内容正文:
“泽桂未来教共体”2025年11月高二教学质量联测
英语
(本试卷满分150分,考试时间120分钟)
注意事项:
1.答题前,务必将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。
2.答选择题时,必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号。
3.答非选择题时,必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔,将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。
4.所有题目必须在答题卡上作答,在试题卷上答题无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A.£19.15. B.£9.18. C.£9.15.
答案C
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What will the man probably do this afternoon?
A. Take an exam. B. Prepare for a test. C. Have some coffee.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】W: Why don’t we have a coffee and take it easy this afternoon?
M: Aren’t you forgetting that big exam we will have in two days? I want to get well-prepared.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What is the man doing?
A. Walking through a forest.
B. Visiting the woman’s house.
C. Planting flowers in his garden.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】M: There are so many plants in your house.
W: Yeah, I used to be a professional gardener. But my age eventually made it impossible. So now I have my lovely little garden.
M: It’s beautiful. I feel like I’m traveling through a forest.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Fellow workers. C. Family members.
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】M: It’s Friday today, Sophie. What are you going to do this weekend?
W: Tomorrow I’ll attend a lecture on how to speak in public. The day after tomorrow, it is my 18th birthday and I will take some photos. Would you join me?
M: Sure. We can go to the park near our school.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Why is Mr. Brown going to Chicago?
A. To attend college. B. To be with his son. C. To take a business trip.
【答案】B
【解析】
【原文】W: Mr. Brown, I heard you’re going to Chicago. Are you going there for a business trip?
M: No. My son is attending college there. He has no time to come back. I’m going there with my wife so we can stay together as a family.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What are the speakers talking about?
A. A lecture. B. Some countries. C. Traditional customs.
【答案】A
【解析】
【原文】W: Dr. Reed really packed a lot of information in this lecture. I’ve taken so many notes!
M: Yeah, it was a really interesting topic, especially the part about traditional customs in different countries.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. Where will the woman work?
A. In the sports section. B. In the shoe department. C. In the dress department.
7. What is the woman’s main duty?
A. Serve the customers. B. Display the dresses. C. Clean the window.
【答案】6. C 7. A
【解析】
【原文】M: Jessica, I’ll tell you what you’ll do in your job.
W: OK.
M: Since you are interested in fashions, so we’ve decided to put you in the dress department.
W: Oh, that’s great. Is that next to the sports section?
M: No, it’s next to the shoe department. Your main task is to serve the customers.
W: Will I have any other duties?
M: Good question. We do ask you to help do the window dressing and check the supply of goods if others are busy.
W: Oh, I’ll enjoy that.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. What is the man doing?
A. Sharing his dream.
B. Planning an academic project.
C. Introducing his weekend plan.
9. What can the speakers do in the countryside?
A. Watch the stars. B. Have a barbecue. C. Feed some animals.
10. Who will the woman invite?
A. The man’s sister. B. The woman’s cousin. C. The woman’s sister.
【答案】8. C 9. A 10. B
【解析】
【原文】M: Hello, Amanda. What are you going to do this weekend?
W: I don’t have any plans. What about you?
M: I’m going to my grandpa’s farm in the countryside. It will be very interesting. Would you like to join me?
W: I’d love to. Who else is going?
M: My sister.
W: What can we do there?
M: We can play games, enjoy the scenery and cook dinner. The air there is quite fresh and we can observe the stars at night.
W: How far is it from the city?
M: About 15 kilometers. You can invite your cousin, Henry, to come with us.
W: OK. I’ll get in touch with him.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
11. How many people will stay at the hotel?
A. 6. B. 11. C. 12.
12. When will the man check in?
A. In early November. B. In mid-November. C. In late November.
13. What will the man do next?
A. Confirm the checkout date.
B. Ask about the course sessions.
C. Offer his personal information.
【答案】11. C 12. C 13. C
【解析】
【原文】W: Green Mountain Golf Course. How may I help you?
M: Hello, I’d like to make a booking of the hotel and a golf course.
W: When would you like to visit us, sir? I can check if there are available rooms and golfing sessions.
M: We are thinking of any weekend in November. And we’re going to be 6 couples, so we’d prefer 6 double rooms if that’s possible.
W: Hmm, well, you’re in luck, sir. The fourth weekend is quite empty right now. We have several open golf sessions. And it’s rare that we have so many openings at the weekend.
M: Oh, the fourth weekend sounds suitable for us! Could I book two sessions? The one for Saturday and also Sunday morning. We might leave around Sunday afternoon.
W: Well, yes, of course. Now I’ll need some specific details. Well, please tell me your name, address and phone number.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
14. What did the woman think of the film?
A. It was scary. B. It was boring. C. It was exciting.
15. What is the man going to do this evening?
A. Go bowling. B. Watch a film. C. Visit a friend.
16. Where is the modern art museum?
A. Across from the man’s flat.
B. Next to Riverside Bowling.
C. On the north side of the river.
17. When will the man probably leave his flat?
A. At 6:45 p.m.. B. At 7:00 p.m.. C. At 7:15 p.m..
【答案】14. B 15. A 16. B 17. A
【解析】
【原文】M: Have you seen the new horror film that came out last Friday?
W: Yes, I saw it the day it came out.
M: What do you think?
W: I didn’t really enjoy it. The post said it was the scariest film of the decade, but I didn’t find it frightening at all. And I didn’t find it exciting either.
M: That’s a shame. I was going to see it tonight, but I’m having second thoughts now.
W: If you like horror films, then you should probably go and see it. You might have a different opinion.
M: Our opinions on films are usually pretty much the same.
W: Well, if you’re not going to the cinema tonight, do you want to join my friends and me for a game of bowling? We need one more player to make a team of six.
M: Yeah, that sounds like fun. Where are you going?
W: Riverside Bowling. It’s on the south side of the river.
M: Yeah I know where it is. It’s next to the modern art museum.
W: That’s the one. We are meeting there at 7:00 p.m..
M: OK, it’s only a 15-minute walk from my flat. I will see you then.
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
18. Where does the speaker come from?
A. Australia. B. Thailand. C. China.
19. What does the speaker ask her family to do?
A. Learn about sea animals.
B. Recycle as much as possible.
C. Make suggestions for the project.
20. What will the project focus on next year?
A. Cleaning the rivers. B. Cleaning the seaside. C. Making the project international.
【答案】18. C 19. B 20. A
【解析】
【原文】W: This summer I took part in a really interesting project called One-Day Clean-up, whose aim is to make our environment clear. I heard about it from my neighbors who used to take part in it a year ago. I thought it would be fun and persuaded some of my cousins to join me. Most of the people there were teenagers. Over half of the people there were from Australia, Thailand and the USA. But there were also people from China, like me. We had to pick up all the rubbish that we could find on the seaside. It has all made me realize how important it is for everyone to be aware of the environment. So I determined to get my family to recycle as much as possible. It’ll be worth it if we can make our seas safer for all those beautiful sea animals. So, if you’d like to join me in this project next year, the focus will be on clearing rubbish from the rivers.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。
A
Participating in art competitions is essential for students to gain formal recognition and impress college admission officers. Today, we have a list of art competitions on regional, national, and international scales.
EarthX Eco-Art Competition
It invites young artists aged 5-22 to create 2-D or 3-D art that illustrates the theme: Protectors for the Planet. The theme can be interpreted in various ways, including individuals taking action towards a more sustainable planet, or highlighting the efforts of environmental leaders working to sustain ecosystems.
Deadline: May 15, 2025
The Children’s Drawing Contest
Sponsored by International Certification Organization Network, the contest, whose theme this year is “Passing on Our Precious Earth to The Future”, invites children aged 7-15 worldwide to draw the kind of natural environment they would like to live in. 48 winners will receive special memorabilia. All entrants will receive a participation prize.
Deadline: March 4, 2025
Science without Borders Challenge
The competition is open to children and young people under the age of 16. We welcome entries from both groups and individuals to create art to promote public awareness of the need to preserve, protect, and restore nature. The theme is “The Sixth Extinction” and you can focus on the protection of endangered species. Acceptable media include paint, pencil, marker, crayon, ink, felt, and oil pastel.
