
63.句意:时光飞逝,我进行了很多有趣的活动。我徒步旅行、我游泳、我钓鱼。
discussions讨论;activities活动;presents礼物;trips旅行。根据下文“I hiked. I swam. I fished.”可知,是进行了很多有趣的活动。故选B。
64.句意:我爸爸和我学会了如何生火做饭。
why为什么;what什么;how如何;when什么时候。根据语境可知,是学会了如何生火做饭。故选C。
65.句意:当假期结束时,我意识到我一次也没想过我的手机。
book书;family家庭;school学校;phone手机。根据上文作者一开始担心没有手机信号以及后文“What mattered most were the moments I was sharing with just my father and nature.”可知,作者一次也没想过手机。故选D。
第三节 阅读填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Do you like the lotus (莲)? The lotus is one of the most amazing water 66 (plant). It’s well-known for 67 (it) large, round leaves and beautiful flowers.
The lotus plants are very strong and can live for a very long time. They can’t grow very tall, 68 their leaves and flowers can spread across the water and cover 69 large area. This makes them perfect for 70 (decorate) lakes.
The lotus flowers are very beautiful. They come in many colours like pink, white, and even yellow. The flowers need at least six hours 71 sunlight each day. Every morning, these lovely flowers open up to greet the sun, and then they slowly close in the afternoon. They can remain fresh and beautiful for several days.
Besides (除了) being beautiful, the lotus is very 72 (use). People can eat some parts of it. They even use lotus leaves to wrap (包裹) food. This gives food a fresh smell. In some places, people also use the lotus to make medicine. 73 (recent), some scientists are testing how lotus seeds can help rebuild bones.
What makes the lotus stand out is its ability 74 (stay) clean. Although it grows in muddy (泥泞的) water, the lotus flowers and leaves always stay clean. For this reason, the lotus 75 (stand) for purity (纯洁) and beauty in Chinese culture. It reminds people to keep their hearts pure and strong, even when life brings them great sufferings.
【答案】
66.plants 67.its 68.but 69.a 70.decorating 71.of 72.useful 73.Recently 74.to stay 75.stands
【解析】本文主要介绍了莲花,包括它的生长特点、外观、用途以及在中国文化中象征纯洁和美丽的寓意。
66.句意:莲花是最令人惊叹的水生植物之一。“one of+the+形容词最高级+可数名词复数”表示“……中最……之一”,“plant”的复数是“plants”。故填plants。
67.句意:它以其大而圆的叶子和美丽的花朵而闻名。此处修饰“large, round leaves”,要用形容词性物主代词,“it”的形容词性物主代词是“its”。故填its。
68.句意:它们不能长得很高,但它们的叶子和花朵可以蔓延在水面上覆盖大片区域。前句“They can’t grow very tall”和后句“their leaves and flowers can spread across the water”是转折关系。故填but。
69.句意:覆盖大片区域。“a large area”表示“一大片区域”,“large”是以辅音音素开头的单词。故填a。
70.句意:这使它们成为装饰湖泊的理想选择。“for”是介词,后接动词时应用动名词形式,“decorate”的动名词是“decorating”。故填decorating。
71.句意:花朵每天需要至少六小时的阳光。“six hours of sunlight”表示“六小时的阳光”,用介词“of”。故填of。
72.句意:除了美丽外,莲花也非常有用。“is”后接形容词作表语,“use”的形容词是“useful”,意为“有用的”。故填useful。
73.句意:最近,一些科学家正在测试莲子如何帮助重建骨骼。此处修饰整个句子,要用副词,“recent”的副词是“recently”,位于句首,首字母要大写。故填Recently。
74.句意:莲花的突出特点是它能保持洁净。“ability to do sth.”表示“做某事的能力”,用动词不定式“to stay”。故填to stay。
75.句意:因此,莲花在中国文化中象征纯洁和美丽。文章时态为一般现在时,主语“the lotus”是第三人称单数,“stand”的第三人称单数是“stands”。故填stands。
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.
A: What did they do last vacation?
B: .
77.
A: Did you eat anything special?
B: Yes, .
78.
A: How was your holiday?
B: .
