学易金卷：七年级英语上学期第三次月考 （新教材鲁教版五四学制）

■回▣回 2025-2026学年七年级上学期第三次月考卷（新教材鲁教五四学制) 七、书面表达(35分) 第一节情境运用(10分) 英语答题卡 6 学校 班级 姓名 座位号 [o]Lo]Co]to][o][o][o][o]to] 1答思前，考生先将自己的姓名，准考证号填写清处。并填涂相空图 1 C1][1] 填 王镜填说 考号信点。 注 2.选择惠心溪使用2纽铅笔填除：解常遇必第使用黑色的签字笔书写， 79 错误填褐 事项不？用智笔发味笔作解答遇：字体工教、笔连请楚。 #多% 3请按提想号制序在各是目的答燃区内作答，冠由容墨区城书写 的答遇无效：在纸。试理卷上答遇无效。 D8] t9][9[9][9 [9j 80 生保持卡面请洁。不愿折叠、不煲弄破。 监考填涂缺考 选择题 第二节作文(25分) 选择题(1-20每小题1.5分，21-45每小题2分，46-65每小题1分。) ⊙ CA][B] 【cJ [A] CA] 123 CA] 白 [D] CA] B [e D LA] te] D 4 [e] [D] CA] te] CA] 1 te] 19 送 [e] [D] [A] [B] [c] [A] [B] 【cJ 今 公 [A] 【BU [c] [D] [A] [B] [c] [D] 21 [A] B Ic] [D] 28 LA] [BJ ID] CB] tc] (D] 36 LA] (B] [ol [A] 353 2334 阳 [A] 24 [A] [e] (D) D LAT B CA] (B] [D 2 [A] B 30 [A] B [AJ c [D] 40 [A] [B] tc] [o] 41 [A] [B] [c] [E] [F] D (cj t [A] [B] te] 51 [B] c [A] [A] CBI e] 47 CA D 贺 国 333 AJ [B] [c] 44 46[A] te] D [E] D 50 CAT [B] ] [D] [A] [B][c] [A] [B] te] [A3 [B] [c 62 [A3 [B] [e] ED] [A][B3 [c] A [B] [c] [D] A 」 [c] 58 CA] [B] Ic] 65 [A][B] [c][D 非选择题 第三节阅读填空(15分) 0 69 71 72 73 75■▣回回 2025-2026学年七年级上学期第三次月考卷（新教材鲁教五四学制） 七、书面表达(35分) 第一节情境运用(10分) 英语答题卡 76, 证 号 学校 班级 名」 座位号 77 【o1I[oj[o1[o)[o1ta]to】【o1 1.答测前，考生先将白已的姓名。准考证号填写清楚，井填涂相应的 2 8 正蹄填海 考号信点 选择四必玩使用组销笔填涂：解答题冬爱使用黑色的答字笔书写， 涂样 注意 事项 不得用的党或围味笔作解管思：字体工整。笔墟清楚。 79. 误填谕 #$写 、情按到愿号颗序在各题目的答墨区线内作荐，都出管墨区城书写 [2] 团园团 的答题无效：在草码低，试圈卷上答题无效 (8) [a3[[B】4[ 80 .保持卡面清洁。不要折叠：不蔓弄破。 监考员填涂块考 C] 选择题 第二节作文(25分) 选择题(1-20每小题1.5分，21-45每小题2分，4665每小题1分，) 1 [B] 67 [A][B] 9 四 fc] [A] [B] 3 TA) B D (B) fe] te] BEE EA) B [A] 多 6 u) [el 14 EA] 19 [e] EA) 【n [A] 么 [c] [] CA] 命 tc] 品 [A] 国 c [D] [A] [B] c [D] 26 [AJ [A] [B] c [D] 36 LAJ B) [e] D [A] ② 谢粮 (B] [e] [D] o J [ LAJ (B) (D) 25 [A] [B] (oj 30 A [B] CAJ 四 [c] D 40 LA] (B][c] [D] [A] [B] fe) [D] ( [F] [G) [A] [w] [e] [D] 51 [A] B] tc] D 42[A1 [B) [D] (E) [A][B][c](D] [A] [B] [D] F] 17 [A) te] [c] [A][B]EC][D] 44 [A] [B] tr) S00 54 [A][B](C][D] 45【A1 [B] [D1 [E] 50 [A] [c [o] A][B][C][D 56 [A] [B te] [D] CA] [B] [c] [D] LA [ tei tD] 62 [A] [B) c] 多 【a1B] te] [D] 9 [A] [B] [D] [A] [A] [B] 【c1 60 [A]tB]te]tD] 65 [A] [B] te] [D 非选择题 第三节阅读填空(15分) 66. 6 69. 71 72 73 75请听下面一段音乐并调试音量。听力测试现在开始。第一节听录音。选出你所听到的句子，每个句子读两遍。One. you have to pack . up your things first. You have to pack . up your things first, too. How was . your summer holiday? How was your summer . holiday? Three, is he exercising at the park? Is he exercising at the park? Fool, that was a beautiful . rain bearing the sky. That was a beautiful rain . back in the sky. Five, peace does not come easily. Peace does not come easily. 第二节。在录音中。你将听到5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案，每段对话听两遍。Six. hi tank, where did . you go on holiday? I . went to mountain. What was IT like? IT was amazing. I saw the guest greeting pine, the sea of clouds and the . sunrise . luck you question, how was the mountain? six? Hi . anf where . did you go on holiday? I went to mountain. What was IT like? IT was amazing. I saw the gas greeting pine, the sea of clouds and the sunrise bluck. you question, how was the mountain? Seven. what's your . favorite story? Ema. the diamond mouse. why do you like the story? IT tells me kindness is . never wasted. Question, what does learn from the lion and the mouse? Seven. what's your . favorite story? Ema. the lion and the mouse. why do you like the story? IT tells me kindness . is never wasted. Question, what does learn from the lion and the mouse? Eight. what are you . doing now? Bin bin. i'm doing my homework. Do you want to watch a film? I'd love to, but i'm going to work on something important. Question can be in when go to the film? Eight, what are you doing now? Bin bin, i'm doing my homework. Do you want to watch a film? I'd love to, but i'm going to work on something important. Question can be when go to the film? Nine, jim. can you help me move . the new sofa to your grandparents room? Grandma joy, reading newspapers by the window. No problem. Mom, can I put some flowers on the table? Good idea. Grandma loves . flowers. Question, who likes reading newspapers? Nine, jim, can you help me move the new sofa to your grandparents room? Grandma joy, reading newspapers by the window. No problem. Mom, can I put some flowers on the table? Good idea. Grandma loves flowers. Question, who likes reading newspapers? Ten, excuse me, did you . hear about the accident yesterday? yes. IT was scary. A cog of banned by itself. Was anyone hurt in the accident? Luckily, the car driver got out of the car as the accident happened. Question, what happened . yesterday? Ten, excuse me. Did you hear about the accident yesterday? yes. IT was scary. A cog of burned by itself. Was anyone hurt in the accident? Luckily, the car driver got out of the car as the accident happened. Question, what happened yesterday? 在录音。中你将。听到。一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前你将有40秒钟的读题时间，听完后你将有40秒钟的答题时间，对话听两遍。Hi, Peter, how was your weekend? Hi anna . IT was great. I visited the science museum and saw something interesting. What about you? I just stayed at home and read books. Did you read anything special? Yes, I read my favorite story books. Would you please share one . story with me? Of course, once a polar time, a fox met a tiger. The tiger wanted to eat the fox, but the clever fox said, I am the king of the forest. Follow me and see how animals fear me. They walked together. Animals saw them and run away. They were scared of the tiger, not the fox. But the fox laughed. See, they are afraid of me. The tiger believed him. I like this story very much. Sometimes a quick mind is more powerful than strength. Hi, Peter, how was your weekend? Hi anna . IT was great. I visited the science museum and saw something interesting. What about you? I just stayed at home and read books. Did you read anything special? Yes, I read my favorite story books. Would you please share one . story with me? Of course, once a polar time, a fox matter tiger, the tiger wanted to eat the fox, but the clever fox said, I am the king of the forest. Follow me and see how animals fear me. They walked together. Animals saw them and run away. They were scared of the tiger, not the fox. But the fox laughed. See, they are afraid of me. The tiger believed him. I like this story very much. Sometimes a quick mind is more powerful than strength. Questions . eleven. how was Peter's weekend? Twelve, what did and I do on the weekend? Thirteen, what was the story about? Fourteen, did the tiger eat fat fox in the end? Fifteen, what can we learn from the story? Questions eleven, how was Peter's weekend? Twelve, what did and I do on the weekend? Thirteen, what was the story about? Fourteen, did the tiger eat fat fox in the end? Fifteen, what can we learn from the story? 第四节在录音中你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题ABC中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前你将有40秒钟的读题时间，听完后你将有40秒钟的答题时间，短文读两遍。Last summer, I went on vacation with my family. We went to a beach town. Ang kova doma. IT was a great place to relax. We stayed in a hotel near the beach. The hotel was clean and comfortable. We could see the sea from our room every morning. We got up ali and went for a walk on the beach. The else fresh, and the scenery was beautiful. During the day, we swam in the sea, played beach volleyball and build sandcastles. We also visited some interesting places like the flower clock and the casino. The flower clock was really amazing. Tea was made, a different kinds of flowers. The casino was very big, and there were a lot of people there. In the evening, we went to the local restaurants. We tried some local food such as important, and they were delicious. After dinner, we often went for a walk along the beach and enjoyed the midnight. We had a wonderful vacation in vena delma. I hope to go there again next year. Last summer, I went on vacation with my family. We went to a beach town. Kova妈IT was a great place to relax。We stayed in a hotel near the beach. The hotel was clean and comfortable. We could see the sea from our room every morning. We got up ali and went for walk on the beach. The els fresh and the scenery was beautiful during the day we swam in the sea, played beach volleyball and build sand castles. We also visited some interesting places like the flower clock and the casino. The flower clock was really amazing. Tea was made of different kinds of flowers. The casino was very big, and there were a lot of people there. In the evening, we went to the local restaurants. We tried some local food, such as in pandas and seafood. They were delicious. After dinner, we often went for a walk along the beach and enjoyed the midnight. We had a wonderful vacation in vena delma. I hope to go there again next year. Question sixteen, where did the writer go on vacation last summer? Seventeen, what did the writer do every morning? Eighteen, what was the flower clock made of? Nineteen, which of the following is true according to the passage? Twenty, what's the best title for this passage question? Sixteen, where did the writer go on vacation last summer? Seventeen, what did the writer do every morning? Eighteen, what was the flower clock made of? Nineteen, which of the following is true according to the passage? Twenty, what's the best title for this passage? ( ………………○……………… 外 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ) ( ………………○……………… 内 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ) ( 此卷只装订 不密封 ) ( ………………○……………… 内 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… ………………○……………… 外 ………………○……………… 装 ………………○……………… 订 ………………○……………… 线 ………………○……………… … 学校： ______________ 姓名： _____________ 班级： _______________ 考号： ______________________ ) 2025-2026学年七年级上学期第三次月考卷（新教材鲁教版五四学制） 英语 （满分150分，考试用时120分钟） 注意事项： 1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3．