Deadline: March 8, 2025
21. Which competition will provide a participation prize to every entrant?
A. Science without Borders Challenge. B. The Children’s Drawing Contest.
C. EarthX Eco-Art Competition. D. All of the above.
22. On which date can participants send their entries to Science without Borders Challenge?
A. March 4, 2025. B. March 10, 2025. C. May 8, 2025. D. May 15, 2025.
23. What do the three competitions have in common?
A. They all accept 3-D artworks.
B. They are open to the same age group.
C. They require participants to write a poetry.
D. Their themes are related to environmental protection.
【答案】21. B 22. A 23. D
【解析】
【导语】本文为一篇应用文,主要介绍了三个面向青少年举办的国际艺术竞赛,包括EarthX生态艺术竞赛、国际儿童绘画比赛、“无国界科学”挑战赛,分别说明了各比赛的参赛主题、年龄要求、作品形式及截止日期。
【21题详解】
细节理解题。根据The Children’s Drawing Contest部分的“All entrants will receive a participation prize.(所有参赛者都将获得一份参赛奖品)”可知,儿童绘画比赛所有参赛者都将获得参与奖。故选B。
【22题详解】
细节理解题。根据Science without Borders Challenge部分的“Deadline: March 8, 2025”可知,该比赛的截止日期为2025年3月8日。选项A(March 4, 2025)早于截止日期,符合“可以在该日期前提交作品”的要求。故选A。
【23题详解】
推理判断题。三个比赛的theme(主题)分别为:“Protectors for the Planet(地球守护者)”、“Passing on Our Precious Earth to The Future(将我们宝贵的地球传递给未来)”、“The Sixth Extinction(第六次大灭绝)”,均与环境保护主题相关。故选D。
B
My life experience is anything but ordinary. Raised by my hardworking single mother on Australia’s Gold Coast, I was encouraged to pursue higher education. To please her, though my passion was cooking, I enrolled in university while working part-time as a chef. However, my love for the kitchen soon overshadowed my studies, and I dropped out to pursue cooking full-time.
Over the next 12 years, I climbed the ranks as a chef, landing head chef positions in North Queensland. But a trip to Bali became a turning point. I realized I desired something beyond conventional existence. Despite guilt, I walked away from my settled life, returning to my mother’s home on the Gold Coast.
Soon, I fell back into old patterns — working in kitchens and feeling unfulfilled. Then, Instagram changed everything. As an early user, I poured my creativity into the platform, discovering a talent for photography and storytelling. By 2012, my audience grew to 200,000 followers, and tourism boards began reaching out. Recognizing the opportunity, I quit my job to pursue travel photography and social media full-time.
The early days were tough. I created a “solo influencer package”, offering brands social media content, photography and campaign reports. As a pioneer in Australia’s influencer market, my services became highly sought-after. I traveled constantly — 50 trips a year at my peak — while expanding into consulting, public speaking, and project management.
Now, I run a multifaceted business, combining photography, social media, and travel. I co-founded the Travel Bootcamp, teaching others to build careers in the industry, and launched an online photography course for beginners.
My journey has been challenging yet deeply fulfilling. Money is no longer the main driver — instead, I seek meaningful experiences and opportunities to inspire others. What began as a small idea has grown into a life of adventure, creativity, and purpose.
24. What does the underlined word mean in Paragraph 1?
A. Surpassed. B. Quickened. C. Controlled. D. Distracted.
25. Why did the author quit his/ her job in North Queensland?
A. The author wanted to make a trip to Bali.
B. The author didn’t enjoy working in the kitchen.
C. The author preferred to live a conventional life.
D. The author was eager to experience more in life.
26. What is the main idea of Paragraph 4?
A. How Instagram has changed the author’s mindset.
B. How the author started a career as a solo influencer.
C. How many followers liked to read the author’s posts.
D. How Internet has benefited millions of online users.
27. What message does the text convey?
A. Big results require big ambitions. B. Bravery never goes out of fashion.
C. Your heart is the birthplace of dreams. D. The future is built on the flow of new ideas.
【答案】24. A 25. D 26. B 27. C
【解析】
【导语】本文为一篇记叙文,讲述了作者从厨师长到创业者的华丽蜕变,告诉我们要勇敢追求梦想,创造精彩生活的人生道理。
【24题详解】
词义猜测题。根据划线词下文“and I dropped out to pursue cooking full-time(我决定辍学,全职投身烹饪事业)”可推测,比起大学的专业课,作者更热爱厨房的工作,作者对厨房的热爱很快就超过了学习,划线词在此处意思为:超过,与surpass意思相近。故选A。
25题详解】
细节理解题。根据文章第二段“Over the next 12 years, I climbed the ranks as a chef, landing head chef positions in North Queensland.(在接下来的12年里,我一步步晋升成为厨师,并在北昆士兰担任了主厨一职)”及“I realized I desired something beyond conventional existence. Despite guilt, I walked away from my settled life, returning to my mother’s home on the Gold Coast.(我意识到自己渴望的是一种超越常规生活的状态。尽管心中充满愧疚,我还是告别了安稳的生活,回到了位于黄金海岸的家中)”可知,虽然作者的生活很稳定,但是作者不满足于当一个厨师长,想要体验更多的生活的不同方面,于是决定辞职。故选D。
【26题详解】
主旨大意题。根据第四段“The early days were tough. I created a “solo influencer package”, offering brands social media content, photography and campaign reports. As a pioneer in Australia’s influencer market, my services became highly sought-after. I traveled constantly — 50 trips a year at my peak — while expanding into consulting, public speaking, and project management.(起初的日子十分艰难。我推出了“单人网红套餐”,为品牌提供社交媒体内容、摄影服务以及活动报告。作为澳大利亚网红市场的先驱,我的服务需求量极大。我经常出差——巅峰时期每年有50次行程——同时还在拓展咨询、演讲和项目管理等业务领域)”可知,本段介绍了作者是如何开启自己作为单人网红的职业生涯的。故选B。
【27题详解】
推理判断题。结合文章最后一段“My journey has been challenging yet deeply fulfilling. Money is no longer the main driver — instead, I seek meaningful experiences and opportunities to inspire others. What began as a small idea has grown into a life of adventure, creativity, and purpose.(我的人生之旅充满挑战,但也意义非凡。金钱已不再是我追求的主要目标,取而代之的是我渴望获得有意义的经历和机会,以激励他人。最初的一个小小想法,如今已发展成为充满冒险、创造力和目标的一段人生旅程)”并结合全文可知,从作者的人生经历可以看出,只有听从内心的召唤,不安于现状,勇于尝试,才能发现自己能做什么,最终实现人生梦想。C选项“你的内心是梦想的发源地”符合本文主旨。故选C。
C
The increasing frequency of rocket launches is crowding the region of space closest to Earth, known as low-Earth orbit (轨道) — a zone that has tens of thousands of pieces of old hardware left over from past decades. Experts warn that the danger posed by all this space junk is rising sharply. In recent years, debris (碎片) has fallen on countries across the globe. Aside from falling to Earth, objects may also smash into each other in orbit, generating even more debris. Scientists also point to the potential danger to air transport, as well as the pollution caused by debris burning up in the atmosphere.
To settle the growing problem, various strategies have been put forward for cleaning up low-Earth orbit. A Japanese company recently presented a model for a kind of “space garbage truck” that it hopes can get back inactive satellites from orbit. A Swiss company working with the European Space Agency is planning similar retrieval missions. Another solution, in the short term at least, is to boost objects to higher orbits, where they pose less of a danger. In 2022, a Chinese mission boosted an inactive BeiDou navigation satellite into a higher and less crowded zone.
A longer-term solution would involve recycling such objects — and some of that recycling can happen in orbit, astrophysicist Jonathan McDowell says. “At some point we’re going to have to move from disposing (处理) of old satellites in the atmosphere to taking them to recycling stations where their parts get reused for new satellites, and we actually do some of the manufacturing in orbit.” Moriba Jah, a space scientist, calls this the “circular space economy”, and the European Space Agency suggests it can be achieved by 2050.
Another seemingly simple idea is to make satellites more durable (耐用的). “The message that I keep trying to deliver to anybody is: We need fewer satellites that can work longer — that is the big engineering challenge now, and I don’t see anyone really taking that up.” says astronomer Samantha Lawler.