79.
A: ?
B: OK, Mum. I’ll do it at once.
80.
A: ? The movers are coming.
B: No problem, Dad.
【答案】76.They went hiking last vacation 77.I ate Steamed Pot Chicken 78.It was great 79.Could you please sweep the floor 80.Could you please help move the furniture
【解析】76.根据“What did they do last vacation?”和图片可知,回答需要说明他们上个假期去爬山了;“go hiking”表示“去远足、去爬山”,问句是一般过去时,回答也用一般过去时,go的过去式是went。故填They went hiking last vacation。
77.根据“Did you eat anything special?”和图片可知,回答要表明吃了汽锅鸡;“Steamed Pot Chicken”是“汽锅鸡”,这里用一般过去时描述过去吃过的动作。故填I ate Steamed Pot Chicken。
78.根据“How was your holiday?”和图片可知,回答要表达假期很棒;时态为一般过去时,“great” 表示“很棒的、很好的”。故填It was great。
79.根据“OK, Mum. I’ll do it at once.”和图片可知,此处妈妈让孩子去扫地;“Could you please do sth.”是常用的表示请求的句型,意为“你能做某事吗”,“sweep the floor”是“扫地”。故填Could you please sweep the floor。
80.根据“No problem, Dad.”和图片以及后一句“The movers are coming.”可知,此处是爸爸让孩子帮忙搬家具;“Could you please do sth.”用于请求,“help do sth.”是“帮忙做某事”,“move the furniture”是“搬家具”。故填Could you please help move the furniture。
第二节 作文(满分25分)
假如你校英语角举办了以“What home means to me”为主题的故事分享活动,你打算写一篇短文,讲述发生在你家中的一件事以及你从中得到的感悟,你对家庭的理解以及如何促进家庭和谐幸福。
要求:
1. 内容包含提示信息,可适当发挥;
2. 语句通顺,语法正确,行文连贯,书写工整;
3. 词数100词左右。
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【参考范文】
Last winter I had a bad cold and felt terrible. My parents took turns looking after me day and night. Mom cooked warm soup for me, and Dad helped me with my homework patiently.
Through this experience, I know home is a warm harbor. It gives me love and support when I’m in trouble. To keep our family happy, we should communicate more and care for each other.
Home is not just a house. It’s the place where I feel safe and loved. I’ll cherish my family forever.
【总体分析】
① 题材:本文是一篇记叙文;
② 时态:时态主要为“一般过去时”;
③ 提示:写作要点已给出,考生应注意不要遗漏提示,并适当添加细节,注意字母大小写以及标点符号。
【写作步骤】第一步:用具体事件引入(生病引起身体不适),简单描写氛围;
第二步:从父母的具体做法中提炼文章主题“家对我意味着什么”;
第三步:书写结语,表达对家人的爱。
【亮点词汇】① take turns轮流
② look after照顾
③ in trouble处于困境中
【高分句型】① To keep our family happy, we should communicate more and care for each other.(动词不定式作目的状语)
② It’s the place where I feel safe and loved.(定语从句)
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$听力考试正式开始。I'm going to the town library. I'm going to the town library. Listen to the next question. My ant was busy cooking dinner. Listen to the next question. How's the weather in your city? How's the weather in your city? Listen to the next . question. Where did kate go yesterday? Listen to the next question. He couldn't . stop laughing. Listen to the next question. tony. I think joy is really outgoing. What do you think? Well, Betty is more outgoing and careful than joy. I think he should be our monitor. Tony, I think joy is really outgoing. What do you think? Well, Betty is more outgoing and than joy. I think he should be our monitor or. Listen to the next question. I think anna saying Better than mary, though mary won the competition at last. Yeah, but mary dance Better than anna in the competition. I think anna saying, Better than mary, though mary won the competition at last. Yeah, but mary dency Better than anna in the competition. Listen to the next question. Hello, I have heard that you have already been to china on your holiday. How was the food there? Oh, IT was fantastic. I have tried more pto's u beijing roast duck on some local dishes. They were tasted really good. I really like chinese food. Hello, I have heard that you have already been to china on your holiday. How was the food there? Oh, IT was fantastic. I have tried more P2P u beijing rose stock on some local dishes. They would taste EA really good. I really like chinese food. Listen to the next question. Hi Sally. How was your holiday? Oh, IT is very relaxing. I enjoyed the sunshine on the beach in hamman. How about you, jack? I went to the mountains with my friends. Hi, Sally, how was your . holiday? Oh, IT is very relaxing. I enjoy the sunshine on the beach. Man, how about you, jack? I went to the mountains with my friends. Listen to the next question. Hi, Peter. Can you go skating with me