回答非选择题时，必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或者钢笔将答案写在答题卡相应位置上。写在本试卷上无效。 4. 测试范围：七年级上册Units 1~6（新教材鲁教版五四制）。 5. 难度：0.65。 6．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从句组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. He's watching a film. B. I left my book on the bus. C. You have to pack up your things first. 2. A. What can stories teach you? B. Where did you go on vacation? C. How was your summer holiday? 3. A. Did you eat anything special? B. Would you like to tell me about it? C. Is he exercising at the park? 4. A. What an amazing day! B. How terrible the day is! C. There was a beautiful rainbow in the sky. 5. A. I didn't go anywhere interesting. B. He did nothing special C. Peace does not come easily. 第二节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. How was the Mount Taishan? A. Wonderful. B. Amazing. C. Good. 7. What does Emma learn from The Lion And The Mouse? A. East or west, home is best. B. Kindness is never wasted. C. Enjoy your day, come rain or shine. 8. Can Binbin go to the film? A. Yes, he can. B. No, he can't. C. I don't know. 9.Who likes reading newspapers? A. Jim. B. Jim's mother. C. Jim's grandmother. 10.What happened yesterday? A. A car got burnt. B. A car fell into the river. C. A car hit someone. 第三节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. How was Peter's weekend? A. Terrible. B. Great. C. Busy 12. What did Anna do on the weekend? A. Watched a film. B. Read books. C. Visited her grandma. 13. What was the story about? A. The lions and the mouse. B. The fox and the tiger. C. The fox and the crow. 14. Did the tiger eat the fox in the end? A. Yes. B. No. C. We don't know. 15. What can we learn from the story? A. Don't be fooled by empty praise. B. Sometimes, a quick- mind is more powerful than strength. C. Kindness is never wasted. 第四节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文读两遍。 16. Where did the writer go on vacation last summer? A. To a mountain B. To a beach town. C. To a big city. 17. What did the writer do every morning. A. Went swimming. B. Played beat volleyball. C. Went for a walk on the beach. 18. What was the flower clock made of? A. Wood. B. Stones. C. Flowers. 19. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. The hotel was dirty and uncomfortable. B. The writer didn't like the local food. C. The writer visited the flower clock and the casino. 20. What's the best title for this passage? A. A great beach town. B. My vacation in Vina del Mar. C. Interesting places in Vina del Mar. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Mr and Mrs Smith live in a small house in the city center. Now they want to buy a big one. They search for information of houses online. Here’s the information they get. HOUSES FOR SALE Sweet Home Three-year-old house Dream Home One-year-old house Rooms: Four bedrooms, a living room, a dining room, two bathrooms and a big kitchen. There is a large garden in front of the house. Price: $350,000 Position: 5 km from the city center, and two blocks (街区) from the bus station and the supermarket. Rooms: Three bedrooms, a living room, two bathrooms and a kitchen. Price: $270,000 Position: 10 km from the city center, one block from the bus station, and two blocks from the supermarket. More information: Roger Jones/ (123) 456-7890 Jones@email.com Mrs Smith likes growing flowers, so she likes Sweet Home. However, Mr Smith thinks the house is too big for them to clean. For him, Dream Home is better. It takes him a shorter time to go to the bus station. It’s really hard for them to decide. 21. Sweet Home is ______ than Dream Home. A.older B. smaller C. cheaper D. farther 22. There are ______ rooms in all in Sweet Home. A. seven B. eight C. nine D. ten 23. Mrs Smith likes Sweet Home, because there is/are ______. A. many bedrooms B. a dining room C. two bathrooms D. a big garden 24. Dream Home is closer to ______. A. the garden B. the city center C. the bus station D. the supermarket 25. What can we know from the reading? A. Mrs Smith doesn’t like doing housework. B. There is no dining room in Dream Home. C. The two houses are both Roger Jones’. D. Mr and Mrs Smith decided to buy Sweet Home. B Last week, I went to London with my friend for an art festival by car. We were very happy because we loved art and we also loved taking a trip together. We arrived in London one day before the art festival started. It was sunny and hot in the city, so we wanted to go camping in the hills around London that night. We thought it would be fun to stay in nature and spend time together. But in the hills, the weather changed(变化) quickly. It started raining very hard not long after we put up our tent. And there was a strong wind. We tried our best to keep the rain out of our tent, but we couldn't. In the end, we had to leave and take our things to a hotel. When we got to the hotel, we found that there weren't any rooms for us. Luckily, a nice hotel worker let us sleep in the dining room. We fell asleep quickly because we were so exhausted. The next morning, when we woke up, we were happy that it was sunny again. Our camping trip didn't go very well, but we felt very warm. When we left the hotel, we said thanks to the hotel worker for his great help. 26. Why did the writer go to London last week? A. To go camping. B. To enjoy nature. C. To buy a car. D. To go to an art festival. 27. How was the weather in London when the writer and his friend arrived there? A. Sunny and hot. B. Cloudy and warm. C. Snowy and cold. D. Windy and cold. 28. Where did the writer and his friend sleep at last? A. In their car. B. In their tent. C. In a hotel's dining room. D. In a hotel worker's room. 29. What does the underlined word "exhausted" in Paragraph 4 mean? A.惭愧的 B.筋疲力尽的 C.害羞的 D.害怕的 30. What can we learn from the writer's trip? A. We shouldn't go camping in the hills. B. We should take trips with more than one friend. C. It's nice to spend time with family when you have a trip. D. We should help other people when they have problems. C We just moved into a small apartment. Our old house was beautiful and huge. Our home now? Half the size and crowded. There were still boxes everywhere. The day after the move, while the kids were in school, I dealt with some boxes and hung the family photo on the wall. But it just didn't feel like home. Maybe I could make some chocolate biscuits, just like my grandma used to do whenever I needed cheering up. When I added eggs to my mixer, it suddenly stopped working. "Really?!" I felt like crying. What would my grandma do? During those hard times, she used whatever she had to support her family. I didn't think Grandma would give up easily. She would find another way. So I ran to the remaining boxes. I found Grandma's old white mixer there! I turned the switch（开关）on... nothing. Ugh! The old mixer that was broken beyond（无法）repair was just like my life these days. "Come on! Try again," a small voice said. I turned the switch back on. To my surprise, the mixer started to work slowly! Two hours later, the kids opened the door. "Mmm, cookies! Thank you, Mom," they said, jumping excitedly. For the first time, our new house felt like home. It even smelled like home, just like Grandma's house always did. Maybe this house wasn't as big as our old one. But then again, maybe home wasn't where we lived. It was where we shared the sweet moments and the small miracles（奇迹）of every day, like a broken mixer that came back to life when I needed comfort most. 31. The writer wanted to make chocolate biscuits to ______. A. learn from her grandma B. cheer the family up C. find a way to support the family D. feed the hungry children 32. What might make the writer upset in the beginning? A. The new apartment was small and crowded. B. Her mixer suddenly stopped working. C. Her own life these days was in a mess. D. She missed her grandma very much. 33. Which words can best describe Grandma? A. Gentle and warm-hearted. B. Strong and smart. C. Popular and creative. D. Kind and hard-working. 34. What does the underlined phrase "came back to life" mean in the last paragraph? A. Started working again. B. Returned home suddenly. C. Was saved by others. D. Was taken to the world. 