28 How does the author present the issue in the first paragraph?
A. By giving examples. B. By quoting an expert.
C. By defining a concept. D. By providing statistics.
29. Why does the author mention the Chinese mission in 2022?
A. To prove the difficulty of space junk cleaning.
B. To criticize the lack of global action on space junk.
C. To introduce a successful case of dealing with space junk.
D. To emphasize the importance of international cooperation.
30. What does the author try to show by mentioning the “circular space economy”?
A. The necessity of recycling reusable parts. B. The importance of manufacturing in orbit.
C. The possibility of circular space economy. D. The difficulty in disposing of old satellites.
31. What is Samantha Lawler’s suggestion about?
A. Potential application of satellites. B. Choice of new launching technology.
C. Possible direction for further cooperation. D. Need to improve the duration of satellites.
【答案】28. A 29. C 30. C 31. D
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍近地轨道太空垃圾日益增多的问题、潜在危害,以及各国提出的短期、长期清理和解决策略。
【28题详解】
推理判断题。根据第一段中的“The increasing frequency of rocket launches is crowding the region of space closest to Earth, known as low-Earth orbit (轨道) —a zone that has tens of thousands of pieces of old hardware left over from past decades. Experts warn that the danger posed by all this space junk is rising sharply. In recent years, debris (碎片) has fallen on countries across the globe. Aside from falling to Earth, objects may also smash into each other in orbit, generating even more debris. Scientists also point to the potential danger to air transport, as well as the pollution caused by debris burning up in the atmosphere. (火箭发射频率的不断增加,正让地球最近的太空区域 —— 即近地轨道变得拥挤不堪。该区域留存着过去几十年间遗留下来的数以万计的废旧航天器部件。专家警告称,这些太空垃圾所带来的危险正急剧上升。近年来,太空碎片已坠落到全球多个国家。除了坠入地球,轨道上的物体还可能相互碰撞,产生更多碎片。科学家还指出,这对航空运输存在潜在危险,同时碎片在大气层中燃烧还会造成污染)”可知,作者通过列举太空碎片坠落、威胁航空运输、造成污染等例子,呈现近地轨道太空垃圾的问题。故选A项。
【29题详解】
推理判断题。根据第二段中的“Another solution, in the short term at least, is to boost objects to higher orbits, where they pose less of a danger. In 2022, a Chinese mission boosted an inactive BeiDou navigation satellite into a higher and less crowded zone(至少在短期内,另一种解决方案是将物体推至更高轨道,以降低其危险性。2022年,中国的一项任务将一颗失效的北斗导航卫星送入了更高、更空旷的区域)”可知,作者提及2022年中国的任务,是为了介绍一个处理太空垃圾的成功案例。故选C项。
【30题详解】
推理判断题。根据第三段中的“Moriba Jah, a space scientist, calls this the “circular space economy”, and the European Space Agency suggests it can be achieved by 2050.(太空科学家莫里巴·贾赫将其称为“循环太空经济”,欧洲航天局表示这一目标可在2050年实现)”可知,作者提及“循环太空经济”是为了说明其实现的可能性。选C项。
【31题详解】
推理判断题。根据最后一段中的“We need fewer satellites that can work longer — that is the big engineering challenge now (我们需要数量更少但使用寿命更长的卫星——这是当前面临的重大工程挑战)”可知,萨曼莎·劳勒的建议是提高卫星的使用时长。故选D项。
D
Scientists in Australia have used Artificial Intelligence (AI) to help them locate a rare bird called the Plains-wanderer. This new information will help scientists protect the birds, which are endangered.
The Plains-wanderer is a small bird that lives in Australia’s grasslands, not just any grasslands. Plains-wanderers are picky. There can’t be too much grass or too little. For this reason, scientists sometimes call them the “Goldilocks” of animals. The birds were once common in eastern Australia. But that’s changed, as grasslands have been turned into farms and cities. The birds’ number has fallen by over 85% in recent decades. Scientists believe there are now only 250 to 1,000 of the birds left in the wild.
To protect these rare birds, scientists first had to learn where they were. So Zoos Victoria, the group behind the recent effort to locate Plains-wanderers, worked with Queensland University of Technology on a plan to locate the birds. Since Plains-wanderers are hard to spot, the team chose to “listen” for the birds instead. Female Plains-wanderers make an unusual “Ooom” call, and this was the key to locating them.
The researchers set up 35 special recording devices called “song meters” in nine different grassy areas where Plains-wanderers could possibly have been. Song meters record all the sounds made in an area over a long period of time. The song meters collected tens of thousands of hours of recordings — far more than humans could analyze. So the researchers fed the recordings to an AI system trained to identify the calls of Plains-wanderers.
The AI system discovered Plains-wanderer calls coming from two of the sites. It’s the first time in over 30 years that the Plains-wanderer has been found west of Melbourne. Mr. Hartnett says the discovery is “huge”.
The new information will help scientists protect the birds. The team plans to work with the land owners to help protect the birds, and the grasslands they depend on. And the researchers are still “listening” — using song meters and AI to locate more of these Goldilocks birds.
32. Why are Plains-wanderers called the “Goldilocks” of animals?
A. They only live in eastern Australia. B. They are very rare and hard to find.
C. They make an unusual “Ooom” call. D. They are particular about grassland density.
33. What was the main challenge for scientists to protect Plains-wanderers at first?
A. Lack of financial support from local farms.
B. Difficulty in finding the birds’ living places.
C. The AI system’s failure to analyze recordings.
D. The loss of all grasslands in western Melbourne.
34. According to the text, how did AI contribute to the project?
A. It recorded the birds’ calls in the wild.
B. It helped collect recordings of the birds’ calls.
C. It distinguished the birds’ calls from other sounds.
D. It designed and placed the song meters in optimal locations.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. The “Goldilocks” Birds Are Endangered.
B. Scientists Use AI to Track Down Endangered Birds.
C. New Song Meters Improve Bird Call Identification.
D. The Loss of Grasslands Threatens Australian Wildlife.
【答案】32. D 33. B 34. C 35. B
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。澳大利亚科学家借助AI,通过录音记录叫声定位一种濒危的草原鸟类,助力保护这种对栖息地挑剔的鸟类。
【32题详解】
细节理解题。根据第二段“Plains-wanderers are picky. There can’t be too much grass or too little. For this reason, scientists sometimes call them the ‘Goldilocks’ of animals.(平原流浪者很挑剔。草不能太多也不能太少。因此,科学家们有时称它们为动物中的‘金发姑娘’)”可知,科学家有时会称这种鸟为动物界的Goldilocks是因为它们很挑剔,草不能太多也不能太少。选项D“对草原密度有严格要求”,对应原文“不能草太多也不能草太少”。故选D项。
【33题详解】
推理判断题。根据第三段“To protect these rare birds, scientists first had to learn where they were. So Zoos Victoria, the group behind the recent effort to locate Plains-wanderers, worked with Queensland University of Technology on a plan to locate the birds. Since Plains-wanderers are hard to spot, the team chose to ‘listen’ for the birds instead.(为了保护这些稀有鸟类,科学家们首先要知道它们在哪里。因此,最近努力寻找平原流浪者的组织维多利亚动物园与昆士兰科技大学合作制定了一项定位鸟类的计划。由于平原流浪者很难被发现,研究小组选择‘倾听’鸟类的声音)”可知,科学家要保护这种鸟最初的核心难题是找到它们所在的位置。故选B项。
【34题详解】
细节理解题。根据第四段“The song meters collected tens of thousands of hours of recordings—far more than humans could analyze. So the researchers fed the recordings to an AI system trained to identify the calls of Plains-wanderers.(歌曲测量仪收集了数万小时的录音,远远超过了人类的分析能力。因此,研究人员将这些录音输入一个经过训练的人工智能系统,该系统可以识别平原流浪者的呼叫)”及第五段“The AI system discovered Plains-wanderer calls coming from two of the sites.(人工智能系统发现了平原流浪者呼叫来自其中两个站点)”可知, AI系统识别出了这种鸟类的叫声,确定了它们所在的位置。故选C项。
【35题详解】
主旨大意题。根据第一段“Scientists in Australia have used Artificial Intelligence (AI) to help them locate a rare bird called the Plains-wanderer. This new information will help scientists protect the birds, which are endangered.(澳大利亚科学家利用人工智能(AI)帮助他们找到了一种名为平原漫游者的稀有鸟类。这一新信息将帮助科学家保护濒临灭绝的鸟类)”以及全文内容可知,本文主要讲述了科学家使用AI追踪到了一种濒危的鸟类,从而可以对它们加以保护。故选B项。
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下列短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余项。
Skateboarding Changes My Life
On my 35th birthday, I gave myself my first skateboard. Most friends and family thought I was crazy, but only I knew why.
Two years ago, I fell 12 meters down a waterfall and broke my pelvis. ___36___. I went from a wheelchair to a walking stick, then to walking a block, and finally miles. Physical activity grew important to me. So why not make it enjoyable? ___37___, but I’ve wanted to learn to skateboard since I was a kid. To me, skating was actually very similar to dancing.
___38___. I even avoided going to the skate park during peak hours to hide from others’ eyes. I had no idea what I was doing and felt awkward when strangers saw me skate or just try to balance. That fear of being judged often stopped me from just getting out there for practice.
One day, my friend Monica and I met members of GRLSWIRL, a skate club. They were so friendly that we wanted to be part of it. The club was amazing: even though everyone was better than me, they helped happily and cheered my progress. ___39___.
During the practice, falling is a part of skating. For me, a big challenge of skating was overcoming my PTSD(创伤后应激障碍). ___40___. Gradually, the more I learned from small falls, the less my PTSD took over. I knew it was OK to drop and get up. Although I started skating for therapy, I never expected it would open up a new world of excitement and possibilities for me.