after school? Sorry, I can. I have to do chores. Hi, Peter, can you go skating with me after school? Sorry. I can. I have to do chores. Listen to the next question. Haven't got Sunny days for so long. I wonder when the rain will stop. The weather report says IT will be Sunny this weekend. great. What are you going to do this weekend? I'm going for a picnic with my cousin. What about you? I'm planning to get a part time job. a part time job. Yes, I want to buy a scarf for my father and watch for my mother. Also, I need a hat. A nice plan, but you might be Better to put IT off till this summer vacation. You'll have more time . than good idea. I will haven't . got Sunny days for so long. I wonder when the rain will stop. The weather report says IT will be Sunny this weekend. great. What are you going to do this weekend? I'm going for a picnic with my cousin. What about you? I'm planning to get a part time job. a part time job. Yes, I want to buy a scarf for my father and what's for my mother? Also, I need a hat. A nice plan, but you might be Better to put IT off till this summer vacation. You'll have . more time than good idea. I will. Listen to the next . question. Lily has a birth mark on her face. Besides, he has a greater weight than most children. He was afraid to talk to anyone at school because he thought other students would laugh at her, SHE said alone every day and had no friends. One day, her english teacher, miss Green, notice this. Miss Green told lily that her birth mark made her special. SHE also taught lily how to start a conversation like saying hi with a smile. Lily, listen carefully and try to follow the advice. SHE began to say hello to classroom mates and attend different activities. Slowly, SHE found that people like her kind heart, not just her face. Now lily has successfully made many friends. SHE is satisfied with herself. Lily has a birthmark on her face. Besides, he has a greater weight than most children. SHE was afraid to talk to anyone at school because he thought other students would laugh at her. SHE said alone every day and had no friends one day. Her english teacher is Green. Notice this. Miss Green told lily that her birth mark made her special. SHE also taught lily how to start a conversation like saying hi with a smile. Lily listen carefully and tried to follow the advice. SHE began to say hello to classmates and attend different activities. Slowly, SHE found that people like her kind heart, not just her face. Now lily has successfully made many friends. SHE is satisfied with herself. 听力部分到此结束。
2025-2026学年上学期八年级英语期末模拟检测试题(山东济南专用)
(试卷满分:150分;考试时间:120分钟)
第一部分 听力(共四节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1.A.I will go to the town library.
B.I went to the town library.
C.I never go to the town library.
2.A.My parents were busy cooking dinner.
B.My aunt was busy cooking breakfast.
C.My aunt was busy cooking dinner.
3.A.Do you like the weather in your city?
B.How’s the weather in your city?
C.How about the people in your city?
4.A.What did the brothers do? B.Where did Kate go yesterday? C.How is your holiday going?
5.A.He couldn’t stop laughing. B.Wasn’t she more creative? C.Drinking milk is good for us.
第二节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6.Who should be the monitor according to the man?
A.Betty. B.Joy. C.Tony.
7.What did Anna do better in?
A.Drawing. B.Dancing. C.Singing.
8.What did the girl think of the food in China?
A.It was terrible. B.It was delicious. C.It was too expensive.
9.Where did Jack go during the holiday?
A.To the mountains. B.To the beach. C.To the countryside.
10.Why can’t Peter go skating with the girl?
A.Because he doesn’t like it. B.Because he has to do chores. C.Because he has to do homework.
第三节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11.What’s the weather like now?
A.Sunny. B.Cloudy. C.Rainy.
12.What is the woman going to do?
A.To read some books. B.To go shopping. C.To have a picnic.
13.What does the man want to buy for his mother?