35. What does the writer learn about home in the end? A. Everyone needs a dream home. B. Home is where Mom is. C. Where love is, there is home. D. A house is not a home. D The International Tree Planting Day falls on March 12 every year. But do you know that the tradition of planting trees started a long time ago in China? It rained a lot around the Qingming Festival. People planted trees around this time because trees could grow better with enough rain. Ancient Chinese planted many kinds of trees like mulberry trees（桑树）and fruit trees. Farmers needed mulberry leaves to feed silkworms. They made clothes with silk, sold them to the west of the world and brought back what they needed. Another famous tree-planting lover, Zhuge Liang, planted 800 mulberry trees and left them to his children after his death to support their lives. Deng Feng, a famous doctor in the Three Kingdom Period（三国时期）, saved many people’s lives. He didn’t ask them for money. What he only asked for was to plant apricot trees（杏树）on a hill. As time went by, a forest of apricot trees grew on the hill. That’s why we now show our thanks to a good doctor with the words “the warmth in an apricot forest.” There are many other interesting stories about planting trees. When Tree Planting Day comes next year, will you plant a tree with your wishes on it? 36. When is the International Tree Planting Day? A. On March 11. B. On March 12. C. On March 13. D. On March 14. 37. Ancient Chinese planted trees around the Qingming Festival because ______. A. it was much warmer around that time B. farmers had more free time at that time C. the weather was better for trees to grow D. it was time to remember their dead family 38. The writer wrote Paragraph 2 to tell us that ______. A. people planted trees to help the environment B. people could make mulberry leaves into clothes C. people only planted mulberry trees and fruit trees D. people could get what they needed by planting trees 39. The proper Chinese for the underlined words “the warmth in an apricot forest” is ______. A. 妙手回春 B. 古道热肠 C. 杏林春暖 D. 悬壶济世 40. What is the best title for this passage? A. The Best Time to Plant Trees B. Tree Planting in Ancient China C. Good Reasons for Planting Trees D. An Interesting Story of a Doctor 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Lots of students are too busy doing their homework to help out with housework. So, many parents want to know if they should give their children chores. Well, there's no need to worry. 41._________ First, doing chores helps children learn to be independent. Parents can't stay by their children's side all the time. 42._________And these skills will help them be ready for the day when they go to college or take care of their own houses. 43.___________ When children finish a chore, they will not only take pride in a well-done job but also have confidence in their ability to do things well. Third, doing chores makes it possible for children to develop good relationships with their family, friends and partners. Doing chores together with family can make children more caring for their family. And they begin to learn their responsibility(责任) in a family or a group. 44.___________ They will know that if they work together as a team, things will be completed more quickly and better. 45.___________ Yes! And it should be on the top of the list. Now, my friends, are you ready to help? A. Should children do chores? B. Chores are good for children. C. Children cannot do chores without their parents' help. D. That helps them build team spirit. E. Children need to learn the necessary life skills to be independent. F. Second, doing chores helps children build self-confidence. G. Ding chores is a waste of time. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Lily: Hi, Tom! I heard you went on a school trip last week. 46 Tom: Yes! We visited a big farm. It was really interesting. Lily: Cool! 47 Tom: We did many things. We fed the cows and picked strawberries. Lily: Strawberries? 48 Tom: They were so sweet! And we also rode horses. Lily: Wow, riding horses must be exciting. 49 Tom: My friend Jack. He’s good at riding. Lily: 50 Tom: Sure! We took lots of photos. I’ll show them to you tomorrow. Lily: Great! I can’t wait. 46. A. Did you have fun? B. Do you like sports? C. Are you busy today? D. Will you go again? 47. A. What’s the farm like? B. When did you leave? C. What did you do there? D. Who went with you? 48. A. How were they? B. Where are they? C. What colour are they? D. How many are there? 49. A. What’s his name? B. Who did you ride with? C. Where did you ride? D. How did you ride? 50. A. Did you take photos? B. Can you draw them? C. Do you like photos? D. Are these your photos? 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Do you like making your bed? Do you make your bed by 51.______? Or do you leave it 52.______ your parents to do? Do you do any other 53.______? Every morning during military training(军训), our 54.______ would show up in our room. The 55.______ thing they would look over was our beds—to see if our quilts were square and the beds were 56.______ and tidy. It was 57.______ to do. But every morning the teachers would ask us to 58.______ our beds perfect. It seemed a little 59.______ over time, but the wisdom(智慧) behind this is great. If you make your bed every morning, it 60.______ that you finish the first thing of the day. It will give you a small sense of 61.______ and make you do another thing and another. Making your bed also makes you 62.______ that little things in life are important. If you can't do the little things right, you will 63.______ do the big things right. If you have a bad day by chance, you will come home to a bed that is clean and tidy, 64.______ that gives you happiness. You will 65.______ that tomorrow will be better. If you want to change the world, start off by making your bed. 51. A. myself B. yourself C. himself D. herself 52. A. for B. with C. about D. over 53. A. washing B. dishes C. housework D. homework 54. A. doctors B. nurses C. teachers D. drivers 55. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth 56. A. new B. clean C. small D. big 57. A. difficult B. hard C. easy D. early 58. A. become B. go C. feel D. make 59. A. interesting B. boring C. exciting D. relaxing 60. A. means B. decides C. picks D. finds 61. A. pride B. loss C. shame D. humour 62. A. answer B. wonder C. ask D. understand 63. A. never B. often C. usually D. always 64. A. but B. and C. or D. though 65. A. know B. believe C. say D. wonder 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The taste and smell of a certain food always impress（使留下深刻印象）us. For me, my dear mother is like 66.______ magician in the kitchen. Do you know why I say that? 67.______ she can magically turn tofu and beef into delicious red, hot Mapo tofu. Even simple eggs and green onions can become wonderful pancakes. Just thinking about these makes me feel 68.______ (real) hungry! As if I can see delicious food on the table. But 69.______ all these delicious foods, my first favourite is porridge. I often wake up to the wonderful smell of porridge. The different ingredients（材料）in it make it taste so good. Each kind has its unique taste. 70.______ I fall ill and don't feel well, my kind mother always71.______ ( make) plain rice porridge for me. It might be the simplest food on any Chinese menu. But for me, it's one of the best 72.______ (thing) in the world. It's even better than taking a pill when I'm sick! And the 73.______ (two) one I like best is the noodles with beef and tomatoes. How delicious they smell! Now, I 74.______ (study) far away from home. But the old days still feel so sweet and lovely in 75.______ heart. What kind of food remains strong in your memory? Share it with me! 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A:_____________________________________________? B: Yes， sure。 77. A:Did you go fishing last Sunday? B: No, _________________________________. 78. A:How did Lucy use to go to school? B: _____________________________________________. 79. A:_____________________________ B: It’s raining heavily. 80. A:____________________________ B:Yes, I went to the park with my friend yesterday. 第二节 写作（25分） 某英文报就中学生是否应该做家务进行征文，请根据以下内容提示问题用英文从你做家务的内容、原因及收获等方面来写一篇短文。 内容提示问题： 52. Do you think middle school student should help with housework? 53. What housework do you usually do at home? 54. Why do you think children should do housework? 55. Something more about doing housework. 注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息；词数60—80；标题已给出，不计入总词数。 Should We Help with Housework? As a middle school student, I think____________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试题 第7页（共8页） 试题 第8页（共8页） 试题 第5页（共8页） 试题 第6页（共8页） 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年七年级上学期第三次月考卷（新教材鲁教版五四学制） 英语 （满分150分，考试用时120分钟） 注意事项： 1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3．回答非选择题时，必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或者钢笔将答案写在答题卡相应位置上。写在本试卷上无效。 4. 测试范围：七年级上册Units 1~6（新教材鲁教版五四制）。 5. 难度：0.65。 6．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从句组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. He's watching a film. B. I left my book on the bus. C. You have to pack up your things first. 2. A. What can stories teach you? B. Where did you go on vacation? C. How was your summer holiday? 3. A. Did you eat anything special? B. Would you like to tell me about it? C. Is he exercising at the park? 4. A. What an amazing day! B. How terrible the day is! C. There was a beautiful rainbow in the sky. 5. A. I didn't go anywhere interesting. B. He did nothing special C. Peace does not come easily. 第二节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. How was the Mount Taishan? A. Wonderful. B. Amazing. C. Good. 7. What does Emma learn from The Lion And The Mouse? A. East or west, home is best. B. Kindness is never wasted. C. Enjoy your day, come rain or shine. 