A. There, I grew more confident
B. For a long time, I tried learning skating alone
C. Most of my time and energy went into dancing
D. Dancing had acted as a comfort of mine for years
E. But the accident made it hard for me to get over it
F. Soon I was able to skate in front of others without fear
G. My journey back to physical health was long and challenging
【答案】36. G 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. E
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。文章讲述了35岁的作者在经历瀑布坠落导致骨盆骨折的意外后,通过学习滑板克服创伤后应激障碍、重拾健康与自信的故事。
【36题详解】
根据上文“I fell 12 meters down a waterfall and broke my pelvis.(我从12米高的瀑布坠落,摔断了骨盆。)”以及下文“I went from a wheelchair to a walking stick, then to walking a block, and finally miles.(我从轮椅到拐杖,再到能走一个街区,最后能走好几英里。)”可知,此处需衔接意外与康复过程,体现康复的不易。G选项“My journey back to physical health was long and challenging.(我恢复身体健康的旅程漫长而艰难。)”既承接了上文的受伤情况,又引出下文逐步康复的细节,符合语境。故选G项。
【37题详解】
根据下文“but I’ve wanted to learn to skateboard since I was a kid. To me, skating was actually very similar to dancing.(但我从小就想学滑板。对我来说,滑板其实和跳舞很相似。)”中的“but”可知,此处需提及与“跳舞”相关的内容,形成转折关系。C选项“Most of my time and energy went into dancing.(我大部分的时间和精力都投入到了跳舞中。)”既引出“跳舞”这一话题,又与下文“想学滑板”的转折逻辑一致,符合语境。故选C项。
【38题详解】
根据下文“I even avoided going to the skate park during peak hours to hide from others’ eyes. I had no idea what I was doing and felt awkward when strangers saw me skate or just try to balance.(我甚至避免在高峰时段去滑板公园,以免被别人看到。我不知道自己在做什么,当陌生人看到我滑板或只是尝试保持平衡时,我感到很尴尬。)”可知,此处需体现作者最初独自学滑板的状态。B选项“For a long time, I tried learning skating alone.(很长一段时间里,我尝试独自学习滑板。)”中的“alone”与下文“躲避他人目光”“陌生人看到时尴尬”等细节呼应,符合语境。故选B项。
【39题详解】
根据上文“The club was amazing: even though everyone was better than me, they helped happily and cheered my progress.(这个俱乐部太棒了:尽管每个人都比我厉害,但他们乐于助人,还为我的进步欢呼。)”可知,此处需说明加入俱乐部后的积极变化。A选项“There, I grew more confident.(在那里,我变得更加自信了。)”中的“There”指代上文的“the club”,“变得自信”承接俱乐部成员的帮助与鼓励,符合语境。故选A项。
【40题详解】
根据上文“For me, a big challenge of skating was overcoming my PTSD.(对我来说,滑板的一个大挑战是克服我的创伤后应激障碍。)”以及下文“Gradually, the more I learned from small falls, the less my PTSD took over.(渐渐地,我从小小的摔倒中学到的越多,创伤后应激障碍对我的影响就越小。)”可知,此处需说明创伤后应激障碍带来的阻碍。E选项“But the accident made it hard for me to get over it.(但那次事故让我很难克服它。)”中的“it”指代上文的“PTSD”,“很难克服”与下文“逐渐减轻影响”形成递进,符合语境。故选E项。
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My family has a special sugar maple tree in our yard. It’s been there for decades, ____41____ us with cool shade in summer and fiery red leaves each fall. My children played under it daily, and I often drank tea beside it. It was like a silent ____42____ of our family.
Three years ago, things began to go ____43____. The leaves started turning yellow too early, and some small branches dried up. A tree expert said a fungus (真菌) , made worse by warm weather, was the ____44____. We tried treatments, but the tree grew ____45____ each month.
Last autumn, we had to make a ____46____: cut it down. It felt heartbreaking, like saying goodbye to an old friend. I didn’t want its wood to go to waste, so I asked a craftsman named Cory to ____47____ something from it. Weeks later, Cory brought a box. Inside were lovely wooden bowls, each with unique lines from the tree’s growth rings. “Every mark here ____48____ tells a story,” he said — of rainy years, dry seasons, and its long life.
Holding the bowls, I ____49____ the tree wasn’t really gone. It had changed form, but its ____50____ stayed with us. My kids now use the bowls for fruit, and when I touch the wood, I ____51____ the happy times under its branches. Sadly, other local trees face similar ____52____.Warm temperatures and new pests harm them. But these bowls give me ____53____: endings can be new starts.
That maple taught me life isn’t just about staying the same — it’s about ____54____, and finding beauty in what ____55____. What once stood tall in our yard may be gone, but its warmth and memories never truly leave.
41. A. helping B. covering C. providing D. mixing
42. A. member B. visitor C. leader D. neighbor
43. A. wild B. wrong C. viral D. bad
44. A. result B. sign C. problem D. reason
45. A. weaker B. taller C. thinner D. greener
46. A. wish B. decision C. rule D. promise
47. A. do B. try C. make D. find
48. A. silently B. loudly C. clearly D. proudly
49. A. forgot B. denied C. doubted D. realized
50. A. duty B. spirit C. courage D. patience
51. A. fear B. recall C. miss D. regret
52. A. changes B. choices C. challenges D. chances
53. A. hope B. pride C. comfort D. fun
54. A. ending B. waiting C. growing D. changing
55. A. seizes B. hides C. improves D. remains
【答案】41. C 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. A 49. D 50. B 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. D
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文。主要讲述了家中数十年的糖枫树因真菌侵害衰败被砍,作者请工匠用其木材制成木碗,木碗承载着回忆与精神,让作者领悟到结束亦是新开始,美好永存。
【41题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:它已经存在了几十年,夏天为我们提供凉爽的树荫,每年秋天为我们提供火红的叶子。A. helping帮助;B. covering覆盖;C. providing提供;D. mixing混合。根据下文“cool shade in summer and fiery red leaves each fall”可知,此处指枫树夏天提供阴凉、秋天长出红叶,“provide sb. with sth.(为某人提供某物)”为固定用法。故选C项。
【42题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:它就像一个沉默的家庭成员。A. member成员;B. visitor访客;C. leader领袖;D. neighbor邻居。根据语境以及上文“My children played under it daily, and I often drank tea beside it.”可知,枫树陪伴家庭数十年,孩子在树下玩耍、“我”在旁喝茶,它就像家庭中“沉默的成员”。故选A项。
【43题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意:三年前,事情开始变糟。A. wild野生的;B. wrong错误的;C. viral病毒性的;D. bad坏的。根据后文“The leaves started turning yellow too early, and some small branches dried up.”提到树叶过早变黄、树枝干枯,说明情况“出了问题”,“go wrong”是固定表达,表示“出故障、出问题”。故选B项。
【44题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:一位树木专家说,一种真菌,在温暖的天气下变得更糟,是原因。A. result结果;B. sign迹象;C. problem问题;D. reason原因。根据上文“A tree expert said a fungus , made worse by warm weather”可知,树木专家指出真菌(温暖天气加剧)是树木出现问题的“原因”。故选D项。
【45题详解】
考查形容词词义辨析。句意:我们尝试了各种治疗方法,但这棵树每个月都变得越来越弱。A. weaker更虚弱;B. taller更高;C. thinner更细;D. greener更绿。根据前文“We tried treatments”提到尝试治疗,但转折词“but”表明情况未好转,树木每月变得“更虚弱”。故选A项。
【46题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:去年秋天,我们不得不做一个决定:把它砍倒。A. wish愿望;B. decision决定;C. rule规则;D. promise承诺。根据下文“cut it down”可知,树木病情无法控制,最终不得不“做决定”砍倒它。故选B项。
【47题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:我不想浪费它的木材,所以我让一个名叫Cory的工匠用它做了一些东西。A. do做;B. try尝试;C. make制作;D. find找到。根据下文“Inside were lovely wooden bowls”可知,“我”不想木材浪费,让工匠用木材“制作”东西,后文提到的木碗印证了这一动作。故选C项。
【48题详解】
考查副词词义辨析。句意:“这里的每一个痕迹都默默地讲述着一个故事,”他说——关于雨季、旱季和它漫长的生命。A. silently沉默地;B. loudly大声地;C. clearly清晰地;D. proudly自豪地。根据前文“It was like a silent ____ of our family.”称枫树是“沉默的家庭成员”,此处木碗上的印记也“无声地”讲述故事,呼应前文“silent”。故选A项。
【49题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:拿着碗,我意识到那棵树并没有真的消失。A. forgot忘记;B. denied否认;C. doubted怀疑;D. realized意识到。根据句意以及下文“the tree wasn’t really gone”可知,握着木碗,“我” 突然“意识到”树木并未真正消失,只是换了形态。故选D项。
【50题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:它改变了形式,但它的精神与我们同在。A. duty职责;B. spirit精神;C. courage勇气;D. patience耐心。根据句意以及下文“stayed with us”可知,树木形态改变,但它陪伴家庭的“精神”(温暖、回忆)仍在。故选B项。
【51题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:我的孩子们现在用碗装水果,当我触摸木材时,我就会回忆起在树枝下的快乐时光。A. fear害怕;B. recall回忆;C. miss想念;D. regret后悔。根据句意以及下文“the happy times under its branches”可知,触摸木材时,“我”会“回忆起”在树枝下的快乐时光。故选B项。
【52题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:可悲的是,其他当地树木也面临着类似的挑战。A. changes变化;B. choices选择;C. challenges挑战;D. chances机会。根据前文“A tree expert said a fungus(真菌), made worse by warm weather, was the ____ .”提到本地其他树木面临类似“挑战”,温暖气候和新害虫伤害它们,与枫树遭遇的真菌问题一致。故选C项。
【53题详解】
考查名词词义辨析。句意:但这些碗给了我希望:结束也可以是新的开始。A. hope希望;B. pride骄傲;C. comfort安慰;D. fun乐趣。根据下文“endings can be new starts”可知,尽管树木面临威胁,但木碗让“我”看到“希望”—— 结束也是新的开始。故选A项。
【54题详解】
考查动名词词义辨析。句意:那棵枫树教会了我,生活不仅仅是保持不变——它是关于改变,并在剩下的东西中发现美。A. ending结束;B. waiting等待;C. growing成长;D. changing改变。根据上文“It had changed form”可知,枫树的经历教会“我”,生活不在于一成不变,而在于“改变”,与前文“changed form”呼应。故选D项。
【55题详解】
考查动词词义辨析。句意:那棵枫树教会了我,生活不仅仅是保持不变——它是关于改变,并在剩下的东西中发现美。A. seizes抓住;B. hides隐藏;C. improves改善;D. remains留存。根据语境以及下文“What once stood tall in our yard may be gone, but its warmth and memories never truly leave.”可知,生活的美好在于“留存下来的事物”(树木的回忆、木碗的温度)。故选D项。
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In the mountain valleys of Fujian Province, China, thousands of large buildings called tulou lie abandoned (遗弃). Once ____56____(use) for defense and collective housing, these buildings are ____57____ important part of the region’s natural heritage, some of them recognized by UNESCO as World Heritage Sites. However, the rural (农村的) communities surrounding these buildings have struggled ____58____(find) new roles and purposes for them.