A.A watch. B.A bag. C.A dress.
14.Who does the man buy a hat for?
A.His father. B.Himself. C.The woman.
15.When may the man take a part-time job?
A.This summer vacation. B.This winter vacation. C.This weekend.
第四节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16.How is Lily different from most children in weight?
A.She is lighter. B.She is heavier. C.She has the same weight.
17.What did Lily do at school every day before?
A.Sat alone. B.Played games. C.Studied with friends
18.What did Miss Green say about Lily’s birthmark?
A.It felt like a flower. B.It made her special. C.It needed to be removed (除去).
19.What did Lily start to do after following Miss Green’s advice?
A.Stay at home. B.Say hello to classmates. C.Join clubs to make friends.
20.How does Lily feel about herself now?
A.Sad. B.Angry. C.Satisfied.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
阅读下列短文,从短文后每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Zookeeper for One Day: Caring for Animals
● Site: Smithsonian’s National Zoo
● Time: October 24th,2023 6:30-18:30
● Ticket: 5 yuan per person
This week’s after-school activity is coming! This time we will go into the animal world. Visitors love to see the active animals. However, they may not know the hard work of the zookeepers. So now we invite you to be a zookeeper for one day. Every day, the keepers are busy preparing food, training animals and doing some other work. Let’s take a look at one of our workdays.
● 7:00 a.m.
The first thing we do in the morning is to check on all the animals. We should make sure everyone appears healthy. Our North American beavers (河狸) are active at night. We should give them a quick hello and try not to trouble their rest.
● 10:15 a.m.
Our daily sea lion show begins! Our visitors are always surprised by the cleverness of these animals. Through our shows, they also learn how to help protect sea animals.
● 2:20 p.m.
We train the other animals, including the river otters (河獭) and the ravens (渡鸦). Neither rain nor cold can keep us from our duties. We care for the animals 365 days a year.
● More Information: Call us at 8065-7981during 8:00 a.m.-6:00 p.m.
21.What can visitors do in the animal world?
A.See all kinds of special animals.
B.Enjoy many different local foods.
C.Play with many sea animals face to face.
D.Experience (体验) the hard work of the zookeepers..
22.What are the North American beavers doing when you check on the animals at 7:00a.m?
A.They are eating. B.They are sleeping.
C.They are playing. D.They are drinking.
23.When can we see the sea lion show?
A.At 7:00 a.m. B.At 8:30a.m. C.At 10:15a.m. D.At 2:20p.m.
24.What can you do if you want to get more information about activity?
A.Write a letter. B.Send a email.
C.Visit the website. D.Make a phone call.
25.What can we learn from this passage?
A.Every day, the keepers are busy cleaning the zoo.
B.River otters and ravens are dangerous animals.
C.The first thing we should do in the morning is to feed all the animals.
D.If you want to be a zookeeper, you should learn to train animals.
B
I was reading Malory Towers, a novel that was written by Enid Blyton. It was the last school term for Darrell Rivers, the novel’s main character. The girls were talking about what they were going to do after they left school.
Their conversation led me to think about what it was exactly that I wanted to become when I grew up. I got lost in thought. While some teenagers (青少年) have made a clear plan for themselves, my future looks so misty and uncertain. There are so many alternatives. How can I be sure that I will end up choosing a life that is meaningful?
The story in Malory Towers moved on. Darrell, as the head girl of the boarding school, said to the other girls, “One day, you will leave this school and go out into the world as young women. You should take with you curious minds, kind hearts and a will to help. You should take with you a good understanding of many things and a willingness to take duty, and show yourselves as women to be loved and trusted ... I count as our successes those who learn to be good-hearted and kind, wise and calm, good, sound women the world can lean (依靠) on.”
Yes, no matter what job I end up taking, as long as I have these excellent qualities, I’m sure that I will have a bright future!
26.What was the writer doing according to Paragraph 1?
A.Reading the novel Malory Towers. B.Writing a story about Darrell Rivers.
C.Preparing for the last school term. D.Talking with friends about dreams.
27.What does the underlined word “alternatives” refer to in Paragraph 2?
A.Different choices for the future. B.Different characters in the novel.