8. Can Binbin go to the film? A. Yes, he can. B. No, he can't. C. I don't know. 9.Who likes reading newspapers? A. Jim. B. Jim's mother. C. Jim's grandmother. 10.What happened yesterday? A. A car got burnt. B. A car fell into the river. C. A car hit someone. 第三节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. How was Peter's weekend? A. Terrible. B. Great. C. Busy 12. What did Anna do on the weekend? A. Watched a film. B. Read books. C. Visited her grandma. 13. What was the story about? A. The lions and the mouse. B. The fox and the tiger. C. The fox and the crow. 14. Did the tiger eat the fox in the end? A. Yes. B. No. C. We don't know. 15. What can we learn from the story? A. Don't be fooled by empty praise. B. Sometimes, a quick- mind is more powerful than strength. C. Kindness is never wasted. 第四节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文读两遍。 16. Where did the writer go on vacation last summer? A. To a mountain B. To a beach town. C. To a big city. 17. What did the writer do every morning. A. Went swimming. B. Played beat volleyball. C. Went for a walk on the beach. 18. What was the flower clock made of? A. Wood. B. Stones. C. Flowers. 19. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. The hotel was dirty and uncomfortable. B. The writer didn't like the local food. C. The writer visited the flower clock and the casino. 20. What's the best title for this passage? A. A great beach town. B. My vacation in Vina del Mar. C. Interesting places in Vina del Mar. 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Mr and Mrs Smith live in a small house in the city center. Now they want to buy a big one. They search for information of houses online. Here’s the information they get. HOUSES FOR SALE Sweet Home Three-year-old house Dream Home One-year-old house Rooms: Four bedrooms, a living room, a dining room, two bathrooms and a big kitchen. There is a large garden in front of the house. Price: $350,000 Position: 5 km from the city center, and two blocks (街区) from the bus station and the supermarket. Rooms: Three bedrooms, a living room, two bathrooms and a kitchen. Price: $270,000 Position: 10 km from the city center, one block from the bus station, and two blocks from the supermarket. More information: Roger Jones/ (123) 456-7890 Jones@email.com Mrs Smith likes growing flowers, so she likes Sweet Home. However, Mr Smith thinks the house is too big for them to clean. For him, Dream Home is better. It takes him a shorter time to go to the bus station. It’s really hard for them to decide. 21. Sweet Home is ______ than Dream Home. A.older B. smaller C. cheaper D. farther 22. There are ______ rooms in all in Sweet Home. A. seven B. eight C. nine D. ten 23. Mrs Smith likes Sweet Home, because there is/are ______. A. many bedrooms B. a dining room C. two bathrooms D. a big garden 24. Dream Home is closer to ______. A. the garden B. the city center C. the bus station D. the supermarket 25. What can we know from the reading? A. Mrs Smith doesn’t like doing housework. B. There is no dining room in Dream Home. C. The two houses are both Roger Jones’. D. Mr and Mrs Smith decided to buy Sweet Home. B Last week, I went to London with my friend for an art festival by car. We were very happy because we loved art and we also loved taking a trip together. We arrived in London one day before the art festival started. It was sunny and hot in the city, so we wanted to go camping in the hills around London that night. We thought it would be fun to stay in nature and spend time together. But in the hills, the weather changed(变化) quickly. It started raining very hard not long after we put up our tent. And there was a strong wind. We tried our best to keep the rain out of our tent, but we couldn't. In the end, we had to leave and take our things to a hotel. When we got to the hotel, we found that there weren't any rooms for us. Luckily, a nice hotel worker let us sleep in the dining room. We fell asleep quickly because we were so exhausted. The next morning, when we woke up, we were happy that it was sunny again. Our camping trip didn't go very well, but we felt very warm. When we left the hotel, we said thanks to the hotel worker for his great help. 26. Why did the writer go to London last week? A. To go camping. B. To enjoy nature. C. To buy a car. D. To go to an art festival. 27. How was the weather in London when the writer and his friend arrived there? A. Sunny and hot. B. Cloudy and warm. C. Snowy and cold. D. Windy and cold. 28. Where did the writer and his friend sleep at last? A. In their car. B. In their tent. C. In a hotel's dining room. D. In a hotel worker's room. 29. What does the underlined word "exhausted" in Paragraph 4 mean? A.惭愧的 B.筋疲力尽的 C.害羞的 D.害怕的 30. What can we learn from the writer's trip? A. We shouldn't go camping in the hills. B. We should take trips with more than one friend. C. It's nice to spend time with family when you have a trip. D. We should help other people when they have problems. C We just moved into a small apartment. Our old house was beautiful and huge. Our home now? Half the size and crowded. There were still boxes everywhere. The day after the move, while the kids were in school, I dealt with some boxes and hung the family photo on the wall. But it just didn't feel like home. Maybe I could make some chocolate biscuits, just like my grandma used to do whenever I needed cheering up. When I added eggs to my mixer, it suddenly stopped working. "Really?!" I felt like crying. What would my grandma do? During those hard times, she used whatever she had to support her family. I didn't think Grandma would give up easily. She would find another way. So I ran to the remaining boxes. I found Grandma's old white mixer there! I turned the switch（开关）on... nothing. Ugh! The old mixer that was broken beyond（无法）repair was just like my life these days. "Come on! Try again," a small voice said. I turned the switch back on. To my surprise, the mixer started to work slowly! Two hours later, the kids opened the door. "Mmm, cookies! Thank you, Mom," they said, jumping excitedly. For the first time, our new house felt like home. It even smelled like home, just like Grandma's house always did. Maybe this house wasn't as big as our old one. But then again, maybe home wasn't where we lived. It was where we shared the sweet moments and the small miracles（奇迹）of every day, like a broken mixer that came back to life when I needed comfort most. 31. The writer wanted to make chocolate biscuits to ______. A. learn from her grandma B. cheer the family up C. find a way to support the family D. feed the hungry children 32. What might make the writer upset in the beginning? A. The new apartment was small and crowded. B. Her mixer suddenly stopped working. C. Her own life these days was in a mess. D. She missed her grandma very much. 33. Which words can best describe Grandma? A. Gentle and warm-hearted. B. Strong and smart. C. Popular and creative. D. Kind and hard-working. 34. What does the underlined phrase "came back to life" mean in the last paragraph? A. Started working again. B. Returned home suddenly. C. Was saved by others. D. Was taken to the world. 35. What does the writer learn about home in the end? A. Everyone needs a dream home. B. Home is where Mom is. C. Where love is, there is home. D. A house is not a home. D The International Tree Planting Day falls on March 12 every year. But do you know that the tradition of planting trees started a long time ago in China? It rained a lot around the Qingming Festival. People planted trees around this time because trees could grow better with enough rain. Ancient Chinese planted many kinds of trees like mulberry trees（桑树）and fruit trees. Farmers needed mulberry leaves to feed silkworms. They made clothes with silk, sold them to the west of the world and brought back what they needed. Another famous tree-planting lover, Zhuge Liang, planted 800 mulberry trees and left them to his children after his death to support their lives. Deng Feng, a famous doctor in the Three Kingdom Period（三国时期）, saved many people’s lives. He didn’t ask them for money. What he only asked for was to plant apricot trees（杏树）on a hill. As time went by, a forest of apricot trees grew on the hill. That’s why we now show our thanks to a good doctor with the words “the warmth in an apricot forest.” There are many other interesting stories about planting trees. When Tree Planting Day comes next year, will you plant a tree with your wishes on it? 36. When is the International Tree Planting Day? A. On March 11. B. On March 12. C. On March 13. D. On March 14. 37. Ancient Chinese planted trees around the Qingming Festival because ______. A. it was much warmer around that time B. farmers had more free time at that time C. the weather was better for trees to grow D. it was time to remember their dead family 38. The writer wrote Paragraph 2 to tell us that ______. A. people planted trees to help the environment B. people could make mulberry leaves into clothes C. people only planted mulberry trees and fruit trees D. people could get what they needed by planting trees 39. The proper Chinese for the underlined words “the warmth in an apricot forest” is ______. A. 妙手回春 B. 古道热肠 C. 杏林春暖 D. 