Going beyond the need for conservation (保护), architect Xu Tiantian set out to reintroduce it into community life. The project suggests the adaptive reuse of abandoned tulou buildings, seeing it ____59____ a pressing social strategy to address both their current state and the needs of rural communities. Rather than keeping the structures only as historical relics, it explores ____60____ they can be reused to serve present-day roles.
By introducing new cultural and public ____61____(function), these structures can transform into community centers and public cultural spaces, ____62____(promote) rural economic and social development.
The process focuses on the collective memory and emotional ____63____(connect) to tulou. Working with local craftsmen and traditional building technologies ____64____(develop) a strong sense of pride within the community. The project also introduces new materials and building methods that work well with the ____65____(origin) styles thus keeping the character of tulou while creating new open spaces for public use.
【答案】56. used
57. an 58. to find
59. as 60. how
61. functions
62. promoting
63. connection
64. develops
65. original
【解析】
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章讲述了福建土楼的现状及其保护与再利用的意义,建筑师通过适应性再利用项目,将废弃的土楼改造成社区中心和公共文化空间,以促进农村经济和社会发展。
【56题详解】
考查非谓语动词。句意:这些建筑最初被用于防御和集体居住,如今已成为该地区自然遗产的重要组成部分,其中一些还被联合国教科文组织列为世界遗产。are为be动词,空处应用非谓语动词,use与these buildings之间是被动关系,用过去分词。故填used。
【57题详解】
考查冠词。句意同上。这里需要不定冠词修饰important part,泛指“一个重要部分”,且important以元音音素开头。故填an。
【58题详解】
考查非谓语动词。句意:然而,这些建筑周边的农村社区却难以为它们找到新的用途和意义。struggle to do sth.意为“努力/挣扎着做某事”。故填to find。
【59题详解】
考查介词。句意:该项目提议对废弃的土楼进行适应性再利用,将其视为解决这些土楼当前状况以及满足农村社区需求的一项紧迫的社会策略。see...as意为“把……看作”,固定短语。故填as。
【60题详解】
考查宾语从句。句意:与其仅仅将这些建筑当作历史遗迹加以保存,不如探索如何让它们重新得到利用,以服务于当下的需求。空处引导宾语从句,从句基础结构完整,表示“如何”,作方式状语,用how引导宾语从句。故填how。
【61题详解】
考查名词。句意:通过引入新的文化及公共功能,这些建筑可以转变为社区中心和公共文化场所,从而促进农村地区的经济和社会发展。这里名词function表示“功能”,是可数名词,用复数作宾语。故填functions。
【62题详解】
考查非谓语动词。句意同上。句中的can transform是谓语,因此空白处应填非谓语动词,空前内容产生后文自然而然的结果,这里用现在分词promoting作状语。故填promoting。
【63题详解】
考查名词。句意:该过程着重于对土楼的集体记忆以及情感联结。根据前面的形容词emotional及介词on可知,空白处需要填名词作宾语。connection意思为:联结,为不可数名词。故填connection。
【64题详解】
考查动词时态。句意:与当地工匠合作并采用传统建筑技术,能够极大地增强社区成员的自豪感。句子描述客观性质,用一般现在时。主语为动名词,谓语动词用第三人称单数形式develops。故填develops。
【65题详解】
考查形容词。句意:该项目还引入了新的建筑材料和建造方法,这些方法与原有的风格相得益彰,从而既保留了土楼的特色,又为公众开辟了新的开放空间供使用。根据空白处前的定冠词the和名词styles可知,空白处修饰名词styles,应用形容词作定语。故填original。
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假如你是李华,你的英国朋友James邀请你参加一个文化交流活动,主题为“最令人钦佩的科学家”。请你准备一篇发言稿,内容包括:
1.简介一位你最钦佩的科学家(经历、成就等);
2.你的感受。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80个左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数);
2.请在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear fellow students,
I’m so glad to be invited to this culture exchange activity and share my speech here.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】参考范文:
Dear fellow students,
I’m so glad to be invited to this culture exchange activity and share my speech here.
When it comes to the scientist I admire the most, there is no doubt that Charles Darwin tops the list. When he was young, Darwin seemed to be a disgrace for leaving school without completing his degree. But in fact, he made his adventure on the Beagle, following what he truly loved. It was in this long journey that he generated the theory of the evolution and finally presented it in his book, On the Origin of Species, which changed ideas about life on Earth forever.
Every time I read his book, I’m deeply touched by his devotion and passion in scientific studies. That’s what a great scientist always shows me and leads me forward.
【解析】
【导语】这是一篇应用文。要求考生准备一篇发言稿,参加英国朋友James邀请参加否认一个主题为“最令人钦佩的科学家”的文化交流活动。
【详解】1.词汇积累
钦佩:admire→esteem
冒险:adventure→venture
最终:finally →eventually
奉献:devotion→dedication
2.句式拓展:
同义句
原句:When it comes to the scientist I admire the most, there is no doubt that Charles Darwin tops the list.
拓展句:When referring to the scientist I esteem most, undoubtedly, Charles Darwin ranks first.
【点睛】【高分句型 1】When it comes to the scientist I admire the most, there is no doubt that Charles Darwin tops the list.(运用了固定句式和that引导的同位语从句)
【高分句型 2】It was in this long journey that he generated the theory of the evolution and finally presented it in his book, On the Origin of Species, which changed ideas about life on Earth forever.(运用了强调句式和which引导的非限制性定语从句)
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面的材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The Real Champion
I loved running more than anything, and to me, success meant nothing but winning every race I joined. My classmates called me “Speedy Tom”, a nickname I showed off like a prize. One autumn day, my school held a sports meet, and I, who had practiced after school for weeks, signed up for nearly all the running events. A big crowd filled the stands, chatting and laughing because everyone knew the running races were the most exciting part of the day. When the 400-meter race started, I dashed forward right away, leaving the other boys far behind. As expected, I crossed the finish line first, and the crowd broke into loud applause. My legs felt tired, but pride rushed through me. I felt like I could win anything.
The 200-meter race came next, and I ran as fast as my legs could carry me. I took first place again, and this time the cheers were even louder. I jumped up and down happily, pumping my fists in the air. I didn’t even look at the other runners who held out their hands for a shake. Winning was all I cared about.
Then it was time for the 100-meter race. Most boys gave up before it started, scared off by my two wins. Only one boy stayed: Sam. Sam was born with poor eyesight, but he loved sports and never said no to a chance to compete. The judge walked over to Sam, told him only he and I would race, and asked if he wanted to quit too. But to everyone’s surprise, he shook his head. “I want to finish the race,” he said firmly. I sniffed(嗤之以鼻), saying to myself, “This is a waste of time. He can barely see and probably won’t even find where the finish line is.”
The starting gun went off, and both Sam and I ran forward. I quickly sped up, leaving him far behind. With just 30 meters left, I was already imagining the crowd’s cheers for my third win. But suddenly, a sharp pain hit my calf. My leg had cramped(抽筋)up.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150个左右;
2.请按如下格式作答。
Paragraph 1
I fell hard to the ground.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2
Arm in arm, we walked towards the finish line.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】参考范文:
I fell hard to the ground. A sharp pain shot through my leg, and I couldn’t help crying out. Sam, who was just a few steps behind, heard my cry and ran towards me at once. Seeing me lying there in agony, he stopped without any hesitation. "Are you okay?" he asked, his face filled with concern. I was shocked. The boy I had looked down on was helping me instead of taking the chance to win. “My leg... it cramps,” I said in a low voice. He then carefully helped me sit up and gently pressed my leg to ease my pain. “Let me help you finish the race,” he said with a warm smile.
Arm in arm, we walked towards the finish line. The crowd fell into silence at first and then broke into loud clapping to cheer us on. Some people even stood up. With each step, I felt a mix of shame and gratitude. Sam, despite his poor eyesight and my earlier rudeness, was helping me with such kindness. When we finally reached the finish line, the entire audience erupted into thunderous applause. At that moment, I realized that true champions aren’t just those who win races, but those who show compassion and sportsmanship.