C.Different lessons at school. D.Different memories of the past.
28.We can infer (推断) that the author________.
A.has decided what job to take B.was driven to think about her future
C.doesn’t agree with Darrell’s opinion D.doesn’t like the story of Malory Towers
29.What are Darrell’s words mainly about?
A.The Plan for Leaving School. B.The Success at Malory Towers.
C.The Qualities of a Good Woman. D.The Responsibilities of a Head Girl.
30.Which would be the best title for the text?
A.My Favorite Novel: Malory Towers
B.Darrell Rivers, the Head Girl of Malory Towers
C.A Conversation About Future at Malory Towers
D.Finding Encouragement for Future from a Novel
C
If you take a walk in a forest and look up, you’ll notice something amazing: the treetops don’t actually touch each other. Tiny gaps (缺口) appear between them, creating a special phenomenon (现象) called “crown shyness”. This interesting action shows us how trees communicate and live together in the ecosystem.
Trees like redwoods and ginkgo trees use this method to stay healthy and lively. They’re always competing for sunlight and water—the most important things for their survival. By keeping a certain distance from their neighbors, they protect their young shoots and leaves from damage (损坏). This wise action also helps stop harmful insects and diseases from spreading (传播) to other trees, just like we protect ourselves from sickness.
In fact, this behavior plays an important role in the whole forest ecosystem. Healthy trees are home to many creatures like ants and various birds. They store carbon and clean our air, making our environment better for all humans. We should understand how important it is to protect our forests, as they are closely linked with our environment and happiness.
So next time when you see trees standing with space between them, remember they’re teaching us how to be good neighbors in nature. Whether you’re a tree or a human, sharing space wisely and protecting each other brings happiness to everyone in this world.
31.What is “crown shyness”?
A.Trees fighting for sunlight and water. B.Gaps between treetops that do not touch.
C.A kind of insect that lives on trees. D.A method to keep the air clean and fresh.
32.Which human action is similar to the “wise action” of the trees in paragraph 2?
A.Studying hard to get good grades in school.
B.Eating healthy food to become taller and stronger.
C.Not standing too close to a friend who has a cold.
D.Sharing toys with friends to make everyone happy.
33.According to paragraph 3, what will probably happen if healthy trees are damaged?
A.We will live a much happier life. B.Many birds may lose their homes.
C.The air we breathe will be cleaner. D.The planet will be better for all humans.
34.According to the writer, what is the key to being a “good neighbor” for both trees and humans?
A.Staying far away from each other all the time.
B.Being the strongest and getting the best things.
C.Sharing space smartly and looking after each other.
D.Living together and sharing everything with each other.
35.What is the main purpose of this text?
A.To describe what a forest looks like.
B.To teach people how to keep trees healthy.
C.To tell us a lesson we can learn from trees.
D.To compare different kinds of trees and creatures.
D
How many times have you found yourself in conversations with friends, family members or loved ones and discovered that you had completely shut off what they were saying? How much of our attention are we truly giving to the people who are supposed to be important to us?
According to a research by Wright State University, while most people believe they are good listeners who don’t need to improve their listening skills, the average person only listens at about 25 percent efficiency (效率).
So why aren’t we better listeners? As a society, we may be growing more narcissists (自我陶醉者). A 2007 study found a rise in self-centeredness and narcissism among college students. If we, as a culture, are becoming more self-centered, how can we, as individuals (个体), work to become more caring communicators?
We can begin by changing our attitudes toward conversations. As Stephen R. Covey wrote in his book The 7 Habits of Highly Effective People: Powerful Lessons in Personal Change, “Most people do not listen with the intention (意图) to understand but to reply.” A dialogue is a chance to learn, to see things from a new perspective (视角), to open your eyes to new information and possibilities. Yet, too often we communicate as if it’s a debate (辩论). We speak to hear our own voices. In doing so, we can space out when spoken to. We wait, perhaps even patiently or politely, for the other person to finish, so we can say something we feel is of value.