悬壶济世 40. What is the best title for this passage? A. The Best Time to Plant Trees B. Tree Planting in Ancient China C. Good Reasons for Planting Trees D. An Interesting Story of a Doctor 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Lots of students are too busy doing their homework to help out with housework. So, many parents want to know if they should give their children chores. Well, there's no need to worry. 41._________ First, doing chores helps children learn to be independent. Parents can't stay by their children's side all the time. 42._________And these skills will help them be ready for the day when they go to college or take care of their own houses. 43.___________ When children finish a chore, they will not only take pride in a well-done job but also have confidence in their ability to do things well. Third, doing chores makes it possible for children to develop good relationships with their family, friends and partners. Doing chores together with family can make children more caring for their family. And they begin to learn their responsibility(责任) in a family or a group. 44.___________ They will know that if they work together as a team, things will be completed more quickly and better. 45.___________ Yes! And it should be on the top of the list. Now, my friends, are you ready to help? A. Should children do chores? B. Chores are good for children. C. Children cannot do chores without their parents' help. D. That helps them build team spirit. E. Children need to learn the necessary life skills to be independent. F. Second, doing chores helps children build self-confidence. G. Ding chores is a waste of time. 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Lily: Hi, Tom! I heard you went on a school trip last week. 46 Tom: Yes! We visited a big farm. It was really interesting. Lily: Cool! 47 Tom: We did many things. We fed the cows and picked strawberries. Lily: Strawberries? 48 Tom: They were so sweet! And we also rode horses. Lily: Wow, riding horses must be exciting. 49 Tom: My friend Jack. He’s good at riding. Lily: 50 Tom: Sure! We took lots of photos. I’ll show them to you tomorrow. Lily: Great! I can’t wait. 46. A. Did you have fun? B. Do you like sports? C. Are you busy today? D. Will you go again? 47. A. What’s the farm like? B. When did you leave? C. What did you do there? D. Who went with you? 48. A. How were they? B. Where are they? C. What colour are they? D. How many are there? 49. A. What’s his name? B. Who did you ride with? C. Where did you ride? D. How did you ride? 50. A. Did you take photos? B. Can you draw them? C. Do you like photos? D. Are these your photos? 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Do you like making your bed? Do you make your bed by 51.______? Or do you leave it 52.______ your parents to do? Do you do any other 53.______? Every morning during military training(军训), our 54.______ would show up in our room. The 55.______ thing they would look over was our beds—to see if our quilts were square and the beds were 56.______ and tidy. It was 57.______ to do. But every morning the teachers would ask us to 58.______ our beds perfect. It seemed a little 59.______ over time, but the wisdom(智慧) behind this is great. If you make your bed every morning, it 60.______ that you finish the first thing of the day. It will give you a small sense of 61.______ and make you do another thing and another. Making your bed also makes you 62.______ that little things in life are important. If you can't do the little things right, you will 63.______ do the big things right. If you have a bad day by chance, you will come home to a bed that is clean and tidy, 64.______ that gives you happiness. You will 65.______ that tomorrow will be better. If you want to change the world, start off by making your bed. 51. A. myself B. yourself C. himself D. herself 52. A. for B. with C. about D. over 53. A. washing B. dishes C. housework D. homework 54. A. doctors B. nurses C. teachers D. drivers 55. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth 56. A. new B. clean C. small D. big 57. A. difficult B. hard C. easy D. early 58. A. become B. go C. feel D. make 59. A. interesting B. boring C. exciting D. relaxing 60. A. means B. decides C. picks D. finds 61. A. pride B. loss C. shame D. humour 62. A. answer B. wonder C. ask D. understand 63. A. never B. often C. usually D. always 64. A. but B. and C. or D. though 65. A. know B. believe C. say D. wonder 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The taste and smell of a certain food always impress（使留下深刻印象）us. For me, my dear mother is like 66.______ magician in the kitchen. Do you know why I say that? 67.______ she can magically turn tofu and beef into delicious red, hot Mapo tofu. Even simple eggs and green onions can become wonderful pancakes. Just thinking about these makes me feel 68.______ (real) hungry! As if I can see delicious food on the table. But 69.______ all these delicious foods, my first favourite is porridge. I often wake up to the wonderful smell of porridge. The different ingredients（材料）in it make it taste so good. Each kind has its unique taste. 70.______ I fall ill and don't feel well, my kind mother always71.______ ( make) plain rice porridge for me. It might be the simplest food on any Chinese menu. But for me, it's one of the best 72.______ (thing) in the world. It's even better than taking a pill when I'm sick! And the 73.______ (two) one I like best is the noodles with beef and tomatoes. How delicious they smell! Now, I 74.______ (study) far away from home. But the old days still feel so sweet and lovely in 75.______ heart. What kind of food remains strong in your memory? Share it with me! 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A:_____________________________________________? B: Yes， sure。 77. A:Did you go fishing last Sunday? B: No, _________________________________. 78. A:How did Lucy use to go to school? B: _____________________________________________. 79. A:_____________________________ B: It’s raining heavily. 80. A:____________________________ B:Yes, I went to the park with my friend yesterday. 第二节 写作（25分） 某英文报就中学生是否应该做家务进行征文，请根据以下内容提示问题用英文从你做家务的内容、原因及收获等方面来写一篇短文。 内容提示问题： 52. Do you think middle school student should help with housework? 53. What housework do you usually do at home? 54. Why do you think children should do housework? 55. Something more about doing housework. 注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息；词数60—80；标题已给出，不计入总词数。 Should We Help with Housework? As a middle school student, I think____________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 试卷第6页，共7页 ( 1 / 6 ) 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年七年级上学期第三次月考卷（新教材鲁教版五四学制） 英语·参考答案 （满分150分，考试用时120分钟） 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 1. C 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 第二节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A 第三节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. B 第四节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 21. A 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. B 26．D 27．A 28．C 29．B 30．D 31．B 32．A 33．B 34．A 35．C 36．B 37．C 38．D 39．C 40．B 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 41．B 42．E 43．F 44．D 45．A 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1分，满分5分） 46．A 47．C 48．A 49．B 50．A 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分） 51．B 52．A 53．C 54．C 55．A 56．B 57．C 58．D 59．B 60．A 61．A 62．D 63．A 64．B 65．B 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分） 66．a 67．Because 68．really 69．among 70．When 71．makes 72．things 73．second 74．am studying 75．my 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 76. Could you (please) take out the rubbish? 77.I rode a horse. 78.She used to go to school by bus. / She used to take the bus to school. 79.How is the weather? / What’s the weather like ? 80.Did you go to the park yesterday? / did you have a good time yesterday? 第二节 写作（25分） 【参考范文】 Should We Help with Housework? As a middle school student, I think we should help with housework. I usually do small tasks at home: I fold my clothes after washing and take out the trash every evening. Sometimes I also set the table before meals. Doing housework teaches me responsibility—my parents work hard, so sharing chores makes our home warmer. It also helps me learn life skills, like organizing things. Slowly, I’ve become more independent, and I feel proud when I lighten my parents’ load. 答案第2页，共2页 ( 1 / 2 ) 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $ 2025-2026学年七年级上学期第三次月考卷（新教材鲁教版五四学制） 英语 （满分150分，考试用时120分钟） 注意事项： 1．本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。 3．回答非选择题时，必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或者钢笔将答案写在答题卡相应位置上。写在本试卷上无效。 4. 测试范围：七年级上册Units 1~6（新教材鲁教版五四制）。 5. 难度：0.65。 6．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分 听力(共四节，满分30分) 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 听录音，从句组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。 1. A. He's watching a film. B. I left my book on the bus. C. You have to pack up your things first. 2. A. What can stories teach you? B. Where did you go on vacation? C. How was your summer holiday? 