【解析】
【导语】本文以人物为线索展开,讲述了热爱跑步且一心追求胜利的“我”参加学校运动会多个跑步项目,前两场比赛都轻松夺冠。在 100 米比赛中,只有视力不好的Sam敢与“我”竞争。
【详解】1.段落续写:
①由第一段首句内容“我重重地摔倒在地上。”可知,第一段可描写“我”摔倒后,Sam的反应,他会停下并关心“我”,帮助“我”缓解腿部疼痛,还提出帮助“我”完成比赛。
②由第二段首句内容“我们手挽着手,朝着终点线走去。”可知,第二段可描写观众的反应,以及“我”内心的感受和感悟,意识到真正的冠军的含义。
2.续写线索:“我”摔倒——Sam关心并帮助“我”——提出帮“我”完成比赛——我们携手走向终点——观众鼓掌——“我”感悟到真正冠军的意义
3.词汇激活
行为类
①缓解:ease /relieve
② 帮助:help /assist
③ 意识到:realize /be aware of
情绪类
① 惊讶的:shocked /surprised
② 感激:gratitude/appreciation
【点睛】【高分句型 1】Sam, who was just a few steps behind, heard my cry and ran towards me at once.(运用了who引导的非限制性定语从句)
【高分句型 2】At that moment, I realized that true champions aren’t just those who win races, but those who show compassion and sportsmanship.(运用了that引导的宾语从句,以及who引导的定语从句)
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$高二英语科听力部分,该部分分为第一第二两节。注意回答听力部分时,请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前,你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答题卡上请看听力部分第一节,第一节听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。例如现在你有5秒钟的时间看试卷上的例题。你将听到以下内容。excuse me, can you tell me how much the shirt is? Yes, it's nine fifteen. 你将有。5秒钟的时间将正确答案标在试卷上。衬衫的价格为九磅15便是。所以你选择C项并将其标在试卷上。现在你有5秒钟的时间阅读第一小题的有关内容。Why don't we have a coffee and take IT easy this afternoon. aren't you for getting that big exam we will have in two days. I want to get well prepared. There are so many plants in your house. Yeah. I used to be a professional gardener, but my aid eventually made IT impossible. So now I have my lovely little garden. It's beautiful. I feel like i'm traveling through a forest. It's friday today. Sofie, what are you going to do this weekend? Tomorrow i'll attend lecture on how to speak in public the day after tomorrow. IT is my eighteenth birthday, and I will take some photos. Would you join me? sure. We can go to the park near our school. mr. Brown, I heard you're going to chicago. Are you going there for a business trip? No, my son is attending college there. He has no time to come back. I'm going there with my wife so we can stay together as a family. Doctor read really packed a lot of information in this lecture. I've taken so many notes yeah . IT was a really interesting in topic, especially the part about traditional customs in different countries. 第一节到此结束,第二节听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的ABC3个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间,每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话,回答第六和第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。Jessica, i'll tell you what you'll do . in your job OK. since you are interested in fashion. So we've decided to put you in the dress department. Oh, that's great. Is that next to the sports section? No, it's next to the show department. Your main task is to serve the customers. Will I have any other duties? Good question. We do ask you to help do the window dressing and check the supply of goods . if others are busy. Oh, i'll enjoy that. Jessica. I'll tell you what you'll do . in your job, okay. since you are interested in fashion, so we've decided to put you in the . dress department. Oh, that's great. Is that next to the sports section? No, it's next to the show department. Your main task is to serve the customers. Will I have any other duties? Good question. We do ask you to help do the window dressing and check the supply of goods if others are busy. Oh, i'll enjoy that. 听下面一段对话,回答第八至第13个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Hello, AManda, what are you going to do this weekend? I don't have any plans. What about you? I'm going to my grandpas farm in the countryside. IT will be very interesting. Would you like to join me? I love to. Who else is going? My sister. what can we do there? We can play games, enjoy the scenery and cooked dinner. The elder is quite fresh, and we can observe the . stars at night. How far is that from the city? About fifteen kilometers. You can invite your cousin Henry to come with us. Okay, i'll get in touch with them. Hello. amenda, what are you going to do this weekend? I don't . have any plans. What about you? I'm going to my grandpas farm in the countryside. IT will be very interesting. Would you like to join me? I love to. Who else is going? My sister? What can we do there? We can play games, enjoy the scenery and cook dinner. The elder is quite fresh, and we can observe the . stars at night. How far is that from the city? About fifteen kilometers. You can invite your cousin Henry to come with us. okay? I'll get in touch with them. 听下面一段对话,回答第11至第13 3个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。Green mountain golf course, how may I help you? Hello, i'd like to make a booking of the hotel and a golf course. When would you like to visit us, sir? I can check if there are available rooms and golfing sessions . we are thinking of any weekend in november. And we're going to be six couples, so we'd prefer six double rooms if that's possible. Well, you're in luxor. The fourth weekend is quite empty right now. We have several open golf sessions, and it's rare that we have so many openings at . the weekend of the fourth weekend sounds suitable for us. Could I book two sessions, the one for saturday and also sunday morning? We might leave around sunday afternoon? Well, yes, of course. Now i'll need some specific details. Well, please tell me your name, address and phone number. Green mountain golf course, how may I help you? Hello, i'd like to make a booking of the hotel and a golf course. When would you like to visit us, sir? I can check if there are available rooms and golfing sessions. We are thinking of any weekend in november, and we're going to be six couples, so we'd prefer six double rooms if that's possible. Um well, you're in lux, sir. The fourth weekend is quite empty right now. We have several open golf sessions, and it's rare that we have so many openings at the weekend. Oh, the fourth weekend sounds suitable for us. Could I book two sessions, the one for saturday and also sunday morning? We might leave around sunday afternoon. Well, yes, of course. Now i'll need some specific details. Well, please tell me your name, address and phone number. 听下面一段对话,回答第14至第17 4个小题。现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。Have you seen the new horror film that came out . last friday? Yes, I saw the day that came out. What do you . think I didn't really enjoy IT, the post said. IT was the scariest film of the decade, but I didn't find IT frightening at all, and I didn't find that exciting either. That's a shame. I was going to see you tonight, but i'm having second thoughts. Now. if you like horror films, then you should probably go and see IT. You might have a different opinion. Our opinions on films are usually pretty much the same. Well, if you're not going to the cinema tonight, do you want to join my friends and me for a game of bowling? We need one more player to make . a team of six. Yeah, that sounds like fun. Where are you going? Riverside bowling. It's on the south side of the river. Yeah, I know where IT is. Its next to the modern art museum. That's the one we are meeting there at seven P. M. okay. It's only a fifteen minute walk from my flat. I ll see . you then. Have you seen . the new hall film that came out last friday? Yes, I saw the day I came out. What do you think . I didn't really enjoy IT, the post said. IT was the scariest film of the decade, but I didn't find IT frightening at all. And I didn't find that exciting either. That's a shame. How is going to see IT tonight? But i'm having second thoughts. Now if you like horror films, then you should probably go and see IT. You might have a different opinion. Our opinions on films are usually pretty much the same. Well, if you're not going to the cinema tonight, do you want to join my friends and me for a game of polling? We need one more player to make a team of six. Yeah, that sounds like fun. Where are you going? Riverside bowling. It's on the south side of the river. Yeah, I know where IT is. It's next to the modern art museum. That's the one we are meeting there at seven P. M. okay. It's only a fifteen minute walk from my flat. I will . see you then. 听下面一段独白,回答第18至第23个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。This summer, I took part in a really interesting project called one day cleanup, whose aim is to make our environment clear. I heard about IT from my neighbors who used to take part in. And a year ago, I thought I would be fun and persuaded some of my cousins to join me. Most of the people there were teenagers. Over half of the people there were from australia, thailand and the U. S. A. But there were also people from china like me. We had to pick up all the rubbish that we could find on the sea side. IT has all made me realize how important this is for everyone to be aware of the environment. So I determined to get my family to recycle as much as possible. It'll be worth that if we can make our seas safer for all those beautiful sea animals. So if you'd like to join me in this project next year, the focus will be on clearing rubbish from the rivers. This summer, I took part in a really interesting project called one day cleanup, whose aim is to make our environment clear. I heard about IT from my neighbours who used to take part in. And a year ago I thought I would be fun and persuaded some of my cousins to join me. Most of the people there were teenagers. Over half of the people there were from australia, thailand and the U. S, A, but there were also people from china like me. We had to pick up all the rubbish that we could find on the sea side. IT has all made me realize how important this is for everyone to be aware of the environment. So I determined to get my family to recycle as much as possible. It'll be worth that if we can make our seas safer for all those beautiful sea animals. So if you'd like to join me in this project next year, the focus will be on clearing rubbish from the rivers. 第二节到此结束,现在你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到。答题卡上。听力部分到此结束。
“泽桂未来教共体”2025年11月高二教学质量联测
英语
(本试卷满分150分,考试时间120分钟)
注意事项:
1.答题前,务必将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。
2.答选择题时,必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号。
3.答非选择题时,必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔,将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。
4.所有题目必须在答题卡上作答,在试题卷上答题无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A.£19.15. B.£9.18. C.£9.15.