Wilson Mizner said, “A good listener is not only popular everywhere, but after a while, he knows something.” Listening doesn’t just enrich our knowledge on an intellectual (智力的) level; it also enables us to have a more personal, in-depth understanding of our closest friends. Relationships are truly enriched by an equal (平等的) back-and-forth exchange in communication. When these dynamics (动态) become more one-sided, we may lose interest and create distance (疏远) in our friendships, with less trust built and less honesty exchanged.
Maybe we aren’t as good listeners as we believe. Do we focus too much on ourselves-both in positive and negative ways? Do we get distracted by an inner coach, rather than living in the moment and really focusing on what’s being said? Thankfully, we can all improve our listening skills. As we learn to quiet that inner voice in our minds, we can start to open ourselves up to others, becoming better listeners, thinkers, lovers and friends.
36.What is the author’s purpose in showing the social phenomena in Paragraph 1?
A.To show most people are confident about their listening skills.
B.To point out the fact that people have low efficiency in listening.
C.To provide information about how people behave in conversation.
D.To express his worries about people’s shortage of attention when talking.
37.Why does the author cite the research data from the year 2007?
A.To prove college students have become more self-centered and narcissistic over time.
B.To show the belief in people’s listening skills is out dated and needs to be updated.
C.To provide an example of how society’s narcissism affects personal relationships.
D.To support the argument that society is becoming more self-centered and narcissistic.
38.What does the underlined phrase “space out” in Paragraph 4 mean?
A.Stay focused. B.Feel confused. C.Be absent-minded. D.Remain nervous.
39.Which of the following statements would the writer agree with?
A.We should speak to hear our own voices and opinions.
B.People should listen to learn and see things from a new way.
C.Most people listen with the intention to understand, not to reply.
D.A good listener is popular but does not necessarily know everything.
40.What would be the best title for this passage?
A.Why We Should Listen More and Speak Less
B.How We Can Improve Listening Skills Efficiently
C.The Influence of Narcissism on Social Communication
D.The Lower Efficiency of Listening in Modern Society
第二节阅读七选五(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的七个选项中选出最佳选项填入空白处。选项中有两项为多余选项。
People often say “There’s no place better than home.” Homes can look very different around the world. Some live in tall apartments in cities, while others live in wooden houses in villages. 41
For many people, home is more than just a building with rooms. 42 Think about your home-the smell of your favourite food cooking, the sound of family laughter, or even your comfortable bed after a long day.
43 In a nice home, each person has their own jobs. Parents might cook meals while children can help with setting the table or sweeping the floor. Even younger kids can help with chores by cleaning their toys.
A true home is a place where people understand and support each other. For example, when children feel stressed about school, kind parents listen and help them. When parents come home from work and feel tired, children can show their love by making a cup of tea. 44
As an old saying goes, “Home is where the heart is.” 45 That’s because being with family in their own sweet home is the best feeling.
A.It’s a place full of love, joy and warmth.
B.Sharing the housework makes a home sweeter.
C.These little things make family members closer.
D.Wherever they go, people always want to come back home.
E.Some people like living in cities because there are more chances.
F.But no matter the size or style, what makes a house a true home?
G.A lot of new homes are now being built on the edge of the town.
第三部分 语言运用(共三节,满分35分)
第一节 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分、满分5分)
从选项中选择合适的句子,补全对话。
Mark: What do you want to be when you grow up, Greg?
Greg: 46
Mark: Why do you want to be a teacher?
Greg: 47 I want to help others like they did.
Mark: Sounds interesting. 48
Greg: I’ll study education. And travel.
Mark: Travel?
Greg: Yes! Travel can help me find out the problems the kids in poor villages are having.
Mark: 49 When are you going to start?
Greg: 50
Mark: Wow, sounds wonderful. Hope your dream can come true.
Greg: Thank you.
46.A.I want to be an engineer. B.I want to be a teacher.
C.I want to be a scientist. D.I want to be a doctor.
47.A.Because my teachers helped me a lot. B.Because my English teacher is nice.
C.Because I study hard. D.Because I like learning English.
48.A.Where are you going to study? B.Why are you going to do that?
C.Who are you going to be? D.How are you going to do that?
49.A.Not really. B.Thank you.
C.I disagree. D.I see.