3. A. Did you eat anything special? B. Would you like to tell me about it? C. Is he exercising at the park? 4. A. What an amazing day! B. How terrible the day is! C. There was a beautiful rainbow in the sky. 5. A. I didn't go anywhere interesting. B. He did nothing special C. Peace does not come easily. 【答案】1. C 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 第二节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。 6. How was the Mount Taishan? A. Wonderful. B. Amazing. C. Good. 7. What does Emma learn from The Lion And The Mouse? A. East or west, home is best. B. Kindness is never wasted. C. Enjoy your day, come rain or shine. 8. Can Binbin go to the film? A. Yes, he can. B. No, he can't. C. I don't know. 9.Who likes reading newspapers? A. Jim. B. Jim's mother. C. Jim's grandmother. 10.What happened yesterday? A. A car got burnt. B. A car fell into the river. C. A car hit someone. 【答案】6. B 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A 第三节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。 11. How was Peter's weekend? A. Terrible. B. Great. C. Busy 12. What did Anna do on the weekend? A. Watched a film. B. Read books. C. Visited her grandma. 13. What was the story about? A. The lions and the mouse. B. The fox and the tiger. C. The fox and the crow. 14. Did the tiger eat the fox in the end? A. Yes. B. No. C. We don't know. 15. What can we learn from the story? A. Don't be fooled by empty praise. B. Sometimes, a quick- mind is more powerful than strength. C. Kindness is never wasted. 【答案】11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B 15. B 第四节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分） 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文读两遍。 16. Where did the writer go on vacation last summer? A. To a mountain B. To a beach town. C. To a big city. 17. What did the writer do every morning. A. Went swimming. B. Played beat volleyball. C. Went for a walk on the beach. 18. What was the flower clock made of? A. Wood. B. Stones. C. Flowers. 19. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. The hotel was dirty and uncomfortable. B. The writer didn't like the local food. C. The writer visited the flower clock and the casino. 20. What's the best title for this passage? A. A great beach town. B. My vacation in Vina del Mar. C. Interesting places in Vina del Mar. 【答案】16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B 第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分） 第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题；每小题2分，满分40分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。 A Mr and Mrs Smith live in a small house in the city center. Now they want to buy a big one. They search for information of houses online. Here’s the information they get. HOUSES FOR SALE Sweet Home Three-year-old house Dream Home One-year-old house Rooms: Four bedrooms, a living room, a dining room, two bathrooms and a big kitchen. There is a large garden in front of the house. Price: $350,000 Position: 5 km from the city center, and two blocks (街区) from the bus station and the supermarket. Rooms: Three bedrooms, a living room, two bathrooms and a kitchen. Price: $270,000 Position: 10 km from the city center, one block from the bus station, and two blocks from the supermarket. More information: Roger Jones/ (123) 456-7890 Jones@email.com Mrs Smith likes growing flowers, so she likes Sweet Home. However, Mr Smith thinks the house is too big for them to clean. For him, Dream Home is better. It takes him a shorter time to go to the bus station. It’s really hard for them to decide. 21. Sweet Home is ______ than Dream Home. A.older B. smaller C. cheaper D. farther 22. There are ______ rooms in all in Sweet Home. A. seven B. eight C. nine D. ten 23. Mrs Smith likes Sweet Home, because there is/are ______. A. many bedrooms B. a dining room C. two bathrooms D. a big garden 24. Dream Home is closer to ______. A. the garden B. the city center C. the bus station D. the supermarket 25. What can we know from the reading? A. Mrs Smith doesn’t like doing housework. B. There is no dining room in Dream Home. C. The two houses are both Roger Jones’. D. Mr and Mrs Smith decided to buy Sweet Home. 【答案】21. A 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. B 【解析】【导语】体裁：应用文（房屋售卖信息+说明）史密斯夫妇想换大房子，在线看到两套房源（Sweet Home和Dream Home），二人因喜好不同难以决定。 21.由文中信息可知，Sweet Home是“Three-year-old house（3年房龄）”，Dream Home是“One-year-old house（1年房龄）”，因此Sweet Home比Dream Home“更旧（older）”。故选A. 22. Sweet Home的房间包括：Four bedrooms（4间卧室）+ a living room（1间客厅）+ a dining room（1间餐厅）+ two bathrooms（2间浴室）+ a big kitchen（1间厨房），总计4+1+1+2+1=8间。故选B。 23.文中明确提到“Mrs Smith likes growing flowers, so she likes Sweet Home”，而Sweet Home有“a large garden（大花园）”，符合她种花的需求。故选D。 24.Sweet Home距离公交站“two blocks（2个街区）”，Dream Home距离公交站“one block（1个街区）”，因此Dream Home离公交站更近。故选C。 25. A选项：文中是Mr Smith觉得Sweet Home太大难打扫，未提Mrs Smith不喜欢做家务； B选项：Dream Home的房间介绍里没有提到dining room（餐厅），符合原文； C选项：只有Sweet Home的联系人是Roger Jones，Dream Home未提；D选项：文中说“it’s really hard for them to decide（他们难以决定）”，并未确定买Sweet Home。故选B。 B Last week, I went to London with my friend for an art festival by car. We were very happy because we loved art and we also loved taking a trip together. We arrived in London one day before the art festival started. It was sunny and hot in the city, so we wanted to go camping in the hills around London that night. We thought it would be fun to stay in nature and spend time together. But in the hills, the weather changed(变化) quickly. It started raining very hard not long after we put up our tent. And there was a strong wind. We tried our best to keep the rain out of our tent, but we couldn't. In the end, we had to leave and take our things to a hotel. When we got to the hotel, we found that there weren't any rooms for us. Luckily, a nice hotel worker let us sleep in the dining room. We fell asleep quickly because we were so exhausted. The next morning, when we woke up, we were happy that it was sunny again. Our camping trip didn't go very well, but we felt very warm. When we left the hotel, we said thanks to the hotel worker for his great help. 26. Why did the writer go to London last week? A. To go camping. B. To enjoy nature. C. To buy a car. D. To go to an art festival. 27. How was the weather in London when the writer and his friend arrived there? A. Sunny and hot. B. Cloudy and warm. C. Snowy and cold. D. Windy and cold. 28. Where did the writer and his friend sleep at last? A. In their car. B. In their tent. C. In a hotel's dining room. D. In a hotel worker's room. 29. What does the underlined word "exhausted" in Paragraph 4 mean? A.惭愧的 B.筋疲力尽的 C.害羞的 D.害怕的 30. What can we learn from the writer's trip? A. We shouldn't go camping in the hills. B. We should take trips with more than one friend. C. It's nice to spend time with family when you have a trip. D. We should help other people when they have problems. 【答案】26．D 27．A 28．C 29．B 30．D 【解析】【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，讲述了作者和朋友开车去伦敦参加艺术节，提前一天抵达后计划露营却遭遇恶劣天气，最终在酒店工作人员帮助下度过一晚的经历，传递了互助的温暖。 26．细节理解题。题干问“作者上周去伦敦的原因”，原文第一句“went to London with my friend for an art festival”直接给出答案，选项D完全匹配；A项“去露营”是抵达后的临时计划，并非初衷；B项“享受自然”是露营的目的，不是去伦敦的核心原因；C项“买汽车”与原文“by car”（开车前往）矛盾。故选D。 27．细节理解题。题干问“作者和朋友抵达伦敦时的天气”，原文第二段“It was sunny and hot in the city”明确描述，选项A正确；B项“多云且温暖”、C项“下雪且寒冷”、D项“多风且寒冷”均与原文天气描述不符。故选A。 28．细节理解题。题干问“作者和朋友最终在哪里睡觉”，原文第四段“a nice hotel worker let us sleep in the dining room”给出答案，选项C正确；A项“在车里”、B项“在帐篷里”（帐篷漏雨已离开）、D项“在酒店工作人员的房间里”均未在原文提及。故选C。 29．词义猜测题。结合上下文语境推断词义：前文提到“冒大雨、顶大风、努力挡雨、搬去酒店”，一系列疲惫的经历后“quickly fell asleep”，可推断“exhausted”是“筋疲力尽的”，选项B正确；A项“惭愧的”、C项“害羞的”、D项“害怕的”均与语境逻辑不符。故选B。 30．推理判断题。需结合文章情感主旨提炼启示：作者遭遇困境时，酒店工作人员主动帮忙，让他们感受到温暖，由此可推出“他人有困难时我们应伸出援手”，选项D契合主旨；A项“不该去山里露营”过于绝对，文章未否定露营本身；B项“应和多名朋友旅行”与原文“和一位朋友”矛盾，且无相关启示；C项“旅行时应和家人共度时光”错误，原文是和朋友旅行。故选D。 C We just moved into a small apartment. Our old house was beautiful and huge. Our home now? Half the size and crowded. There were still boxes everywhere. The day after the move, while the kids were in school, I dealt with some boxes and hung the family photo on the wall. But it just didn't feel like home. Maybe I could make some chocolate biscuits, just like my grandma used to do whenever I needed cheering up. When I added eggs to my mixer, it suddenly stopped working. "Really?!" I felt like crying. What would my grandma do? During those hard times, she used whatever she had to support her family. I didn't think Grandma would give up easily. She would find another way. So I ran to the remaining boxes. I found Grandma's old white mixer there! I turned the switch（开关）on... nothing. Ugh! The old mixer that was broken beyond（无法）repair was just like my life these days. "Come on! Try again," a small voice said. I turned the switch back on. To my surprise, the mixer started to work slowly! Two hours later, the kids opened the door. "Mmm, cookies! Thank you, Mom," they said, jumping excitedly. For the first time, our new house felt like home. It even smelled like home, just like Grandma's house always did. Maybe this house wasn't as big as our old one. But then again, maybe home wasn't where we lived. It was where we shared the sweet moments and the small miracles（奇迹）of every day, like a broken mixer that came back to life when I needed comfort most. 31. The writer wanted to make chocolate biscuits to ______. A. learn from her grandma B. cheer the family up C. find a way to support the family D. feed the hungry children 32. What might make the writer upset in the beginning? A. The new apartment was small and crowded. B. Her mixer suddenly stopped working. C. Her own life these days was in a mess. D. She missed her grandma very much. 33. Which words can best describe Grandma? A. Gentle and warm-hearted. B. Strong and smart. C. Popular and creative. D. Kind and hard-working. 