答案是C
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What will the man probably do this afternoon?
A. Take an exam. B. Prepare for a test. C. Have some coffee.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What is the man doing?
A. Walking through a forest.
B. Visiting the woman’s house.
C. Planting flowers in his garden.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Classmates. B. Fellow workers. C. Family members.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Why is Mr. Brown going to Chicago?
A. To attend college. B. To be with his son. C. To take a business trip.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
What are the speakers talking about?
A. A lecture. B. Some countries. C. Traditional customs.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
6. Where will the woman work?
A. In the sports section. B. In the shoe department. C. In the dress department.
7. What is the woman’s main duty?
A. Serve the customers. B. Display the dresses. C. Clean the window.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. What is the man doing?
A. Sharing his dream.
B. Planning an academic project.
C. Introducing his weekend plan.
9. What can the speakers do in the countryside?
A. Watch the stars. B. Have a barbecue. C. Feed some animals.
10. Who will the woman invite?
A. The man’s sister. B. The woman’s cousin. C. The woman’s sister.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
11. How many people will stay at the hotel?
A. 6. B. 11. C. 12.
12. When will the man check in?
A. In early November. B. In mid-November. C. In late November.
13. What will the man do next?
A. Confirm the checkout date.
B. Ask about the course sessions.
C. Offer his personal information.
听下面一段对话,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
14. What did the woman think of the film?
A. It was scary. B. It was boring. C. It was exciting.
15. What is the man going to do this evening?
A. Go bowling. B. Watch a film. C. Visit a friend.
16 Where is the modern art museum?
A. Across from the man’s flat.
B. Next to Riverside Bowling.
C. On the north side of the river.
17. When will the man probably leave his flat?
A. At 6:45 p.m.. B. At 7:00 p.m.. C. At 7:15 p.m..
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
18. Where does the speaker come from?
A. Australia. B. Thailand. C. China.
19. What does the speaker ask her family to do?
A. Learn about sea animals.
B. Recycle as much as possible.
C. Make suggestions for the project.
20. What will the project focus on next year?
A. Cleaning the rivers. B. Cleaning the seaside. C. Making the project international.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。
A
Participating in art competitions is essential for students to gain formal recognition and impress college admission officers. Today, we have a list of art competitions on regional, national, and international scales.
EarthX Eco-Art Competition
It invites young artists aged 5-22 to create 2-D or 3-D art that illustrates the theme: Protectors for the Planet. The theme can be interpreted in various ways, including individuals taking action towards a more sustainable planet, or highlighting the efforts of environmental leaders working to sustain ecosystems.
Deadline: May 15, 2025
The Children’s Drawing Contest
Sponsored by International Certification Organization Network the contest, whose theme this year is “Passing on Our Precious Earth to The Future”, invites children aged 7-15 worldwide to draw the kind of natural environment they would like to live in. 48 winners will receive special memorabilia. All entrants will receive a participation prize.
Deadline: March 4, 2025
Science without Borders Challenge
The competition is open to children and young people under the age of 16. We welcome entries from both groups and individuals to create art to promote public awareness of the need to preserve, protect, and restore nature. The theme is “The Sixth Extinction” and you can focus on the protection of endangered species. Acceptable media include paint, pencil, marker, crayon, ink, felt, and oil pastel.
Deadline: March 8, 2025
21. Which competition will provide a participation prize to every entrant?
A. Science without Borders Challenge. B. The Children’s Drawing Contest.
C. EarthX Eco-Art Competition. D. All of the above.
22. On which date can participants send their entries to Science without Borders Challenge?
A. March 4, 2025. B. March 10, 2025. C. May 8, 2025. D. May 15, 2025.
23 What do the three competitions have in common?
A. They all accept 3-D artworks.
B. They are open to the same age group.
C. They require participants to write a poetry.
D. Their themes are related to environmental protection.
B
My life experience is anything but ordinary. Raised by my hardworking single mother on Australia’s Gold Coast, I was encouraged to pursue higher education. To please her, though my passion was cooking, I enrolled in university while working part-time as a chef. However, my love for the kitchen soon overshadowed my studies, and I dropped out to pursue cooking full-time.
Over the next 12 years, I climbed the ranks as a chef, landing head chef positions in North Queensland. But a trip to Bali became a turning point. I realized I desired something beyond conventional existence. Despite guilt, I walked away from my settled life, returning to my mother’s home on the Gold Coast.
Soon, I fell back into old patterns — working in kitchens and feeling unfulfilled. Then, Instagram changed everything. As an early user, I poured my creativity into the platform, discovering a talent for photography and storytelling. By 2012, my audience grew to 200,000 followers, and tourism boards began reaching out. Recognizing the opportunity, I quit my job to pursue travel photography and social media full-time.
The early days were tough. I created a “solo influencer package”, offering brands social media content, photography and campaign reports. As a pioneer in Australia’s influencer market, my services became highly sought-after. I traveled constantly — 50 trips a year at my peak — while expanding into consulting, public speaking, and project management.
Now, I run a multifaceted business, combining photography, social media, and travel. I co-founded the Travel Bootcamp, teaching others to build careers in the industry, and launched an online photography course for beginners.
My journey has been challenging yet deeply fulfilling. Money is no longer the main driver — instead, I seek meaningful experiences and opportunities to inspire others. What began as a small idea has grown into a life of adventure, creativity, and purpose.
24. What does the underlined word mean in Paragraph 1?
A. Surpassed. B. Quickened. C. Controlled. D. Distracted.
25. Why did the author quit his/ her job in North Queensland?
A. The author wanted to make a trip to Bali.
B The author didn’t enjoy working in the kitchen.
C. The author preferred to live a conventional life.
D. The author was eager to experience more in life.
26. What is the main idea of Paragraph 4?
A. How Instagram has changed the author’s mindset.
B. How the author started a career as a solo influencer.
C. How many followers liked to read the author’s posts.
D. How Internet has benefited millions of online users.
27. What message does the text convey?
A. Big results require big ambitions. B. Bravery never goes out of fashion.
C. Your heart is the birthplace of dreams. D. The future is built on the flow of new ideas.
C
The increasing frequency of rocket launches is crowding the region of space closest to Earth, known as low-Earth orbit (轨道) — a zone that has tens of thousands of pieces of old hardware left over from past decades. Experts warn that the danger posed by all this space junk is rising sharply. In recent years, debris (碎片) has fallen on countries across the globe. Aside from falling to Earth, objects may also smash into each other in orbit, generating even more debris. Scientists also point to the potential danger to air transport, as well as the pollution caused by debris burning up in the atmosphere.
To settle the growing problem various strategies have been put forward for cleaning up low-Earth orbit. A Japanese company recently presented a model for a kind of “space garbage truck” that it hopes can get back inactive satellites from orbit. A Swiss company working with the European Space Agency is planning similar retrieval missions. Another solution, in the short term at least, is to boost objects to higher orbits, where they pose less of a danger. In 2022, a Chinese mission boosted an inactive BeiDou navigation satellite into a higher and less crowded zone.
A longer-term solution would involve recycling such objects — and some of that recycling can happen in orbit, astrophysicist Jonathan McDowell says. “At some point we’re going to have to move from disposing (处理) of old satellites in the atmosphere to taking them to recycling stations where their parts get reused for new satellites, and we actually do some of the manufacturing in orbit.” Moriba Jah, a space scientist, calls this the “circular space economy”, and the European Space Agency suggests it can be achieved by 2050.
Another seemingly simple idea is to make satellites more durable (耐用的). “The message that I keep trying to deliver to anybody is: We need fewer satellites that can work longer — that is the big engineering challenge now, and I don’t see anyone really taking that up.” says astronomer Samantha Lawler.
28. How does the author present the issue in the first paragraph?
A. By giving examples. B. By quoting an expert.
C. By defining a concept. D. By providing statistics.
29. Why does the author mention the Chinese mission in 2022?
A. To prove the difficulty of space junk cleaning.
B. To criticize the lack of global action on space junk.
C. To introduce a successful case of dealing with space junk.
D. To emphasize the importance of international cooperation.
30. What does the author try to show by mentioning the “circular space economy”?
A. The necessity of recycling reusable parts. B. The importance of manufacturing in orbit.
C. The possibility of circular space economy. D. The difficulty in disposing of old satellites.
31. What is Samantha Lawler’s suggestion about?
A. Potential application of satellites. B. Choice of new launching technology.
C. Possible direction for further cooperation. D. Need to improve the duration of satellites.
D
Scientists in Australia have used Artificial Intelligence (AI) to help them locate a rare bird called the Plains-wanderer. This new information will help scientists protect the birds, which are endangered.