50.A.Once a month. B.For three years.
C.Two weeks ago. D.This winter vacation.
第二节完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
请认真阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
Before I started high school, my parents gave me the greatest gift any teenage boy could ask for: a cellphone. I lived on that phone all summer with my face buried (埋) in its screen. I paid no attention to anything else.
Now, you can imagine what a(an) 51 feeling I had when I learned that my dad had planned a family vacation for us. “This year,” my dad said, “we’ll be doing something special. We are going 52 .”
When we arrived at the campsite, I found that my phone no longer had service.
“What’s the matter?” I asked.
My dad said he 53 a place without cell service, and my phone would be useless 54 we returned home. I would be trapped in the forest for a week with no way to 55 the outside world. It made me 56 ! On the first night of the trip, I went to bed 57 I couldn’t sleep. But when I awoke in the morning, something 58 .
Instead of burying 59 in my phone, my eyes were fixed on something else: flowers, birds and other amazing animals. I began to 60 the beauty of nature. My anger turned to peace, finally, excitement. I felt relaxed as I 61 nature. For the 62 time, I thought camping without cell service might not be so bad.
Days passed in a flash with many fun 63 I hiked. I swam. I fished. My dad and I learned 64 to start a fire to cook. Dad told me stories of his life that I had never heard. When the vacation came to an end, I realized I hadn’t thought of my 65 once. What mattered most were the moments I was sharing with just my father and nature. This is exactly the gift I need.
51.A.wonderful B.awful C.exciting D.important
52.A.skiing B.shopping C.camping D.racing
53.A.chose B.served C.visited D.bought
54.A.if B.when C.unless D.after
55.A.discover B.understand C.guide D.connect
56.A.excited B.angry C.interested D.sure
57.A.and B.as C.although D.but
58.A.happened B.changed C.started D.lost
59.A.myself B.yourself C.himself D.herself
60.A.show B.expect C.introduce D.enjoy
61.A.look forward to B.took care of
C.was good at D.got close to
62.A.first B.second C.next D.last
63.A.discussions B.activities C.presents D.trips
64.A.why B.what C.how D.when
65.A.book B.family C.school D.phone
第三节 阅读填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
Do you like the lotus (莲)? The lotus is one of the most amazing water 66 (plant). It’s well-known for 67 (it) large, round leaves and beautiful flowers.
The lotus plants are very strong and can live for a very long time. They can’t grow very tall, 68 their leaves and flowers can spread across the water and cover 69 large area. This makes them perfect for 70 (decorate) lakes.
The lotus flowers are very beautiful. They come in many colours like pink, white, and even yellow. The flowers need at least six hours 71 sunlight each day. Every morning, these lovely flowers open up to greet the sun, and then they slowly close in the afternoon. They can remain fresh and beautiful for several days.
Besides (除了) being beautiful, the lotus is very 72 (use). People can eat some parts of it. They even use lotus leaves to wrap (包裹) food. This gives food a fresh smell. In some places, people also use the lotus to make medicine. 73 (recent), some scientists are testing how lotus seeds can help rebuild bones.
What makes the lotus stand out is its ability 74 (stay) clean. Although it grows in muddy (泥泞的) water, the lotus flowers and leaves always stay clean. For this reason, the lotus 75 (stand) for purity (纯洁) and beauty in Chinese culture. It reminds people to keep their hearts pure and strong, even when life brings them great sufferings.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节情境运用(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据所提供的图片,用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.
A: What did they do last vacation?
B: .
77.
A: Did you eat anything special?
B: Yes, .
78.
A: How was your holiday?
B: .
79.
A: ?
B: OK, Mum. I’ll do it at once.
80.
A: ? The movers are coming.
B: No problem, Dad.
第二节 作文(满分25分)
假如你校英语角举办了以“What home means to me”为主题的故事分享活动,你打算写一篇短文,讲述发生在你家中的一件事以及你从中得到的感悟,你对家庭的理解以及如何促进家庭和谐幸福。
要求:
1. 内容包含提示信息,可适当发挥;
2. 语句通顺,语法正确,行文连贯,书写工整;
3. 词数100词左右。
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