34. What does the underlined phrase "came back to life" mean in the last paragraph? A. Started working again. B. Returned home suddenly. C. Was saved by others. D. Was taken to the world. 35. What does the writer learn about home in the end? A. Everyone needs a dream home. B. Home is where Mom is. C. Where love is, there is home. D. A house is not a home. 【答案】31．B 32．A 33．B 34．A 35．C 【解析】【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，讲述了作者一家搬进小公寓后，因房子狭小拥挤、物品杂乱而难以找到家的感觉，尝试做奶奶式巧克力饼干时遭遇搅拌器故障，最终借助奶奶留下的旧搅拌器成功做出饼干，进而领悟到“家不在于房子大小，而在于爱与美好时光的分享”的道理。 31．细节理解题。题干问“作者想做巧克力饼干是为了什么”，原文第二段“just like my grandma used to do whenever I needed cheering up”表明，作者做饼干是延续奶奶的做法，为了让自己和家人振作，找到家的感觉，选项B“让家人开心起来”完全契合；A项“向奶奶学习”是做法的来源，而非目的；C项“找到支持家庭的方法”与原文奶奶“支持家庭”的描述无关，作者无此意图；D项“喂饥饿的孩子”在原文中无任何依据，孩子们是闻到饼干香味兴奋，并非饥饿。故选B。 32．细节理解题。题干问“一开始让作者沮丧的是什么”，原文第一段明确描述“Half the size and crowded. There were still boxes everywhere”，且第二段补充“it just didn't feel like home”，说明新公寓狭小拥挤、物品杂乱是最初让作者沮丧的原因，选项A正确；B项“搅拌器突然停止工作”是后续发生的事，并非“一开始”的沮丧点；C项“生活一团糟”是搅拌器故障后作者的感慨，而非初始原因；D项“非常想念奶奶”，原文是想奶奶的做法来振作，并非因思念而沮丧。故选A。 33．人物性格推断题。题干问“最能描述奶奶的词是什么”，原文第三段“During those hard times, she used whatever she had to support her family. I didn't think Grandma would give up easily. She would find another way”，体现出奶奶在困境中不轻易放弃、善于想办法的特质，即“坚强且聪明”，选项B契合；A项“温柔且热心”、C项“受欢迎且有创造力”在原文中无相关细节支撑；D项“善良且勤奋”，“勤奋”虽可从“支持家庭”间接体现，但核心特质是“困境中不放弃、找办法”，“坚强且聪明”更精准。故选B。 34．词义猜测题。题干问“最后一段划线短语‘came back to life’是什么意思”，结合前文语境：奶奶的旧搅拌器一开始“turned the switch on... nothing”，后来“turned the switch back on... started to work slowly”，可知该短语指搅拌器“重新开始工作”，选项A正确；B项“突然回家”、C项“被别人拯救”、D项“被带到这个世界”均与搅拌器的工作状态无关，不符合语境逻辑。故选A。 35．主旨大意题。题干问“作者最终对‘家’有了什么领悟”，原文最后一段“home wasn't where we lived. It was where we shared the sweet moments and the small miracles of every day”点明主旨：家不在于居住的房子，而在于分享美好时光与小奇迹的地方，即“有爱之处便是家”，选项C精准概括；A项“每个人都需要梦想中的家”与原文“小公寓也能成为家”的核心相悖；B项“妈妈在的地方就是家”过于片面，原文强调的是全家分享的时光；D项“房子不等于家”只是表层表述，未体现“爱与分享”的核心内涵。故选C。 D The International Tree Planting Day falls on March 12 every year. But do you know that the tradition of planting trees started a long time ago in China? It rained a lot around the Qingming Festival. People planted trees around this time because trees could grow better with enough rain. Ancient Chinese planted many kinds of trees like mulberry trees（桑树）and fruit trees. Farmers needed mulberry leaves to feed silkworms. They made clothes with silk, sold them to the west of the world and brought back what they needed. Another famous tree-planting lover, Zhuge Liang, planted 800 mulberry trees and left them to his children after his death to support their lives. Deng Feng, a famous doctor in the Three Kingdom Period（三国时期）, saved many people’s lives. He didn’t ask them for money. What he only asked for was to plant apricot trees（杏树）on a hill. As time went by, a forest of apricot trees grew on the hill. That’s why we now show our thanks to a good doctor with the words “the warmth in an apricot forest.” There are many other interesting stories about planting trees. When Tree Planting Day comes next year, will you plant a tree with your wishes on it? 36. When is the International Tree Planting Day? A. On March 11. B. On March 12. C. On March 13. D. On March 14. 37. Ancient Chinese planted trees around the Qingming Festival because ______. A. it was much warmer around that time B. farmers had more free time at that time C. the weather was better for trees to grow D. it was time to remember their dead family 38. The writer wrote Paragraph 2 to tell us that ______. A. people planted trees to help the environment B. people could make mulberry leaves into clothes C. people only planted mulberry trees and fruit trees D. people could get what they needed by planting trees 39. The proper Chinese for the underlined words “the warmth in an apricot forest” is ______. A. 妙手回春 B. 古道热肠 C. 杏林春暖 D. 悬壶济世 40. What is the best title for this passage? A. The Best Time to Plant Trees B. Tree Planting in Ancient China C. Good Reasons for Planting Trees D. An Interesting Story of a Doctor 【答案】36．B 37．C 38．D 39．C 40．B 【解析】【导语】本文是一篇说明文，通过追溯中国古代植树传统，介绍了清明植树的气候优势、桑树在经济贸易中的重要作用、诸葛亮与邓峰的植树典故，展现了中国古代植树文化的深厚底蕴及其对现代的启示。 36．细节理解题。题干问“国际植树节的日期”，原文首句明确指出“The International Tree Planting Day falls on March 12 every year”，选项B完全匹配；A项“3月11日”、C项“3月13日”、D项“3月14日”均与原文日期不符。需注意：虽然搜索结果显示联合国曾将3月21日定为国际植树节，但本文明确采用“March 12”这一表述，因此严格依据原文作答 。 37．细节理解题。题干问“古代中国人在清明节前后植树的原因”，原文第一段“It rained a lot around the Qingming Festival. People planted trees... with enough rain”直接给出气候原因，选项C“天气更适合树木生长”正确；A项“天气更温暖”虽符合清明时节特征，但原文未提及温度因素；B项“农民有更多空闲时间”、D项“纪念逝去的家人”均未在原文出现，属于无中生有。 38．段落主旨题。题干问“作者写第二段的目的”，该段以桑树为例，说明农民通过种植桑树养蚕、织绸并开展对外贸易，最终“brought back what they needed”，体现了树木的经济价值，选项D“人们可以通过种树获得所需”精准概括；A项“帮助环境”在文中未体现；B项“将桑叶制成衣服”混淆概念，原文是用蚕丝制衣；C项“只种植桑树和果树”与“many kinds of trees”矛盾，且“only”表述绝对 。 39．词义猜测题。题干问“the warmth in an apricot forest”的中文对应，根据第三段邓峰的故事：他治病不收钱，只要求患者种杏树，最终“a forest of apricot trees grew”，这一典故衍生出“杏林春暖”的成语，既呼应“杏树”又体现医者仁心，选项C正确；A项“妙手回春”强调医术高明，B项“古道热肠”形容人热心，D项“悬壶济世”泛指行医，均无法同时涵盖“杏树”与“温暖”的双关含义。 40．标题归纳题。题干要求为文章选最佳标题，全文围绕中国古代植树传统展开，介绍了清明植树的气候依据、经济树种的应用及历史人物的植树故事，选项B“中国古代的植树活动”全面概括；A项“最佳植树时间”仅涉及第一段部分内容；C项“植树的好理由”侧重原因分析，而文章更注重历史传统的呈现；D项“一位医生的有趣故事”仅为第三段的细节，以偏概全 。 第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 Lots of students are too busy doing their homework to help out with housework. So, many parents want to know if they should give their children chores. Well, there's no need to worry. 41._________ First, doing chores helps children learn to be independent. Parents can't stay by their children's side all the time. 42._________And these skills will help them be ready for the day when they go to college or take care of their own houses. 43.___________ When children finish a chore, they will not only take pride in a well-done job but also have confidence in their ability to do things well. Third, doing chores makes it possible for children to develop good relationships with their family, friends and partners. Doing chores together with family can make children more caring for their family. And they begin to learn their responsibility(责任) in a family or a group. 44.___________ They will know that if they work together as a team, things will be completed more quickly and better. 45.___________ Yes! And it should be on the top of the list. Now, my friends, are you ready to help? A. Should children do chores? B. Chores are good for children. C. Children cannot do chores without their parents' help. D. That helps them build team spirit. E. Children need to learn the necessary life skills to be independent. F. Second, doing chores helps children build self-confidence. G. Ding chores is a waste of time. 【答案】41．B 42．E 43．F 44．D 45．A 【解析】【导语】本文是一篇说明文，围绕“孩子是否应该做家务”展开，从培养独立性、建立自信心、发展人际关系三个方面阐述了做家务对孩子的益处，最终明确孩子应该做家务的观点并发出呼吁。 41．总起句衔接题。前文提出“家长纠结是否该让孩子做家务”的疑问，后文分三点阐述做家务的好处，此处需一句总起句点明核心观点。选项B“做家务对孩子有好处”直接回应前文疑问，统领全文下文的分论点，逻辑连贯；A项是疑问句，与前文“无需担心”的语气衔接不当；G项“做家务浪费时间”与后文褒义观点相悖；C项强调“需父母帮助”，偏离核心话题。故选B。 42．细节衔接题。前文强调“做家务帮孩子独立，父母不能一直陪伴”，后文提及“这些技能帮孩子应对未来生活”，此处需补充“孩子需要学习独立所需的生活技能”。选项E“孩子需要学习必要的生活技能以实现独立”既承接“独立”的核心话题，又以“必要的生活技能”呼应后文“these skills”，衔接自然；C项“无父母帮助孩子不能做家务”与“培养独立”的主旨矛盾；D项“培养团队精神”与本段“独立”话题无关。故选E。 43．结构衔接题。前文有“First”（第一点），后文有“Third”（第三点），此处需体现第二点分论点，且话题需契合后文“自豪、自信”的内容。选项F“第二，做家务帮助孩子建立自信心”既符合“First-Second-Third”的结构逻辑，又以“建立自信心”精准对应后文“have confidence in their ability”，完美衔接；其他选项无“Second”标识，且话题与“自信”无关。故选F。 44．细节承接题。前文说“孩子在家庭或团队中学习责任”，后文强调“团队合作能更快更好完成事情”，此处需衔接“责任”与“团队合作”的关联。选项D“这帮助他们培养团队精神”中“这”指代前文“学习团队中的责任”，且“团队精神”与后文“work together as a team”形成呼应，逻辑通顺；E项“学习独立技能”与本段“团队关系”话题脱节；C项未涉及“团队”相关内容。故选D。 45．结尾呼应题。后文以“Yes!”回应，说明此处需是一个一般疑问句，且需呼应文章开头“家长纠结是否该让孩子做家务”的核心疑问。选项A“孩子应该做家务吗？”既以疑问句形式契合后文肯定回答，又首尾呼应全文核心话题，收束自然；B项是陈述句，无法引出“Yes!”的回应；G项与后文肯定态度矛盾。故选A。 第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分） 第一节 补全对话（共5个小题；每小题1分，满分5分） 阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出一个最佳答案完成对话。 Lily: Hi, Tom! I heard you went on a school trip last week. 46 Tom: Yes! We visited a big farm. It was really interesting. Lily: Cool! 47 Tom: We did many things. We fed the cows and picked strawberries. Lily: Strawberries? 48 Tom: They were so sweet! And we also rode horses. Lily: Wow, riding horses must be exciting. 49 Tom: My friend Jack. He’s good at riding. Lily: 50 Tom: Sure! We took lots of photos. I’ll show them to you tomorrow. Lily: Great! I can’t wait. 46. A. Did you have fun? B. Do you like sports? C. Are you busy today? D. Will you go again? 47. A. What’s the farm like? B. When did you leave? C. What did you do there? D. Who went with you? 48. A. How were they? B. Where are they? C. What colour are they? D. How many are there? 49. A. What’s his name? B. Who did you ride with? C. Where did you ride? D. How did you ride? 50. A. Did you take photos? B. Can you draw them? C. Do you like photos? D. Are these your photos? 【答案】46．A 47．C 48．A 49．B 50．A 【解析】【导语】本文是一段对话，Lily询问Tom上周的学校农场旅行，围绕旅行中的活动（喂牛、摘草莓、骑马）、体验感受、同行者及拍照情况展开交流，氛围轻松愉快。 46．情景问答衔接题。