The Plains-wanderer is a small bird that lives in Australia’s grasslands, not just any grasslands. Plains-wanderers are picky. There can’t be too much grass or too little. For this reason, scientists sometimes call them the “Goldilocks” of animals. The birds were once common in eastern Australia. But that’s changed, as grasslands have been turned into farms and cities. The birds’ number has fallen by over 85% in recent decades. Scientists believe there are now only 250 to 1,000 of the birds left in the wild.
To protect these rare birds, scientists first had to learn where they were. So Zoos Victoria, the group behind the recent effort to locate Plains-wanderers, worked with Queensland University of Technology on a plan to locate the birds. Since Plains-wanderers are hard to spot, the team chose to “listen” for the birds instead. Female Plains-wanderers make an unusual “Ooom” call, and this was the key to locating them.
The researchers set up 35 special recording devices called “song meters” in nine different grassy areas where Plains-wanderers could possibly have been. Song meters record all the sounds made in an area over a long period of time. The song meters collected tens of thousands of hours of recordings — far more than humans could analyze. So the researchers fed the recordings to an AI system trained to identify the calls of Plains-wanderers.
The AI system discovered Plains-wanderer calls coming from two of the sites. It’s the first time in over 30 years that the Plains-wanderer has been found west of Melbourne. Mr. Hartnett says the discovery is “huge”.
The new information will help scientists protect the birds. The team plans to work with the land owners to help protect the birds, and the grasslands they depend on. And the researchers are still “listening” — using song meters and AI to locate more of these Goldilocks birds.
32. Why are Plains-wanderers called the “Goldilocks” of animals?
A. They only live in eastern Australia. B. They are very rare and hard to find.
C. They make an unusual “Ooom” call. D. They are particular about grassland density.
33. What was the main challenge for scientists to protect Plains-wanderers at first?
A. Lack of financial support from local farms.
B. Difficulty in finding the birds’ living places.
C. The AI system’s failure to analyze recordings.
D. The loss of all grasslands in western Melbourne.
34. According to the text, how did AI contribute to the project?
A. It recorded the birds’ calls in the wild.
B. It helped collect recordings of the birds’ calls.
C. It distinguished the birds’ calls from other sounds.
D. It designed and placed the song meters in optimal locations.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. The “Goldilocks” Birds Are Endangered.
B. Scientists Use AI to Track Down Endangered Birds.
C. New Song Meters Improve Bird Call Identification.
D. The Loss of Grasslands Threatens Australian Wildlife.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下列短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余项。
Skateboarding Changes My Life
On my 35th birthday, I gave myself my first skateboard. Most friends and family thought I was crazy, but only I knew why.
Two years ago, I fell 12 meters down a waterfall and broke my pelvis. ___36___. I went from a wheelchair to a walking stick, then to walking a block, and finally miles. Physical activity grew important to me. So why not make it enjoyable? ___37___, but I’ve wanted to learn to skateboard since I was a kid. To me, skating was actually very similar to dancing.
___38___. I even avoided going to the skate park during peak hours to hide from others’ eyes. I had no idea what I was doing and felt awkward when strangers saw me skate or just try to balance. That fear of being judged often stopped me from just getting out there for practice.
One day, my friend Monica and I met members of GRLSWIRL, a skate club. They were so friendly that we wanted to be part of it. The club was amazing: even though everyone was better than me, they helped happily and cheered my progress. ___39___.
During the practice, falling is a part of skating. For me, a big challenge of skating was overcoming my PTSD(创伤后应激障碍). ___40___. Gradually, the more I learned from small falls, the less my PTSD took over. I knew it was OK to drop and get up. Although I started skating for therapy, I never expected it would open up a new world of excitement and possibilities for me.
A. There, I grew more confident
B. For a long time, I tried learning skating alone
C. Most of my time and energy went into dancing
D. Dancing had acted as a comfort of mine for years
E. But the accident made it hard for me to get over it
F. Soon I was able to skate in front of others without fear
G. My journey back to physical health was long and challenging
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My family has a special sugar maple tree in our yard. It’s been there for decades, ____41____ us with cool shade in summer and fiery red leaves each fall. My children played under it daily, and I often drank tea beside it. It was like a silent ____42____ of our family.
Three years ago, things began to go ____43____. The leaves started turning yellow too early, and some small branches dried up. A tree expert said a fungus (真菌) , made worse by warm weather, was the ____44____. We tried treatments, but the tree grew ____45____ each month.
Last autumn, we had to make a ____46____: cut it down. It felt heartbreaking, like saying goodbye to an old friend. I didn’t want its wood to go to waste, so I asked a craftsman named Cory to ____47____ something from it. Weeks later, Cory brought a box. Inside were lovely wooden bowls, each with unique lines from the tree’s growth rings. “Every mark here ____48____ tells a story,” he said — of rainy years, dry seasons, and its long life.
Holding the bowls, I ____49____ the tree wasn’t really gone. It had changed form, but its ____50____ stayed with us. My kids now use the bowls for fruit, and when I touch the wood, I ____51____ the happy times under its branches. Sadly, other local trees face similar ____52____.Warm temperatures and new pests harm them. But these bowls give me ____53____: endings can be new starts.
That maple taught me life isn’t just about staying the same — it’s about ____54____, and finding beauty in what ____55____. What once stood tall in our yard may be gone, but its warmth and memories never truly leave.
41. A. helping B. covering C. providing D. mixing
42. A. member B. visitor C. leader D. neighbor
43. A. wild B. wrong C. viral D. bad
44. A. result B. sign C. problem D. reason
45. A. weaker B. taller C. thinner D. greener
46. A. wish B. decision C. rule D. promise
47. A. do B. try C. make D. find
48. A. silently B. loudly C. clearly D. proudly
49. A. forgot B. denied C. doubted D. realized
50. A. duty B. spirit C. courage D. patience
51. A. fear B. recall C. miss D. regret
52. A. changes B. choices C. challenges D. chances
53. A. hope B. pride C. comfort D. fun
54. A. ending B. waiting C. growing D. changing
55. A. seizes B. hides C. improves D. remains
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In the mountain valleys of Fujian Province, China, thousands of large buildings called tulou lie abandoned (遗弃). Once ____56____(use) for defense and collective housing, these buildings are ____57____ important part of the region’s natural heritage, some of them recognized by UNESCO as World Heritage Sites. However, the rural (农村的) communities surrounding these buildings have struggled ____58____(find) new roles and purposes for them.
Going beyond the need for conservation (保护), architect Xu Tiantian set out to reintroduce it into community life. The project suggests the adaptive reuse of abandoned tulou buildings, seeing it ____59____ a pressing social strategy to address both their current state and the needs of rural communities. Rather than keeping the structures only as historical relics, it explores ____60____ they can be reused to serve present-day roles.
By introducing new cultural and public ____61____(function), these structures can transform into community centers and public cultural spaces, ____62____(promote) rural economic and social development.
The process focuses on the collective memory and emotional ____63____(connect) to tulou. Working with local craftsmen and traditional building technologies ____64____(develop) a strong sense of pride within the community. The project also introduces new materials and building methods that work well with the ____65____(origin) styles thus keeping the character of tulou while creating new open spaces for public use.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假如你是李华,你的英国朋友James邀请你参加一个文化交流活动,主题为“最令人钦佩的科学家”。请你准备一篇发言稿,内容包括:
1.简介一位你最钦佩的科学家(经历、成就等);
2.你的感受。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80个左右(开头已给出,不计入总词数);
2.请在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear fellow students,
I’m so glad to be invited to this culture exchange activity and share my speech here.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面的材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The Real Champion
I loved running more than anything, and to me, success meant nothing but winning every race I joined. My classmates called me “Speedy Tom”, a nickname I showed off like a prize. One autumn day, my school held a sports meet, and I, who had practiced after school for weeks, signed up for nearly all the running events. A big crowd filled the stands, chatting and laughing because everyone knew the running races were the most exciting part of the day. When the 400-meter race started, I dashed forward right away, leaving the other boys far behind. As expected, I crossed the finish line first, and the crowd broke into loud applause. My legs felt tired, but pride rushed through me. I felt like I could win anything.
The 200-meter race came next, and I ran as fast as my legs could carry me. I took first place again, and this time the cheers were even louder. I jumped up and down happily, pumping my fists in the air. I didn’t even look at the other runners who held out their hands for a shake. Winning was all I cared about.
Then it was time for the 100-meter race. Most boys gave up before it started, scared off by my two wins. Only one boy stayed: Sam. Sam was born with poor eyesight, but he loved sports and never said no to a chance to compete. The judge walked over to Sam, told him only he and I would race, and asked if he wanted to quit too. But to everyone’s surprise, he shook his head. “I want to finish the race,” he said firmly. I sniffed(嗤之以鼻), saying to myself, “This is a waste of time. He can barely see and probably won’t even find where the finish line is.”
The starting gun went off, and both Sam and I ran forward. I quickly sped up, leaving him far behind. With just 30 meters left, I was already imagining the crowd’s cheers for my third win. But suddenly, a sharp pain hit my calf. My leg had cramped(抽筋)up.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150个左右;
2.请按如下格式作答。
Paragraph 1
I fell hard to the ground.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2
Arm in arm, we walked towards the finish line.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
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