前文Lily提及“听说Tom上周参加了学校旅行”，后文Tom回应“Yes! We visited a big farm. It was really interesting.”（是的！我们去了一个大农场，真的很有趣），此处需用一般疑问句询问旅行是否愉快。选项A“你玩得开心吗？”直接契合后文的肯定回应与旅行感受描述，逻辑连贯；B项“你喜欢运动吗？”、C项“你今天忙吗？”、D项“你会再去吗？”均与后文“农场旅行有趣”的回应脱节。故选A。 47．细节问答衔接题。后文Tom回答“We did many things. We fed the cows and picked strawberries.”（我们做了很多事，喂了牛还摘了草莓），可知前文Lily的问句是询问旅行中做了什么。选项C“你们在那里做了什么？”精准对应后文的活动描述；A项“农场是什么样子的？”、B项“你们什么时候离开的？”、D项“谁和你们一起去的？”均未涉及“做的事情”，衔接不当。故选C。 48．感受问答衔接题。前文Lily提到“草莓？”，后文Tom回应“They were so sweet!”（它们太甜了），可知此处是询问草莓的口感或体验。选项A“它们怎么样？”符合语境，能引出后文的味道描述；B项“它们在哪里？”、C项“它们是什么颜色的？”、D项“有多少个？”均与“甜”的回应无关。故选A。 49．人物问答衔接题。前文Lily说“骑马一定很刺激”，后文Tom回应“My friend Jack. He’s good at riding.”（我的朋友杰克，他擅长骑马），可知此处是询问和谁一起骑马。选项B“你和谁一起骑的？”直接对应后文的人物回答；A项“他叫什么名字？”（前文未提及“他”，无指代）、C项“你在哪里骑的？”、D项“你骑得怎么样？”均与“朋友杰克”的回应不匹配。故选B。 50．行为问答衔接题。后文Tom回应“Sure! We took lots of photos. I’ll show them to you tomorrow.”（当然！我们拍了很多照片，明天给你看），可知此处是询问是否拍了照片。选项A“你们拍照片了吗？”契合后文的肯定回应与拍照相关表述；B项“你能画它们吗？”、C项“你喜欢照片吗？”、D项“这些是你的照片吗？”均与“拍了很多照片”的回应脱节。故选A。 第二节 完形填空（共15个小题；每小题1分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 Do you like making your bed? Do you make your bed by 51.______? Or do you leave it 52.______ your parents to do? Do you do any other 53.______? Every morning during military training(军训), our 54.______ would show up in our room. The 55.______ thing they would look over was our beds—to see if our quilts were square and the beds were 56.______ and tidy. It was 57.______ to do. But every morning the teachers would ask us to 58.______ our beds perfect. It seemed a little 59.______ over time, but the wisdom(智慧) behind this is great. If you make your bed every morning, it 60.______ that you finish the first thing of the day. It will give you a small sense of 61.______ and make you do another thing and another. Making your bed also makes you 62.______ that little things in life are important. If you can't do the little things right, you will 63.______ do the big things right. If you have a bad day by chance, you will come home to a bed that is clean and tidy, 64.______ that gives you happiness. You will 65.______ that tomorrow will be better. If you want to change the world, start off by making your bed. 51. A. myself B. yourself C. himself D. herself 52. A. for B. with C. about D. over 53. A. washing B. dishes C. housework D. homework 54. A. doctors B. nurses C. teachers D. drivers 55. A. first B. second C. third D. fourth 56. A. new B. clean C. small D. big 57. A. difficult B. hard C. easy D. early 58. A. become B. go C. feel D. make 59. A. interesting B. boring C. exciting D. relaxing 60. A. means B. decides C. picks D. finds 61. A. pride B. loss C. shame D. humour 62. A. answer B. wonder C. ask D. understand 63. A. never B. often C. usually D. always 64. A. but B. and C. or D. though 65. A. know B. believe C. say D. wonder 【答案】51．B 52．A 53．C 54．C 55．A 56．B 57．C 58．D 59．B 60．A 61．A 62．D 63．A 64．B 65．B 【解析】【导语】本文是一篇议论文，结合军训期间整理床铺的经历，阐述了“整理床铺”这一小事背后的深层智慧：它能培养成就感、让人体会细节的重要性、在困境中带来慰藉与希望，最终点明“想改变世界，从整理床铺开始”的核心观点。 51．代词辨析题。题干语境围绕“你”展开，此处需对应第二人称反身代词。选项B“yourself”（你自己）与主语“you”一致，“by yourself”表示“独自”，符合“你是否独自整理床铺”的语境；A项“myself”（我自己）、C项“himself”（他自己）、D项“herself”（她自己）均与主语人称不匹配。故选B。 52．介词辨析题。考查固定搭配“leave sth for sb”，意为“把某事留给某人做”。选项A“for”符合搭配，“leave it for your parents to do”表示“把它留给父母做”；B项“with”（和）、C项“about”（关于）、D项“over”（超过）均无此搭配逻辑，衔接不当。故选A。 53．名词辨析题。前文围绕“整理床铺”这一家务展开，此处需询问“是否做其他家务”。选项C“housework”（家务）涵盖“整理床铺”，符合语境；A项“washing”（洗涤）范围过窄；B项“dishes”（餐具）是具体家务，需与“do the dishes”搭配，此处形式不符；D项“homework”（作业）与“家务”话题无关。故选C。 54．名词辨析题。结合“military training（军训）”场景，检查学生床铺的应是老师。选项C“teachers”（老师）符合场景逻辑；A项“doctors”（医生）、B项“nurses”（护士）、D项“drivers”（司机）均与军训场景无关。故选C。 55．序数词辨析题。前文提到老师来宿舍，结合军训要求，“检查床铺”应是首要事项。选项A“first”（第一）符合“先检查床铺”的常规逻辑；B项“second”（第二）、C项“third”（第三）、D项“fourth”（第四）均与“首要检查项”的语境不符。故选A。 56．形容词辨析题。与“tidy（整洁的）”并列，描述床铺的标准状态，“clean（干净的）”是合理搭配。选项B“clean”符合“被子方正、床铺干净整洁”的军训要求；A项“new（新的）”、C项“small（小的）”、D项“big（大的）”均与床铺检查标准无关。故选B。 57．形容词辨析题。后文“but”表转折，强调“老师要求做到完美”，暗示“整理床铺本身不难”。选项C“easy”（容易的）与转折后的“perfect”形成对比，符合逻辑；A项“difficult（困难的）”、B项“hard（艰难的）”与转折逻辑矛盾；D项“early（早的）”描述时间，与“做这件事”的难度无关。故选C。 58．动词辨析题。考查固定搭配“make sth perfect”，意为“使某物完美”。选项D“make”符合搭配，“ask us to make our beds perfect”表示“要求我们把床铺整理得完美”；A项“become（成为）”、B项“go（去）”、C项“feel（感觉）”均无法与“our beds perfect”构成合理搭配。故选D。 59．形容词辨析题。前文提到“每天整理床铺且要做到完美”，结合“over time（久而久之）”，可推断这件事会让人觉得有点无聊。选项B“boring”（无聊的）符合长期重复做一件事的感受；A项“interesting（有趣的）”、C项“exciting（令人兴奋的）”、D项“relaxing（令人放松的）”均与“长期重复”的语境不符。故选B。 60．动词辨析题。前文“整理床铺”与后文“完成当天第一件事”是逻辑上的“意味着”关系。选项A“means”（意味着）符合逻辑，“it means that...”表示“这意味着……”；B项“decides（决定）”、C项“picks（挑选）”、D项“finds（发现）”均无此逻辑关联。故选A。 61．名词辨析题。“完成当天第一件事”会带来积极的心理感受，“sense of pride”表示“自豪感”。选项A“pride”（自豪）符合语境；B项“loss（损失）”、C项“shame（羞愧）”均为负面情绪，与语境相悖；D项“humour（幽默）”与“完成事情”无关。故选A。 62．动词辨析题。后文“生活中小事很重要”是整理床铺带来的感悟，需用“understand（明白）”表达“领悟到”。选项D“understand”符合“让人明白细节重要性”的语境；A项“answer（回答）”、B项“wonder（疑惑）”、C项“ask（询问）”均无法体现“感悟”的逻辑。故选D。 63．副词辨析题。前文“小事做不好”与后文“大事做不好”是顺承的否定逻辑，“never（永远不）”加强语气。选项A“never”符合“细节做不好，大事难成”的哲理；B项“often（经常）”、C项“usually（通常）”、D项“always（总是）”均为肯定倾向，与逻辑相悖。故选A。 64．连词辨析题。前文“床铺干净整洁”与后文“带来快乐”是顺承关系，需用并列连词连接。选项B“and”（并且）表顺承，逻辑连贯；A项“but（但是）”表转折；C项“or（或者）”表选择；D项“though（尽管）”表让步，均不符合语境。故选B。 65．动词辨析题。“床铺带来快乐”会让人产生“明天会更好”的积极信念，“believe（相信）”符合情感逻辑。选项B“believe”体现主观信念；A项“know（知道）”强调事实；C项“say（说）”侧重表达；D项“wonder（疑惑）”表不确定，均与“积极期待”的语境不符。故选B。 第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分） 阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。 The taste and smell of a certain food always impress（使留下深刻印象）us. For me, my dear mother is like 66.______ magician in the kitchen. Do you know why I say that? 67.______ she can magically turn tofu and beef into delicious red, hot Mapo tofu. Even simple eggs and green onions can become wonderful pancakes. Just thinking about these makes me feel 68.______ (real) hungry! As if I can see delicious food on the table. But 69.______ all these delicious foods, my first favourite is porridge. I often wake up to the wonderful smell of porridge. The different ingredients（材料）in it make it taste so good. Each kind has its unique taste. 70.______ I fall ill and don't feel well, my kind mother always71.______ ( make) plain rice porridge for me. It might be the simplest food on any Chinese menu. But for me, it's one of the best 72.______ (thing) in the world. It's even better than taking a pill when I'm sick! And the 73.______ (two) one I like best is the noodles with beef and tomatoes. How delicious they smell! Now, I 74.______ (study) far away from home. But the old days still feel so sweet and lovely in 75.______ heart. What kind of food remains strong in your memory? Share it with me! 【答案】66．a 67．Because 68．really 69．among 70．When 71．makes 72．things 73．second 74．am studying 75．my 【解析】【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，通过回忆妈妈做的麻婆豆腐、粥、番茄牛肉面等美食，表达了对妈妈的思念和对家乡味道的眷恋，体现了食物背后的亲情温暖。 66．冠词辨析题。此处修饰可数名词单数“magician（魔术师）”，表泛指“一位魔术师”，且“magician”以辅音音素开头，故填不定冠词a。 67．连词辨析题。前文提出“为什么说妈妈是厨房魔术师”的疑问，后文解释原因（能把普通食材做成美食），需用Because引导原因状语从句，句首首字母大写。 68．副词转换题。修饰形容词“hungry（饿的）”需用副词，“real”的副词形式为really，表“非常饿”。 69．介词辨析题。结合语境“在所有这些美味食物中”，表示“在三者及以上之中”用介词among，符合“all these delicious foods”（复数名词表多个）的范围搭配。 70．连词辨析题。后文“生病不舒服”是前文“妈妈做白粥”的时间背景，需用When引导时间状语从句，表“当……时”，句首首字母大写。 71．动词变形题。主语“my kind mother”是第三人称单数，根据“often（经常）”可知为一般现在时，谓语动词“make”需变第三人称单数形式makes。 72．名词复数题。“one of + 形容词最高级 + 可数名词复数”是固定结构，表“最……之一”，“thing”的复数形式为things。 73．序数词转换题。前文提及“first favourite（第一喜爱的）”，此处对应“第二喜爱的”，需用序数词second，表顺序。 74．动词时态题。“Now（现在）”提示句子为现在进行时，结构为“am/is/are + 动词-ing”，主语为I，故填am studying，表“现在离家远，正在求学”。 75．物主代词转换题。修饰名词“heart（心）”需用形容词性物主代词，“I”的形容词性物主代词为my，“in my heart”表示“在我心里”。 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分） 第一节情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） 根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。 76. A:_____________________________________________? B: Yes， sure。 77. A:Did you go fishing last Sunday? B: No, _________________________________. 78. A:How did Lucy use to go to school? B: _____________________________________________. 79. A:_____________________________ B: It’s raining heavily. 80. A:____________________________ B:Yes, I went to the park with my friend yesterday. 参考答案 76. Could you (please) take out the rubbish? 77.I rode a horse. 78.She used to go to school by bus. / She used to take the bus to school. 79.How is the weather? / What’s the weather like ? 80.Did you go to the park yesterday? / did you have a good time yesterday? 第二节 写作（25分） 某英文报就中学生是否应该做家务进行征文，请根据以下内容提示问题用英文从你做家务的内容、原因及收获等方面来写一篇短文。 内容提示问题： 52. Do you think middle school student should help with housework? 53. What housework do you usually do at home? 54. Why do you think children should do housework? 55. Something more about doing housework. 注意：文中不得透露个人真实信息；词数60—80；标题已给出，不计入总词数。 Should We Help with Housework? As a middle school student, I think____________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ 参考范文 Should We Help with Housework? As a middle school student, I think we should help with housework. I usually do small tasks at home: I fold my clothes after washing and take out the trash every evening. Sometimes I also set the table before meals. Doing housework teaches me responsibility—my parents work hard, so sharing chores makes our home warmer. It also helps me learn life skills, like organizing things. Slowly, I’ve become more independent, and I feel proud when I lighten my parents’ load. 试卷第6页，共7页 ( 1 / 11 ) 学科网（北京）股份有限公司 $